Term
Who handles a disabled aircraft on a runway (after the occupants are clear)? |
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Definition
Flight Standards and airport management/military operations office personnel in the same manner as any obstruction. |
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Term
Runway braking action reports must always include the ________. |
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Definition
type of aircraft or vehicle from which the report is received. |
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Term
Is a safety device consisting of two major components: engaging or catching devices and energy absorbtion devices for the purpose of arresting both tailhook and/or nontailhook-equipped aircraft. |
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Definition
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Term
What action is required when landing area conditions information is obtained from other than authorized airport or FAA personnel? |
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Definition
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Term
If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway, quote them the appropriate parts of the NOTAM apploying to the runway and ______________. |
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Definition
inform them that a clearance cannot be issued. |
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Term
Furnish the quality of braking action to all aircraft as received from pilots or ____________. |
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Definition
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Term
Issue the runway surface condition and/or Runway Condition Reading (RCR) to all __________aircraft. |
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Definition
U.S. Air Force and Air National Guard |
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Term
On a REIL three-setting system, setting 2 shall be used during the day when the visibility is ______________. |
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Definition
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Term
Operate the Approach Light System (ALS) between sunrise and sunset when the prevailing visibility is 5 miles or less, or when the ceiling is less than ______ feet. |
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Definition
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Term
The ALS intensity settings are operated at Setting 2 during the day when the visibility is ___________________. |
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Definition
5 up to but not including 7 miles |
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Term
Operate Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) when the visibility is less than _________ mile(s). |
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Definition
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Term
Operate runway edge lights between sunset and sunrise for arriving IFR aircraft ____________________ |
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Definition
before the aircraft begins final approach |
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Term
Operate one-setting taxiway lights during the day when _______________. |
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Definition
visibility is less than 1 mile |
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Term
Turn the rotating beacon on between sunrise and sunset when the reported _____________________. |
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Definition
ceiling or visibility is below basic VFR minima |
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Term
To what weight class of aircraft do runway use programs always apply? |
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Definition
Turbojets 12,500 pounds or heavier |
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Term
Who is responsible for ensuring that a proposed runway use program is in compliance with FAA Order 8400.9? |
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Definition
Regional Flight Standards Division |
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Term
What is always giving when authorizing use of a runway and tailwind component exists? |
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Definition
Wind direction and velocity |
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Term
Who must be informed whenever rubber-supported cables are in place at the approach end of the landing runway? |
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Definition
Civil and U.S. Army aircraft |
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Term
For clear and dry runways, unless a greater crosswind component is approved by the applicable Flight Standards Office, the crosswind component for the selected runway (including gust value) must NOT be greater than _________ KT. |
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Definition
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Term
A designated Short Take Off and Landing (STOL) runway may be assigned only when _________. |
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Definition
requested by the pilot or as specified in an LOA with an aircraft operator |
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Term
Before any runway use program is implemented, the _______________ must coordinate with and encourage participation from the airport proprietor, local community, and aircraft operators who regularly use the airport. |
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Definition
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Term
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the "calm wind" runway when ___________. (Calm wind runway) |
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Definition
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Term
The width of Runway 28R is _____ feet. |
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Definition
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Term
All taxiway lights at Academy Airport are __________-intensity. |
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Definition
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Term
The width of Taxiway C is _____ feet. |
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Definition
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Term
Which runways have HIRL, high intensity runway lighting? |
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Definition
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Term
An FDIO system consists of a printer, keyboard and ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages? |
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Definition
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Term
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded _______ information. |
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Definition
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Term
One purpose of the ATIS is to ________. |
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Definition
relieve frequency congestion |
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Term
An ATIS broadcast is identified by ________________. |
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Definition
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Term
Optimum duration of an ATIS message is ____________ seconds. |
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Definition
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Term
When does the identification code start over? |
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Definition
When broadcast has been interrupted for more than 12 hours. |
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Term
When should a new broadcast be made? |
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Definition
When new weather is received. |
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Term
What is the sequence of an ATIS message? |
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Definition
Airport/facility name, phonetic letter code, and time of weather sequence |
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Term
What is reported from certified direct-reading instruments? |
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Definition
Wind direction, velocity, and altimeter |
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Term
Before broadcasting the message, the ATIS should be checked for ____________________________. |
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Definition
accuracy, completeness, speech rate, and proper enunciation |
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Term
Ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted if the ceiling is above _____ feet and the visibility is more than ____ miles. |
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Definition
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Term
What color is the "OVRD" light when the system handset is used to override on-line recording? |
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Definition
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Term
On the RCU in the recorder section, which switch places the associated recorder into the proper operating mode? |
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Definition
"ON LINE/MON EDIT/RECORD" |
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Term
If a pilot on approach sees all white lights on the VASI, this indicates the aircraft is ______ the glide path. |
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Definition
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Term
Sequenced Flashing Lights that are installed only in combination with other light systems of an ALS are identified as ______________. |
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Definition
RAIL - Runway Alignment Indicator Lights |
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Term
Runway edge lights are white. Except on instrument runways _______ replaces white on the last _______ feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings. |
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Definition
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Term
Which runways at the Academy have HIRL and an ALS? |
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Definition
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Term
What instrument approach does RWY 10L provide? |
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Definition
VOR/DME Runway 10L Approach |
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Term
Which taxiways are 200 feet wide? |
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Definition
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Term
How long are all other taxiways? |
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Definition
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Term
How many emergency standby locations are there? |
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Definition
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Term
Which standby locations are designated for Runway 16/34? |
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Definition
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Term
What color are all Academy Airport taxiway lights and what intensity are they |
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Definition
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Term
What are the two NAVAIDs that service the Academy Airport? |
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Definition
Tulsa VORTAC and Woody outer compass locator |
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Term
Where is the Tulsa VORTAC located? |
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Definition
5.5 miles west of Academy Airport |
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Term
Used as a final approach fix for ILS Runway 28R and as a part of the missed approach procedure for VOR/DME Runway 10L approach. |
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Definition
Woody outer compass locator. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Is the height at which a decision must be made during a precision approach to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach. |
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Definition
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Term
Is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on final approach where no electronic glide slope is provided (nonprecision approach). |
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Definition
Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) |
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Term
On the AAC1 departure, what altitude would an aircraft climb to before starting a turn? |
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Definition
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Term
On the RNY1 departure, an aircraft would fly runway heading until reaching 1,500 feet and then turn to a heading of _____. |
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Definition
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Term
On the RNY1 and AAC1 departures, when can a pilot expect to receive his/her requested altitude? |
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Definition
10 minutes after departure |
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Term
The CRT is divided in to what 3 areas? |
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Definition
Previously displayed information; Incoming information display; composition |
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Term
FDIO message have how many fields? How are fields separated? |
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Definition
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Term
What does an ATIS include? |
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Definition
operational and meteorological information |
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Term
When may the ceiling/sky condition be omitted from an ATIS? |
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Definition
when the ceiling is above 5,000 feet AND the visibility is more than 5 miles |
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Term
When using the "OVERLAY/END" switch, the "ON LINE/MON EDIT/RECORD" switch must be in what position? |
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Definition
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Term
What recorder switch setting allows the balance of a recording to remain active after an edit function has been completed? |
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Definition
"OVERLAY/END" switch in "OVERLAY" |
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