Term
Name all the commonly tested X-linked recessive diseases.
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Definition
Lesch-Nyhan WISHes DUCHy Tim BURTON would stop making G-rated FABles, and make a movie about at a CHRONIC HEME-loving OCTopus HUNTER.
Lesch-Nyhan, Wiskot-Aldrich, Duchenne's, Burton's agamma., G6PD def., Fabry's, Chronic Granulomatous disease, Hemophelia A and B, Octular Albinism, Hunter's |
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Term
Name the 4 Trinucleotyde Repeat Syndromes.
What are the repeats they're associated with?
What is there inheritance pattern? |
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Definition
MyoTonic dystrophy (AD) - CTG
Freidrich's Ataxia (AR) - GAA
FraGile X-syndrome (X-linked) - CGG
Huntington's Chorea (AD) - CAG
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Term
Are deep tendon reflexes preserved or lost/diminished or increased in Myasthenia Gravis?
What medications exacerbate myesthenia gravis? |
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Definition
-Preserved
-Meds that exacerbate MG:
-antibiotics: aminoglycosides and tetracyclines
-beta-blockers
-antiarrhythmics: quinidine, procainamide, and lidocaine |
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Term
What are contraindications of triptans used for migraine headaches? |
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Definition
Familial hemiplegic migraine
Uncontrolled HTN
CAD
Prinzmetal angina
Pregnancy
Ischemic Stroke
Basilar Migraine |
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Term
What's the best initial step in managing a suspected stroke or TIA?
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Definition
CT of head w/o contrast b/c if intracranial hemorrhage is present, this drastically changes management (t-PA is contraindicated)
Aspririn is the best initial treatment, and if aspirin is not tolerated you can use dipyramidol |
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Term
What is the one neuropathic disease that presents with proximal mm weakness as opposed to distal (which almost all neuropathic diseases involving mm weakness present as)? |
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Definition
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Term
When is a nerve conductionstudy indicated? |
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Definition
In chronic conditions, particularly to distinguish btwn diseases affecting nm junction, primary mm myopathy and disorders due to denervation |
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Term
How does the sympathetic and parasympathetic NS innervate the eye (who do these nn fibers get to the pupil)?
What innervates the touch sensation of the cornea? |
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Definition
SNS - supracervical ganglia -> common carotid -> internal carotid -> V1 -> long ciliary nerve
PNS - Edinger Westfall nucleus -> CN III
V1 provides touch sensation to cornea |
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Term
What is the standard diagnostic test for sleep apnea? |
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Definition
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Term
Prolonged QRS suggests a _____arrhythmia
Prolonged QT suggests a _____arrhythmia |
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Definition
QRS --> bradyarrhythmia
QT --> tachyarrhythmia |
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Term
Lidocaine is used for ______ arrhythmias |
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Definition
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Term
Transcutaneous pacing is used in the management of what arrhythmia? |
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Definition
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Term
All post-transplant pts should receive what medication to prophylax against what 2 opportunistic organisms? |
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Definition
TMP-SMX to prophy against Pneumocystis and Toxoplamosis
You can also give gancyclovir or valcyclovir to prophy against CMV |
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Term
How do you differentiate a case control study from a cross sectional study?
What types of odds ratios are you able to derive from these studies? |
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Definition
A cross sectional study is examining at a specific point in time who does and doesn't have disease while at the same time looking for factors thay might be associated with the disease. This type of study gives you prevelence of disease, and prevalence odds ratio (used to compare prevalence of disease btwn diff populations)
A case control study is looking back in time and comparing those this a disease to those without with respect to the presence/absence of a risk factor of interest. This type of study establishes causality, and gives you exposure odds ratio (i.e. the odds of you having had a risk factor given your disease status). |
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Term
How can you distinguish between constrictive pericarditis vs cardiac tampenade as far as decreased ventricular filling? |
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Definition
Ventricular filling is impeded throughout diastole in cardiac tampenade, whereas in constrictive pericarditis there's an abrupt halt in ventricular filling. |
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Term
What physical diagnostic sign can differentiate cardiac vs hepatic causes of edema? |
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Definition
Hepato-jugular reflex is positive when venous pressure is high, indicating cardiac source of edema. |
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Term
What are the main Sx of TCA overdose?
What is the MCC of TCA overdose-related death?
How does NaHCO3 have cardioprotective effects when a person has tricyclic anti-depressant overdose?
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Definition
Sx - anticholinergic (hyperthermia, dilated pupils, intestinal ileus), Na channel blockade (prolonged QRS), alpha-1 blockade (hypotension), inhibition of NE and 5-HT reuptake (insomnia, anxiety, seizures), anti-histamine (sedation)
MCC of death - TCA induced hypotension
1) The sodium load helps in alleviates the depressant effect on fast-action sodium channels
2) Alkylinization of serum decreases drug avidity for sodium channels |
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Term
What is the treatment for:
1) (initially treating) comedonal acne
2) mild-moderate acne
3) moderate-severe acne
4) nodulocystic/scarring acne
What must you avoid in pts with acne? |
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Definition
1) Topical retinoids
2) Topical erythromycin or clinda -> suppress P. acnes
3) Systemic AbX (tetracyclin, minocyclin, doxycycline, erythromycin, TMP-SMX)
4) Oral retinoids
Avoid acne-promoting agents such as make-up, creams, oils, steroids, androgens
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Term
What are the clinical features and fundoscopic exam findings of optic neuritis in pts with MS?
What other eye pathology may you see in MS pts? |
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Definition
-Monocular vision loss
-Painful eye mov't
-Central visual field defects
-Decreased pupillary light reaction
-Fundoscopy is normal
Remember, these pts may also have internuclear ophthalmoplegia due to destruction of the MLF (which connects the nucleus of VI to the contralateral nucleus to III) -> one eye stares at you when you try to have them look L or R |
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Term
A 49 y/o female p/w progressive exertional dyspnea. She also complains of swelling and pain in fingers over past 6 months. Exam shows prominent JVP, lungs are CTAB, skin is thickened and discolored over fingertips and interphalangeal joints, and mild pitting ankle edema.
Dx?
Pathogenesis?
What antibody might be present in this pt?
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Definition
Dx - systemic sclerosis, which affects every organ system:
-skin begins to thicken at hand/feet w/ associated edema
-Raynaud phenomenon and calcinosis cutis are also common. Can cause "mask facies"
-Pulm HTN results in RVF -> JVD and LE edema
-Esophageal and gastric dysmotility -> GERD
-Renal disease -> HTN (treat with ACI-I)
-Pt may have anti-topoisomerase I Abs (aka anti-SLC 70 abs) |
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Term
What is the best initial screening test for suspected adrenal insufficiency (Addisons)?
What's the best initial screening test for suspected Cushings?
(Qid 2174) |
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Definition
Cosyntropin (ACTH analogue) stimulation test
-A rise in cortisol levels above 20 mcg/dL 30-60 mins after administration of cosyntropin r/o Addison's disease
Cushings:
-Inital screening test is overnight (low dose) dexamethasone suppression test
-Give 1 mg dexameth, and measure serum cortisol at 8 am. If <5 -> Cushings can be excluded. If >5, you give high dose Dexameth to determine cause of Cushings |
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Term
When is it recommended for adults to receive:
1) Td vaccine
2) Intramuscular or Intranasal influenza vaccine
3) Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine |
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Definition
1) Td should be given Q 10 yrs after age 18, and a single TdAP booster is rec'd for adults of all ages in place of Td
2) Intramuscular influenza vaccine for pregnant women, and pts with comorbidities. Intranasal (live-attenuated) given to non-pregnant, healthy pts under 50
3) Pneumoccocal for adults 65 yrs +, unless pt has chronic disease, including CV, pulm, hepatic, renal, metabolic (DM), or pts who are immunosuppressed -> then you give it to them regardless of age
-No booster req'd if given > 65 y/o; if given <65 y/o then give booster 5 years later when pt is > 65 y/o
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Term
What is the pathophysiology behind neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia?
How does it present?
What's the treatment? |
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Definition
Pathophys - sympathoadrenal hyperactivity. Use of anti-psychotics in genetically predisposed ppl can cause increased Ca2+ release from SR -> increased myocyte contractility
Sx - confusion, fever, mm rigidity, diaphoresis, CK of 50,000
Tx - dantrolene (mm relaxant that works on the RyR receptor) is main treatment, followed by bromocriptine |
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Term
What 4 pathogenic factors contribute to the development of hepatic encephalopathy?
What are the precipitating factors for hepatic encephalopathy? |
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Definition
1) Accumulation of NH3 in blood
2) Production of false neurotransmitters
3) Increased sensitivity of CNS to inhibitoy NTs like GABA
4) Zinc deficiency
Precipitating factors:
1) High protein diet
2) Alkylosis
3) Diuretic therapy
4) Extensive gastro intestinal bleeding
5) Narcotics, hypnotics, sedatives
6) Medication containing NH4 or amino compounds
7) High volume paracentesis
8) Hepatic or systemic infection
9) Portocaval shunts |
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Term
How do the following present on fundoscopic exam?
1) Ocular toxoplasmosis
2) Herpes keratitis
3) CMV retinitis
4) HIV retinopathy |
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Definition
1) White, fluffy lesion surrounded by retinal edema and vitritis. Its a severe necrotizing retinochoroiditis and encephalitis
2) Minute clear vesicles in the corneal epithelium. Dendritic ulcer is MC presentation. P/W pain, photophobia, and decreased vision
3) Yellow-white patches of retinal opacification and hemorrhages. Pts may be asymptomatic
4) Benign, cotton-wool spots in retina which remit spontaneously |
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Term
Name 3 distinct scenarios where you may see an elevated BUN/Cr ratio. |
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Definition
1) Pre-renal azotemia
2) Upper GI bleeding - hemoglobin is broken down by GI bacteria -> increased GIT abs. of urea
3) Corticosteroid use -> increased mm breakdown leads to increased protein delivery to liver -> increased urea cycle -> increase urea
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Term
What are the 3 different reasons why a person with DMI might have hyperglycemia in the morning?
How can you differentiate them? |
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Definition
1) Waning of circulating insulin in morning - 3 am glucose will be nml
2) Somogyi effect (release of catecholamines and glucagon in response to hypoglycemia) - 3 am glucose will be low
3) Dawn effect (decreased insulin sensitivity in morning due to GH release) - 3 am glucose will be high |
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Term
What are the 4 MCC of priapism (including 2 drugs)?
What commonly used drugs can cause impotence? |
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Definition
1) Trazadone and prazocin (alpha-1 blocker)
2) SS anemia and leukemia - usually seen in kids
3) Perineal or genital trauma - results from laceration of caverous artery
4) Neurogenic lesions - spinal cord injury or cauda equina compression |
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Term
What is the single MCC of asymptomatically elevated alkaline phosphatase in an elderly pt? |
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Definition
Paget's Disease of Bone (osteitis deformans)
MCly involved bones are skull, clavicles, long bones, pelvis |
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Term
A 62 y/o man comes in b/c of malaise, confusion, dyspnea, and productive cough. He's been recovering from a URI for the past week. He reports coughing up copious yellow blood streaked sputum. T 104, BP 150/90, HR 110. CXR shows infiltrates in lung midfields bilaterally as well as multiple thin-walled cavities.
Dx?
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Definition
Dx - saphylococcal, S. pneumo, or H. flu super-infection of lung resulting in secondary pneumatoceles
-The hint was this pt's viral URI Sx. The pt then acutely worsened, suggesting post-viral URI necrotizing pulmonary bronchopneumonia
-Its likely NOT bronchiectasis b/c this would produce chronic bronchopneumonia. |
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Term
Pt comes in having been stick with a needle after drawing blood from a pt who is Hep B positive. Pt had a Hep B vaccination 1 yr ago and was found to have HBsAb-positive serum.
NSIM? |
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Definition
NSIM - reassurance, his Abs will take care of any possible exposure to Hep B
-You only give HBIG and Hep B Vaccine to pts whi unknown immunity or unvaccinated pts |
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Term
Name 3 key diagnostic ECG features of RV hypertorphy.
Of LV hypertrophy (3 as well). |
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Definition
RVH
-R axis deviation (down in I, up in II)
-dominant R wave in V1
-disurpted R wave progression
LVH
-L axis deviation (up in I, down in II)
-S wave of V1 + R wave of V6 > 35 mm
-R wave of aVL > 11 mm |
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Term
Name 2 key diagnostic ECG features of Inferior MI. |
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Definition
-ST elevation in "inferior leads" (II, III, aVF)
-Possibly bradycardia due to ischemia/infarction of SA node |
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Term
Name 3 key diagnostic ECG features of RBBB.
LBBB (2). |
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Definition
RBBB
-widened QRS
-R' in V1
-Broad, slurred S waves in lateral precoridal leads (V5-V6)
LBBB
-Broad, slurred R waves in lateral precordial leads (V5-V6)
-S waves in R-precordial leads (V1-V3) |
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Term
Name 2 key diagnostic ECG features of Acute Pericarditis. |
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Definition
-Diffuse ST segment elevation
-PR segment depression (why???) |
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Term
Name 2 key diagnostic ECG features of hyperkalemia.
Hypokalemia (4) |
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Definition
Hyper
-Prolonged QRS (hyperkalemia causes an overall membrane depolarization that inactivates many sodium channels)
-Peaked T waves (hyperkalemia directly increases K channel activity and speed)
Hypo -prolonged PR interval, ST depression, T wave inversion, prominent U waves |
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Term
Name the key diagnostic ECG features of sub-endocardial ischemia. |
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Definition
Up-sloping ST depression in leads II and aVF |
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Term
Name 2 key diagnostic ECG features of limb lead reversal. |
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Definition
-Totally inverted P, QRS, T complexes in limb leads
-Normal precordial leads |
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Term
Name 2 key diagnostic ECG features of WPW. |
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Definition
-Shortened PR interval (nml is 0.12-0.2)
-Wide QRS and the delta wave |
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Term
What population and how often should the following vaccinations be given?
1) Td
2) Influenza
3) Pneumoccocal
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Definition
1) One Td should be substituted with TDAP, then all subsequent Td it should be given every 10 years
2) Flu vaccine should be given intramuscularly to all adults, and in healthy, non-pregnant pts the intranasal one can be given
3) Pneumococcal vaccine should be given all healthy adults once 65 yrs old, and ppl under 65 who have chronic medical cond'ns: lung, CV, liver, renal, metabolic diseases, asplenia, immunosuppression (these pts may need booster 5 years later) |
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Term
Name 3 drugs that can result in insoluble crystal deposition resulting in acute renal failure? |
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Definition
Indinavir (HIV protease inhibitor)
Acyclovir
Sulfonamide Therapy |
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Term
What 3 pathogens can result in Guillan Barre?
What is the Tx for GB? |
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Definition
-HSV, Mycoplasma, H. flu
-Tx: IVIG, and if progression continues -> plasmapheresis |
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Term
What is a chalazion? Tx?
What is a hordeolum? Tx? |
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Definition
Chalazion - chronic, sterile, granulomatous inflammatory lesion of the meibomian glands (produce an oily substance for eye that prevents tear spillage onto the cheek)
-Tx - incision and curettage; if persistent, get a histopathologic exam to r/o malignancy
Hordeolum - purulent infection of one of the glands of the eye lid, and is caused by staph
-Tx - application of warm packs; if not resolved in 48 hrs -> anti-staph AbX |
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Term
A 30 y/o woman comes in b/c of a painful rash on her R-hand and tender swelling of her R-axilla. Exam shows multiple pruritic, erythematous viscicles and papules over R-hand. She says she keeps 2 cats at home.
Dx?
Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - Cat scratch disease due to B. henselae
Tx - 5 day course of oral azithromycin |
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Term
What are the 4 main clinical features of hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
1) Cardiac arrhythmias, specifically prolonged QT interval (also seen in hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia)
2) Rickets/Osteomalacia
3) Increased neuromuscular irritability due to hypocalcemia
-numbness/tingling - circumoral, fingers, toes
-tetany - hyperactive DTRs, Chvostek sign, Trousseau's sign
-grand mal seizures
4) Basal ganglia calcifications |
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Term
45 y/o female p/w constipation, abd pain, urinary frequency, and constant thirst. She is obese ant has been attempting fad diets for 6 months. She sys she's been taking numerous OTC vitamins and minerals. PMHx positive for AF for 4 years, wfor which she takes diltiazem. UA is nml.
Dx?
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Definition
Vitamin D overdose -> increased absorption of Ca from gut and decreased excretion of calcium from kindey -> hypercalcemia
-Four main Sx: constipation, abd pain, plolyuria, polydipsia |
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Term
40 y/o male comes in b/c of severe R-sided HA, n/v, and eye pain. He was fixing a light bulb when the pain suddenly came on. He now says he sees "halos around lights." Exam hows R-pupil mid-dilated and non-reactive to light, and is hard to palpation.
Dx?
What test can you peform regularly in pts to prevent this?
Tx (5 types)?
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Definition
Dx - closed angle glaucoma
Tonometry measures IOP, should be performed regularly in pts w/ or at risk for glaucoma
Tx:
-Manitol (IV) - first line Tx, osmotic diuretic
-Acetezolamide - CA inhibitor, reduces production of AqH
-Beta-blockers (timolol) - decreases production of AqH
-Cholinergic Agonists (pilocarpine) - open the canals of Schlemm -> allow drainage of AqH
-Prostaglandins (latanoprost = PGF2) - increases AqH outflow
Qid 3251, SU 443
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Term
What is the drug of choice for treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis?
When does it take effect? |
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Definition
-Dapsone
-It takes effect w/in hours of beginning drug |
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Term
According to the USPSTF, when should women begin getting the following, and how often?
1) Mammogram
2) Pap Smear
3) Lipid panel
4) Colonoscopy
Qid 4231 |
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Definition
1) Mammogram - Q 2 yrs in women 50-74
2) Pap smear - starting at 21 (regardless of sexual activity) Q 2 yrs, after age 30 its Q 3 yrs (if negative Pap smears); women beyond 65 who have 3 consecutive Pap smears no longer require screening
3) Lipid panel - start at 35 for men and 45 for women, Q 5 yrs (no more than that)
4) Colonoscopy - start at 50, Q 10 yrs
-If first degree relative has Hx of colon cancer -> start 10 yrs earlier
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Term
A 34 y/o immigrant from Mexico comes in b/c of severe SOB, cough, and hemoptysis. CXR shows R upper lobe fibrosis and her sputum is positive for acid-fast bacilli.
Dx?
Tx?
What SE must she be monitored for?
Mechanism for SE? |
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Definition
Dx - active pulmonary Tuberculosis
Tx - RIPE: Rifapin (RNA polymerase inhibitor), INH (inhibits mycolic acid synth), Pyrizinamide (inhibits FA synthase; works on intracellular MTB), Ethambutol (inhibits carbohydrate polymeration -> MTB can synth cell wall)
-Pt must be monitored for:
-Optic neuropathy - ethambutol causes red-green color blindness
-Neuropathy - INH, b/c of its chemical similarity to B6, can reduce NT synthesis
-Hepatitis - INH is metabolized by liver to an ammonium containing compound which is hepatotoxic. Toxicity depends on rate of metabolism, and can range from severe hepatitis, to mild subcliical hepatic injury (mild elevations in aminotransferases; <100). If only mild elevation in LFTs -> continue Tx; if SS of hepatitis present -> discontinue INH
-Red Urine - Rifampin turns urine Red/Orange
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Term
45 y/o female comes in b/c of several months of numbness and ocassional nocturnal pain in R palm. PE shows flattening of the thenar eminence.
Dx?
NISM?
What 7 conditions predispose to this? |
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Definition
Dx - carpel tunnel syndrome
NSIM - wrist splinting, if this doesn't work try corticosteroid injection
7 conditions that predispose to this include:
-obesity
-DM
-pregnancy
-hypothyroidism
-RA
-CT disorders
-aromatase inhibitor (anastrozol) use
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Term
For HIV positive patients, when do you begin prophylaxis against the following, and what drug is used?
1) Pneumocystis carinii
2) Myocobacterium avium intracellularae
3) CMV
4) Toxoplasmosis
5) Histoplasmosis Qid 2268 |
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Definition
1) PCP - CD4 <200 or pt has Hx of oropharygneal candidiasis -> TMP/SMX
2) MAC - CD4 <50 -> azythromycin (Tx is clarithomycin + ethambutol)
3) CMV - CD4 <50 -> gancyclovir (foscarnet if resistant)
-recall CMV MCly causes retinitis, but can also cause esophagitis and encephalitis
4) Toxo - CD4<100 -> TMP-SMX
5) Histoplasmosis - CD4 <100, and if pt lives in endemic area -> intraconazole
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Term
For HIV positive pts, what 3 vaccinations should you make sure they get, and how often?
Why vaccines can they NOT get? |
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Definition
Make sure they get:
-Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine Q 5-6yrs
-Influenza vaccine (IM) yearly
-Hep B vaccine (if not already immune)
You CANNOT give HIV positive pts live vaccines:
-Small Pox -Sabin polio
-Yellow Fever -MMR
-Chicken Pox |
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|
Term
What are common acute rxns a/w the following HAART drugs:
1) Protease Inhibitors (esp Ritonavir & Indinavir)
2) NRTIs (esp Didanosine and Abacavir)
3) NNRTIs (esp Nevirapine)
Which ones can cause pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
1) Protease-Is
-Cushing-like syndrome
-Ritonovir - pancreatitis
-Indinavir - crystal-induced nephropathy (ppt of drug in urine -> obstruction of urine flow)
2) NRTIs
-Lactic acidosis
-Didanosine - pancreatitis
-Abacavir - hypersensitivity syndrome
3) NNRTIs
-Steven-Johnson syndrome
-Neviripine - liver failure (Never drink EtOH)
Pancreatitis = Ritonaivir, Didanosine, Zalcitabine (did zal have pancreatitis, right?)
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Term
Name the autoimmune disease a/w with the following auto antibody:
1) centromere 7) Microsomal
2) DNA topoisomerase I 8) Jo
3) Mitochondria 9) Helicase (Mi-2)
4) Transglutaminase 10) RNP
5) Smooth Muscle 11) Glutamate decarboxylase
6) Desmoglein |
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Definition
1) CREST
2) Scleroderma (topoisom = Scl-70)
3) Autoimmune Hepatiti
4) Celiacs (also endomyceal, gliadin)
5) PSC
6) Pemphigus vulgaris
7) Hashimotos
8 & 9) Poly/Dermato-myositis
10) Mixed CT disease
11) DMI
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Term
What are the 5 MCC of pancreatitis?
What is the best imaging technique for initially ID etiology of pancreatitis if gallstones are suspected?
What is the role of CT in evaluating pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
5 MCC:
-EtOH (clear #1) -Hyper-TG
-Gallstones (#2) -Hyper-Ca
-Meds
-Best initial imaging if Gallstones suspected is RUQ Abd U/S b/c it has higher sensitivity (rule out) than CT
-CT is used to confirm Dx, and assess severity and complications of pancreatitis |
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Term
What are the 3 main steps (in order) in lowering potassium levels in someone with severe hyperkalemia?
Qid 3654, SU 306 |
|
Definition
1) Give IV calcium gluconate - Ca stabilizes resting membrane potential of myocardium (decreases excitability)
-Use caution in giving Ca to pts on digoxin b/c hyper-Ca can predispose to digoxin toxicity)
2) Shift K+ intracellularly by giving:
-Glucose + Insulin (most rapid)
-Sodium Bicarbonate - alkylosis causes H/K shift (K goes into cell, H comes out)
-beta2-agonist (albuterol)
3) Removal of K+ from body
-Kayexalate - GI K+ exchage resin, absorbs K+ in colon, preventing K+ reabsorption
-Hemodyalisis - most rapid and effective
-Diuretics (furosemide) |
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|
Term
50 y/o female comes in b/c of lethargy, confusion, anorexia, n/v. Last year she was Dx'd with RA, and is currently taking indomethacine and methotrexate for it. Vitals and exam is wnl. Labs show: Na 122, K 3.7, HCO3 22, Glucose 90, BUN 9, Uric acid low. Serum osm 265 (nml 275-295), urine osm 500.
Dx? What's the classic volume & natremic
Tx? status of these pts?
Causes of this condition?
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Definition
Dx - SIADH, classically they are hypotonic hyponatremic with euvolemia
Tx - d/c NSIAD as it may be cause of SIADH
Causes:
-Neoplasms -Ventilator use
-CNS disorders -Post-op state/Pain
-Meds (vincristine, SSRIs, oxytocin, morphine, cyclophosphamide, carbamazepine, NSAIDs)
-Pulm disorders |
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|
Term
When does the USPTF recommend you begin screening for colon cancer?
What if the pt has a first degree relative with Hx of colon cancer?
What are the 5 different ways you can screen for colon cancer?
|
|
Definition
-Begin screening pts with avg risk at age 50
-Begin screening pts with first degree relative affected with colon cancer at age 40
-5 different ways to screen for colon cancer:
-fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)
-Flexible sigmoidoscopy
-a combination of the two listed above
-colonoscopy
-double contrast barium enema |
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Term
36 y/o female comes in b/c of malaise, high-grade fever, and chills. She has pain in multiple joints. She is an IV drug abuser and prostitute. Exam shows multiple pustules on extensor surfaces of forearms, joints show no redness/swelling, but R-ankle is tender. Blood cultures are negative.
Dx?
Qid 2230 |
|
Definition
Dx - disseminated gonococcemia
-Dissemination is most likely to occur during menstrual periods
-Blood Cx are commonly negative due to specific growth requirements of the strain of gonoccoci that disseminates
-Acute HIV syndrome presents with fever, malaise, LN, pharyngitis, myalgias, arthralgias, and cutaneous manifestations like those of viral exanthems (morbiliform macules), NOT pustules! |
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Term
22 y/o female presents with fever, HA, n/v, myalgias. She has no significant PMHx aside from menorrhagia and is sexually active with 1 partner. Exam shows redness and desquamation over trunk and extremities. Blood and urine Cx negative. Pregnancy test negative. She says shes highly absorbent tampons, and has had one in place for 2 weeks because of heavy bleeding.
Most likely Dx?
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|
Definition
Dx - Toxic Shock Syndrome
-caused by staph aureus TSST toxin ("scalded skin sydnrome") |
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|
Term
How do you distinguish between CMV retinitis and HSV/VZV retinitis in AIDs pts?
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|
Definition
CMV - painless loss of vision; fundoscopy shows fluffy or granular lesions located near the retinal vessels and associated hemorrhages
HSV/VZV - initial Sx are keratitis and conjunctivitis with eye pain, f/b rapidly progressive bilateral necrotizing retinitis (aka "acute retinal necrosis syndrome") and vision loss. Fundoscopy shows widespread pale, peripheral lesions and central necrosis of retina |
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Term
70 y/o male comes in b/c of cough. CXR shows no infiltrates except for RU lobe lung lesion found incidentally. Chest CT w/ IV contrast shows 1x2 cm round lesion in RUL. He is admitted, and on day 3 develops renal failure. He has Hx of DMII, HTN, and CAD.
Dx? Pts at risk?
Pathogenesis? Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - contrast induced nephropathy
Pathogenesis - contrast causes renal vasoconstriction and tubular injury
Pts at risk - pts with Hx of DMII (+/- chronic renal insufficiency) are at increased risk
Tx - CIN is avoided by giving adequate IV hydration w/ isotonic sodium bicarb, and administration of N-acetylcysteine
-This could have been avoided by using a non-ionic contrast agent
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Term
How does vertebral compression fracture present in an elderly woman?
How about Lumbargo (Lumbosacral strain)? |
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Definition
VCF - acute onset of severe back pain, with no history of trauma. On exam they may have spinal (NOT paravertebral) tenderness. Pts who are on corticosteroids are at increased risk!!!
Lumbargo - less dramatic onset, related to physical strain, usually have paravertebral mm tenderness rather than spinal tenderness |
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Term
What is the pathophysiology behind Bartter and Gitelman syndrome?
How do you distinguish it from Conn's syndrome or a Renin secreting tumor? |
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Definition
Bartter and Gitelman syndromes are - deficiency in sodium and chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb and distal convoluted tubules (respectively).
-Both classically present with polyuria, polydypsia, and growth/mental retardation
-Pts will have elevated plasma renin & aldosterone levels (to compensate for Na and H2O loss)
-Pts will have hypokalemia, metabolic alkylosis, and urine chloride will be markely elevated (>40mEq/L)
-Unlike Conn's syndrome and pts with Renin secreting tumors, Bartter's pts are normotensive and have normal serum sodium
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Term
How can you differentiate the dementia a/w Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus from Alzheimers, since both p/w dementia and incontinence? |
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Definition
NPH - ataxia and incontinence are early signs of disease, and dementia occurs later
Alzheimers - memory loss, language difficulties, and apraxia are early signs of disease, whereas incontinence occurs later |
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Term
What are the charateristic findings of:
-Pick's Disease
-Lewey Body Dementia
-Multi-infarct Dementia
Which one of these is sensitive to neuroleptic medication? |
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Definition
-Pick's -characteristically have personality changes (euphoria, disinhibition, apathy), compuslive behaviors (peculiar eating habits), hyperorality, and impaired memory. Visual and spatial functions are intact.
-LBD - initially visual hallucinations predominate. Pts also have fluctuating cognative impairment, and features of Parkinsonism not responsive to DA agents
-Sensitive to neuroleptics (e.g. taking haloperidol for agitation can cause worsening of mm rigidity)
-MID - sudden deterioration in congative, motor, and sensory perception. RFs include old age, male, black, smoking, HTN, DMII, vasculitis
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Term
Define erysipelas. Organism responsible?
Where/how does it typically present?
RFs?
Tx? |
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Definition
-Its a cellulitis confined to dermis and lymphatics, caused by streptococcus pyogenes NOT staph
-Classically presents as well-demarcated, fiery red, painful lesion, on LE and face. High fever and chills may be present
-RFs - lymphatic obstruction (mastectomy), local trauma or abscess, fungal infections, DM, EtOHism
-Tx - uncomplicated cases iwh IM or oral PCN or erythromycin, complicated Tx like cellulitis (IV oxicillin or cephalosporin)
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Term
Cyanosis is directly related to what factor in blood? |
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Definition
Level of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin |
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Term
Define suppurative hidradenitis.
Where and now does it present? |
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Definition
Its a chronic follicular occlusive disease MC affecting interiginous skin (axilla, groin, inframammary region)
-Presents as painful inflammatory nodules and draining sinus tracts that can last weeks or longer |
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Term
What are the skin findings of Rosacea?
What are common precipitating factors?
What's the Tx for Rosacea? |
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Definition
Skin findings - erythema, pustules, papules, telangiectasias on face. Unlike acne, there are no comedones
Worsens with alcohol use, hot beverages, extreme temperature change (including drinking/eating hot drinks/foods), and emotional stress
Tx - topical metronidazol for induction, and systemic AbX (tetracycline) for maintenance
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Term
27 y/o male with no PMHx presents with fever, chills, and malaise for 3 days. He noticed a painless ulcer on his penis 3 weeks ago which never resloved. Exam shows tender inguinal LAN on the right.
Dx, and how do you Dx?
Tx?
What complications might arise if left untreated? |
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Definition
Dx: Lymphogranuloma venereum (C. trachomatis)
To Dx: serologic tests (complement fixation, immunofluorescence)
Tx: PO doxycycline
Complications:
-proctocolitis
-perianal fissures
-rectal stricture
-obstructed lymphatics -> elephantitis of genitals
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Term
25 y/o is brought in b/c of confusion, hallucinations, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. PMHx significant for illicit drug use. Temp is 104. Neurologic exam shows upgoing plantar reflexes bilaterally. CSF analysis shows low glucose, high protein, high WBCs w/ mosty lymphocytes, gram stain negative.
Dx?
NSIM? |
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Definition
Dx - HSV encephalitis; commonly p/w:
-bizzare behavior
-hallucinations
-impaired mental status
-aburpt onset of fever
NSIM - IV acyclovir whenever suspicion of SHV encephaltitis
Confirm Dx with PCR of CSF |
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Term
What is the initial imaging for any pt with jaundice?
What if this is not conclusive?
When is Percutaneous Transhepatic cholangiogram indicated? |
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Definition
-Abd U/S
-If non-conclusive -> abd CT (effective in detecting bile and pancreatic duct dilation, mass within pancreas)
-If both U/S and CT non-conclusive -> ERCP
PTC indicated for pts with previously ID'd bilary tract dilation but are NOT candidates for ERCP. PTC also allows for therapeutic drainage of infected bile (cholangitis pts), extraction of biliary tract stones, dilation of benign biliary strictures, and stent placement across malignant strictures |
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Term
How does opioid intoxication present with respect to:
-Resp. Rate
-Pupil Size
-Heart Rate
-BP
-Bowel Sounds
-Mental Status
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Definition
-RR - decreased (is best predictor of intox, and is frequent cause of mortality)
-Pupil size - meiosis (constricted)
-HR - bradycardia
-BP - hypotension (due to histamine release)
-Bowel sounds - decreased (opioids cause constipation)
-Mental Status - depressed
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Term
What 2 electrolyte changes can you see when a pt is in an alkylotic state? |
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Definition
-Hypokalemia 2/2 transcellular shift (H+ moves out of cells, K+ moves into cells) -> mm weaknes
-Hypocalemia - less H+ in serum allows for more negative charges to be available on albumin -> albumin binds MORE Ca2+ -> less FREE Ca2+ --> tetany and parasthesias |
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Term
What electrolyte and acid/base abn can you see in hyperaldosteronism? |
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Definition
Metabolic alkylosis 2/2 increased Na/K exchange from the principle cells of collecting duct -> increased lumenal K+ available for K/H exchange by the intercalated cells -> increased H+ excretion
Hypokalemia (see above mechanism) + increased K/H transcellular shift throughout the body in response to metabolic alkylosis
Mild hypernatremia due to:
-increased ANP release in reponse to increased BP -> vasodilation of renal efferent arteriols -> increased RBF and GFR -> increased sodium excretion
Hypocalcemia - decreased plasma H+ -> increased negative charges on albumin -> increased binding of albumin to Ca2+ -> less FREE Ca2+
Note: Generalized Edema is NOT seen in hyperaldosteronism!
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Term
What is the NSIM for a pt with splenic trauma? |
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Definition
It depends on the pts hemodynamic status and whether they respond to fluids
-If pt is hemodynamically stable -> CT abd
-If pt is hemodynamically unstable assess response to IV fluids
-If responsive to fluids -> CT abd
-If unresponsive to fluids -> Ex Lap! |
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Term
58 y/o male with widely disseminated small cell carcinoma of lung is found to have hypotension, decreased serum cortisol, and profound electrolyte disturbances.
Dx?
What would you expect his Na, K, and acid/base status to be? |
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Definition
Dx - Addison's Disease 2/2 metastasis to adrenal gland (adrenal is MC organ metastisized to by lung cancer). The tip off is decreased cortisol
-This pt would have:
-Hyponatremia
-Hyperkalemia
-Metabolic Acidosis |
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Term
A 58 y/o male with recently diagnosed small cell carcinoma of lung is brought in b/c of metal status abn. CT of head is nml.
Dx? |
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Definition
Dx - SIADH -> hyponatremia |
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Term
A 58 y/o male comes in b/c of profound muscle weakness and numbness around his lips. Vitals are BP 180/100, HR 80, T 98. On exam he as a positive Chovtec sign.
What's most likely Dx? |
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Definition
Dx - Conn's syndrome
-Increased aldosterone results in:
-Increased sodium/water reabsorption -> HTN
-Increased potassium excretion -> hypokalemia -> mm weakness
-Increased H+ excretion -> metabolic alkylosis -> increased capacity for Ca2+ to bind albumin -> decreased free Ca2+ -> functional hypocalcemia -> perioral parasthesias, tetany, positive Chovtec and Treusseau sign |
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Term
A 15 y/o girl who was recently treated for Lyme's disease presents with sunburn appearing rash shoulders, face, and forearms. Her mother says she makes sure to put suncreen on her daughter when going outside.
What's the most likely cause? |
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Definition
Tetracycline drug (most likely doxycyclin) |
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Term
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Definition
Its a flesh colored skin tag or pedunculated papule in regions of the body subject to friction such as the neck, inner thigh, or axillae |
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Term
What must be done in any ptient who appears septic prior to starting AbX? |
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Definition
Blood and Urine Cx! They only take a few minutes to collect, and are extremely important in determining the causative organism and check for drug-resistant organisms |
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Term
What's the best treatment for a pt with Sphincter of Oddie Dysfunction?
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Definition
ERCP sphincterotomy
Note: Calcium Channel Blockers and Nitrates are NOT efficacious |
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Term
Name 4 infections that can result in primary adrenal insufficiency.
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Definition
-CMV
-Fungal infections
-TB
-N. meningitis (Friedrichson Waterhouse Syndrome)
Recall, adrenal insufficiency can also result from autoimmune destruction (esp if pt has Hx of autoimmune diseseases) and neoplastic infiltration (MC from primary lung and breast cancer) |
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Term
67 y/o male comes in b/c of malaise, fatigue, anorexia, n/v. Pt was recently Dx'd with pneumonia and is on AbX. PMHx is significant for HTN, HL, and DVTs, for which he takes HCTZ, simvastatin, and coumadin. Clinical chemistry shows hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, low HCO3, low glucose.
What's most likely Dx?
Pathophs? |
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Definition
Dx - adrenal hemorrhage -> Addison's
Pathophys:
-acute stress (pneumonia) can cause increase in ACTH levels -> increases adrenal blood flow. In pts who are chronically anticoagulated (as in this pt), this increased blood flow can reslt in adrenal hemorrhage -> adrenal necrosis
Qid 4305
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Term
29 y/o male presents with malaise, fatigue, n/v, and anorexia. Labs show hyponatremia, hyerkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. Serum cortisol is noted to be low. This has never happened before. Pt has no personal or family Hx of autoimmune disorders, including Addison's disease. CT abd shows bilateral enlargement of adrenal glands w/o calcifications.
What may be the Dx? |
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Definition
Adrenoleukodystrophy
-This is due to build up of long chain fatty acids w/in adrenal glands, and is a congenital disorder. Females serve as carriers, but do not manifest the disease.
-Typically affects young males |
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Term
Pt comes in saying the took a bottle full of acetaminophen.
NSIM?
How long do you wait to administer N-acetylcystine? |
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Definition
NSIM - administer activated charcol and obtain acetaminophen levels at 4 hours after ingestion (b/c recent data shows no matter how much they took, the acetaminophen levels in the blood will be detectable starting 4 hrs post-ingestion, so getting blood levels before this time is useless!). If acetaminophen levels are high enough, then you can give N-acetylcystine
-N-acetylcystine should be given within 8 hrs post-ingestion
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Term
When a pt is on a ventilator, what settings effect pO2?
pCO2?
What FiO2 do you initially set the ventilator?
What do you do if pt pO2 is too high? Low?
Qid 3433
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Definition
-pO2 is influenced by FiO2 and PEEP level
-pCO2 is influenced by minute ventilation, which is a function of respiratory rate and tidal volume
-Ventilator is usually initially set at 80% (0.8), pending results of the first blood gas analysis; the vent can then be adjusted accordingly
-If pt's pO2 is too high -> turn down FiO2 to non-toxic levels (<60)
-Recall, nml FiO2 at sea level is 21% (0.21)
-If pt's pO2 is too low -> either turn up FiO2, or increase PEEP
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Term
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Definition
A neurological cond'n caused by inflammation of carotids and vagus. The pain is sharp and localized to carotid artery distribution in neck
-MRI is sometimes req'd |
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Term
45 y/o male is brought in b/c of leg weakness and lower back pain for past several days. He has DMII and HTN. Vitals: temp 101, HR 100, BP 150/100. He smells of urine. Exam shows tenderness over palpation to L2-L5. Neuro exam shows decreased sensation to temp and touch.
Dx?
NSIM?
Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - epidural abscess - enclosed infections in the epidural space. Characterized by back pain, f/c, and leukocytosis. Abscess can restrict blood flow to spinal cord as it enlarges
NSIM - MRI of spine
Tx - immediate surgical debridement |
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Term
Which two statins are the most potent at lowering LDL?
Which two have highest rates of myopathy?
Which two have the lowest rates of myopathy? |
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Definition
-Most potent at lowering LDL: rosuvastatin and atorvastatin (RAke down LDL)
-Most myotoxic: simvastatin and lovastatin (SLow muscles down)
-Least myotoxic: pravastatin and fluvastatin (PH/Faster muscles) |
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Term
A 50 y/o male immigrant comes in with hemoptysis, night sweats, and fever. CXR shows upper lobe nodule. Labs show hypercalcemia.
Dx?
Source of hypercalcemia? |
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Definition
Dx - pulmonary TB
-Hypercalcemia is 2/2 granuloma formation causing overproduction of calcitriol (active Vit D)
Recall: Macrophages in the granuloma increase their production of 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme, so more 1,25-hydroxy-VitD is made |
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Term
When do you consider getting an abd CT or abdu U/S in a pt with pyelonephritis? |
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Definition
When pt has had persistent fever or Sx afte 48-72 hrs of appropriate anti-microbial therapy. This is to evaluate for obstruction, abscess, or other complication of pyelo |
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Term
32 y/o male comes in b/c of f/c and sob for past 3 days. He has cp on deep inspiration. He's HIV positive, and his CD4 one month ago was 378. He's an IV drug abuser. Temp is 102. Exam shows scattered crackle's in both lungs. CT chest shows multiple nodular lesions w/ small cavities scattered from apex to base of both lungs.
What organism is culprit? |
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Definition
Staph aureus
-Pt likely had tricuspid endocarditis 2/2 staph aureus introduction via IV drug abuse, with septic emboli to lung
Recall, pts with Hx of IV drug abuse, skin infections, and pts with infected medical devises (prosthetic valves) are more likely to have staph bacteremia
TB on the other hand would present with a more chronic course and CT chest would not show lower lobe involvement |
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Term
37 y/o male with Hx of small cell carcinoma of lung presents with back pain. Labs show hypercalcemia, nml PTH levels, and CXR shows lytic bone lesions on thoracic spine.
What's factor is being released from tumor cells that causes these lesions? |
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Definition
Cytokines
-Tumors that metastisize and cause osteolytic lesions do so by production of cytokines such as IL-1 and TNF.
-The most frequent tumors to do this are breast and lung cancer
Recall: tumors that produce PTHrP are: squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus and lung, and Renal Cell Carcinoma |
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Term
How do you treat bleeding disorders related to hepatic failure? |
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Definition
By giving Fresh Frozen Plasma, which as all the clotting factors except factor VIII |
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Term
When a pt get's bitten by a dog causing puncture of skin, what are the guidelines for post-exposure rabies prophylaxis?
Qid 3002 |
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Definition
In any dog bite, an attempt to capture dog is made:
1) IF dog not captured, assume it's rabid, and give pt post-exposure prophy
2) If dog captured and doesn't show signs of rabies, it's kept for obstervation for dev't of rabies for 10 days. If dog develops features -> post-exposure prophy. Dog's Dx is confirmed by fluorescent anti-body exam of brain
3) Post-exposure prophy should be started immediatley for expsosures invovleing head and neck
Post-exposure prophy = active AND passive immunization for rabies |
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Term
68 y/o male w/ DMII and CAD undergoes total knee replacement. On post-op day 5 he complains of new onest abd pain. Over past 12 hrs, he voided 200 mL. Review of chart shows infrequent recording of fluid input/output over past 4 days. Vitals are nml. Labs show hyponatremia, and BUN 40, creat 4.2.
Dx? Pathophy?
NSIM? |
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Definition
Dx - acute kidney injury
Pathophys - bladder distension under general anesthesia or use of epidural anesthesia can lead ot inefficient detrusor contraction and acute urinary retention. As males over 50 have high incidence of BPH, this is likely exacerbating the detrusor inactivity.
NSIM - place a foley catheter to restore nml UOP and resolve/prevent hydronephrosis, tubular atrophy, and renal injury. If this doesn't resolve oliguria, alternative AKI etiologies (intrinsic or prerenal) must be considered |
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Term
Acute episodes of COPD exacerbation are managed by giving the pt what? |
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Definition
Ipratropium (cholinergic antagonist)
Albuterol nebulizer
Systemic steroids |
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Term
60 y/o male with Hx of HTN and DMII comes in with fatigue, urinary frequency, and blurred vision. He had a URI 1 week ago. BP is 160/90, and HR 90. His mucus membranes are dry. Urine is positive for glucose but not ketones.
Dx? Tx?
Pathophys?
Qid 4516, SU 189 |
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Definition
Dx - nonketotic hyperosmolar syndrome
Pathophys - physiologic stressors (like infection) -> increased catecholamines and cortisol -> increased gluconeognesis and glycogenolysis and worsening of insuling resistance -> massive hyperglycemia -> osmotic diuresis -> dehydration
-The pt has diuresis -> hyperosmolar serum
-Blurred vision is caused by myopic increase in lens thickness and intraoccular hypotension 2/2 hyperosmolarity
Tx - IV fluid replacement
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Term
What two weird things will you see in a pt with Legionella pneumonia?
Tx?
SU 348 |
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Definition
GI symptoms (abd pain, loose stools, etc)
Hyponatremia
Tx: quinolone or macrolyde |
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Term
What conditions can you see pulsus paradoxus in?
Qid 4771 |
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Definition
Cardiac diseases - tampenade, pericardial effusion
Pulmonary diseases - tension pneumo, severe asthma
-In asthma, elevated intrathoracic pressures during inhalation are thought to exacerbate compression of LV -> pulsus paradoxus |
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Term
What are the criteria for continuous or intermittent long-term oxygen therapy in COPD? |
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Definition
-PaO2 55 mmHg, OR
-O2 sat <88%, OR
-PaO2 55-59 mmHg + polycythemia (Hct >55%) or evidence of cor pulmonale
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Term
The peak airway pressure (max pressure during respiratory cycle) is equivalent to what?
Elastic pressure (aka plateau pressure) is equivalent to what? |
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Definition
-Peak airway pressure = relative pressure + elastic pressure + PEEP
-Think of it this way: Relative pressure is the pressure w/in airways, elastic pressure is the intrinsic collapsing pressure the lung exerts, so if the ventilator set to match the sum of ONLY those two pressures -> inward pressure would match outward pressure -> no airflow would occur. The addition of PEEP forces causes air to flow into the lung, and at the point where the PEEP is greatest, the elastic recoil of lung is greatest, as is the pressure w/in the airways
-Elastic pressure (pressure at the end of inspiratory hold maneuver) = lung elastance x volume of gas delivered. Thus, as compliance (inverse of elastance) decreases, elastic pressure increases
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Term
Why do you not get pulmonary edema in during a state of low albumin?
Qid 4591 |
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Definition
Because:
1) Alveolar capillaries are more permeable to albumin at baseline than most other capillary systems -> decrease albumin gradient
2) Lymphatic drainage is greater in lung than most other parts of body (especially skeletal mm)
Qid 4591 |
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Term
According to the CDC, what vaccines are required for travel to North Africa?
How about Sub-Saharan Africa?
How about equitorial South America?
How about Asia?
Qid 4080 |
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Definition
-North Africa - Hep A, Hep B, Typhoid, Polio booster
-Sub-Saharan Africa - Yellow fever, Meningiococcal
-South America - Yellow fever
-Asia - Meningoccocal
Note:
-Hep A is MC vaccine-preventable infectious disease
-Rabies vaccinatino is not req'd for travel to any country |
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Term
22 y/o male comes in b/c of R-eye pain, photophobia, blurred vision, tearing, and redness for 4 days. He's had 2 prior episodes before in past 5 years, both occuring when he had the flu. He said he says he went to the beach the past few days with friends and got lots of sun. Exam shows corneal vescicles.
Dx? Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - Herpese Simplex keratitis
-Typically precipitated by excessive sun exposure, outdoor occupation, fever, or immunodeficiency
-Exam may how corneal vescicles and dendritic ulcers
Tx - antiviral therapy (oral or topical)
Note: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (VZV infection) usually occurs in elderly, and p/w fever, malaise, w/ periorbital burning, itching. Exam may how vescicular rash in V1 distribution |
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Term
What is the Tx for Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus? |
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Definition
High dose acyclovir within 72 hrs after eruption of rash
Recall, HZO p/w:
-itching, burning, rash over periorbital region (ophthalmic brach of CN V)
-fever, malaise, generalized painful LN
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Term
How do you differentiate Herpes simples keratitis from Herpes zoster opthalmicus?
Qid 2854 |
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Definition
HSK
-p/w pain, photophobia, blurred vision, tearing, and redness
-precipitated by excessive sun exposure, fever, immunodeficiency
HZO
-p/w fever malaise & periorbital burning/itching
-usually presents in elderly
-vescucular rash may be present in distribution opthalmic division of CN V
BOTH may p/w dendriform corneal ulcers!!! |
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Term
22 y/o p/w with eye pain and redness. She wears contacts. Exam shows corneal haziness w/ central ulcer and adjacent stromal abscess. Dx?
33 y/o agricultural worker comes in b/c of eye pain and redness. He said some debris blew across his eye 2 days ago, which is when this all startedExam of cornea shows multiple stromal abscesses. Dx? |
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Definition
Young contact wearer may have had a corneal abrasion -> bacterial keratitis
Agricultural worker may have suffered a corneal injury -> Fungal keratitis |
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Term
How do you differentiate Shy-Drager syndrome from Riley Day syndrome? |
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Definition
Shy Drager (aka multiple system atrophy) is characterised by:
-Parkinsonism
-Autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, abn sweating, disturbance of bowel/bladder control, abn salivation/lacrimation, impotence, gastroparesis)
-Widespread neurological signs (cerebellar, pyramidal, LMN)
Riley Day (familial dysautonomia) is characterized by:
-gross dysfunction of the ANS w/ severe orthostatic hypotension
Shy Drager should be suspected in any pt with Parkinsonism who experiences orthostatic hypotension, impotence, incontience, or other autonomic Sx.
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Term
A 55 y/o male comes in b/c of numerous falls. Exam shows masked facies, bradykinsia, resting tremor, dry mouth/skin. He also complains of erectile dysfunction, urinary incontinence, and dizziness when standing up.
Dx?
Qid 4130 |
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Definition
Multiple system atrophy (Shy Drager syndrome) |
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Term
45 y/o woman comes in b/c of reddness over her face. Exam shows telangiectasias, pustules, and papules. She says this usually happens when she goes out in hot sunny weather.
Dx?
Tx?
Qid 2776, SU 396 |
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Definition
Dx - Rosacea
Tx - topical metronidazol BID for several months, then systemic AbX (tetracycline) for maintenance therapy. Telangiectasias require laser surgery
This typically effects fiar skinned, light haired/eyed individuals. |
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Term
What is the standard treatment for acute pancreatitis?
What if pt has acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
What's the only way to distinuish between steiral and infected necrotizing pancreatitis |
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Definition
-Analgesics (meperidine and fentanyl favored over morphine)
-IV fluids to maintain intravascular volume
-NPO +/- NG suction
Note: These three things are done for pts with acute cholecystitis as well!
Acute necrotizing pancreatitis:
-enteral feeding
-decontamination of gut w/ non-absorbable AbX
-Systemic AbX
-CT guided percutaneous aspiration of pancreatic inflammation w/ Gram stain/culture of aspirate distinguishes sterile from infected nec. pancreatitis
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Term
What type of arthritis p/w "sausage digits", nail involvement, predominantly DIP involvement, morning siffness, well-demarcted red plaques w/ silvery scaling on dorsum of each hand?
Tx? |
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Definition
Psoriatic arthritis
Tx - NSAIDs, anti-TNF agents, and methotrexate
Note: systemic corticosteroids are relatively contraindicated! |
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Term
19 y/o male is brought in by his parents b/c of paranoia. Vitals are BP 180/96, HR 120. He appears euphoric, and eye exam shows conjunctival injection.
Dx? |
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Definition
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Term
What 3 suggestions might you give a pt to avoid straining his/her back when lifting objects?
What mov't(s) should he/she avoid? |
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Definition
1) Exercise of supporting mm (including abd mmm)
2) Appropriate sleeping posture (avoid sleeping on stomach)
3) Keep back straight while lifting object
Avoid twisting and bending |
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Term
What's the treatment for overflow incontinence?
Stress incontinence?
Urge incontinence? |
|
Definition
Intermittent catheterization, cholinergic agents (bethanachol), alpha-blockers (terazocin, doxazocin)
Stress intontinence (in order of what to do first) -Kegel exercises, estrogen repalcement therapy, use of a Pessary, surgery (urethropexy)
Urge incontinence
-antocholinergic agents (oxybutylin), TCAs (imipramine), bladder training (behavioral therapy), |
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Term
40 y/o female comes in b/c of f/c, and pain oner neck. Exam of neck shows erythema and induration. Serosanguinous fluid is draining from a small defect in skin near center of lesion. There is no crepitus. Histologic analysis shows gram positive branching bacteria.
Dx?
Tx?
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Definition
Dx - Actinomyces israelii
-causes infection of cervicofacial, thoracic, or abd region causing draining fluid contining sulfur granules (appears yellow)
Tx - high dose PCN for 6-12 weeks
Note: Surgical debridement is req'd for complicated cases; however debridement alone w/o AbX is rarely successful |
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Term
50 y/o female comes in b/c of fever and neck pain. Exam of neck shows erethyma and induration, and a draining sinus tract. Gram stain is negative, but acid fast stain shows bacilli.
Dx? |
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Definition
TB draining injection (aka scrofula) |
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Term
What differences in lung auscultation and in the ABG will help you differentiate between CHF and COPD exacerbation? |
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Definition
CHF - commonly have bibasilar crackles, sometimes have wheezing (cardiac asthma) and decreased breath sounds at bases (2/2 pleural effusions from CHF). ABG will show hyoxia, hypocapnea, and respiratory alkylosis
COPD - commonly have widespread bilateral wheezes, and ABG will show hypoxia and respiratory acidosis |
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Term
Name 4 absolute indicatinos for Hemodialysis, 3 relative indications, and 2 contraindications. |
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Definition
1) Fluid overload not responsive to medical Tx
2) Hyper-K not responsive to medical Tx
3) Uremic pericarditis
4) Refractory metabolic acidosis
Relative:
1) GFR <10 mL/min (<15 mL/min in DM pts)
2) Creatinine >8 mg/dL (>6 in DM pts)
3) Severe uremic Sx (seizure, coma)
Note: Decision to start HD is not based soley on BUN and creat
Contraindications:
1) Debilitating chronic disease
2) Severe irreversible dementia |
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Term
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency classically causes emphysematous cheng to what lobe(s) of the lung, and what part of the alveolar acini? |
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Definition
Lower lobes
Panacinar
Recall in AAT, pt may hve Hx of neonatal hepatitis. AAT can progress in adulthood to cirrhosis and liver failure (2/2 buildup of non-functional AAT w/in hepatocytes)
Chronic smoking results in emphysematous change to upper lobes of lung and results in centriacinar emphysema |
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Term
Describe the common findings in:
Neurofibromatosis I
Neurofibromatosis II |
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Definition
NFI: cafe au lait spots, neurofibromas, CNS tumors (gliomas, meningiomas), Lisch nodules, macrocephaly
NFII: cafe au lait spots, bilateral acoustic neuromas, multiple meningiomas, cataracts
-NF II pts are much less likely to have neurofibromas
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Term
A 72 y/o Caucasian female complains of frequent HA, fatigue, and WL. Her shoulder mm feel stiff in the morning. A tender cord is palpated in R-temporal area. ESR is 80.
Dx?
What are 2 serious complications of this disease?
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Definition
Dx - Temporal arteritis
2 Serious complications include:
-Blindness - for this reason, pt should immediately be placed on high dose steroids
-Aortic aneurysms - for this reason, pts should be followed w/ serial CXRs |
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Term
What 3 vaccines are recommended for all HIV-infected pts?
What vaccine should be given to men who have sex with men?
What vaccines are under the same guidlines as all other adults? |
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Definition
HIV pts - influenza, Hep B, and S. pneumoniae
MSM - Hep A
Vaccines that fall under the same guidelines for both nml and HIV-infected adults include:
-Meningococcal
-HPV
-H. flu type B
-tetanus + diphtheria (Td) booster Q 10 yrs
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Term
A 40 y/o ale comes in b/c of blurred vision in his R eye. Exam shows conjunctival injection, and fundoscopic exam shows papillary edema. He says he had a penetrating injury to the L eye a few weeks ago, which led to vision loss in that eye.
Dx?
Pathophysiology? |
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Definition
Dx - Sympathetic ophthalmia (aka spared eye injury)
Pathophys: Some antigens contained w/in eye are protected from immunologic recognition by natural barriers. Breaking these barriers (such as in penetrating eye injury) -> uncovering of "hidden" Ags. An immune response against these Ags can involve autoAbs as well as cell-mediated Rxn
This can present with anterior uveitis, panuveitis, papillary edema, blindness
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Term
An 80 y/o comes in b/c of signs and symptoms of BPH. He has HTN, for which he take metoprolol. DRE shows smooth, firm enlarged prostate w/o induration or asymmetry. UA shos no proteinuria or hematuria. Creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL, and one year ago it was 1.2 mg/dL.
NSIM?
What's best choice for long term management? |
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Definition
NSIM - abdominal U/S to assess for hydronephrosis
-If hydronephrosis is present -> place a Foley to improve urinary obstruction
-Surgical intervention (transurethral resection of prostate) is a good option for improving pt's urinary obstruction over the long term |
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Term
What is the definition of chronic hepatitis?
What's the best means of evaluating a pt's hepatic injury if the have acute hepatitis?
Chronic hepatitis? |
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Definition
Chronic hepatitis is hepatic injury for at least 6 months
-As far as infectious hepatitis, persistant viral serology for at least 6 months -> chronic
Acute -LFTs and viral serology
Chronic - liver biopsy |
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Term
What's the NSIM in a pt with cryptococcal meningitis? |
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Definition
Begin induction therapy with IV amphotericin B pluc oral flucytosine, then once there's clinical improvement w/ induction -> discontinue amphotericin and flucytosine and start oral fluconazol as maintenance therapy |
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Term
What 2 electrolyte abnormalities do you commonly see with hypomagnesemia? |
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Definition
1) Hypocalcemia - b/c of decreased release of PTH and bone resistance ot PTH when Mg is low
2) Hypokalemia - b/c Mg is important cofactor for K+ uptake and maintenenace of intracellular K+ levels |
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Term
A 22 y/o w/ DMI is brought in b/c of n/v, and altered mental status. She is found to be in DKA and is treated appropriately. Several days after discharge, she returns w/ f/c, and severe sinus pain. Exam shows black eschar of frontal and maxillary sinuses. She is again treated appropriately. On day 2 of admission, she shows marked fatigue, pallor, and pain/burning near site of IV line.
Dx?
Pathophysiology of latest findings?
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Definition
Course: This pt had DKA c/b mucormycosis, which was treated with amphotericine/flucytosine induction.
Dx - amphotericin B toxicity
Pathophys:
-anemia - due to destruction of EPO secreting cells in peritubular capillaries of kidney
-IV phlebitis - unkown etiology, but is a SE of ampho
-Nephrotoxicity b/c ampho causes:
1) Renal vasoconstriction -> decr GFR
2) Direct toxicity to tubular cells resulting in
-Type 1 (distal) RTA, and hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia (ALWAYS follow pt's K+ and Mg+ when administering amphotericin)
-Acute tubular necrosis
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Term
What is the drug of choice for pts who suffer a subarachnoid hemorrhage who later experience cerebral vasospasm? |
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Definition
Nimodipine - a calcium channel blocker |
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Term
78 y/o male is brought in b/c of sudden onset hemiparesis and aphagia 45 mins ago. CT w/o contrast shows no acute bleed, and tPA therapy is given. Blood pressure measurement on admission was 200/120, and it's now 225/120.
NSIM?
At what BP level is Tx indicated?
Qid 2288
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Definition
This is HTN a/w acute period of stroke.
NSIM - calcium channel blockers (nicardipine) and ACE inhibitors.
-IV nitroglycerine and nitroprusside are NOT indicated!
Tx is only indicated when systolic >220, diastolic >130 |
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Term
What visual disturbances do pts with retinal detachment typically complain of?
What might you find on opthalmoscopic exam?
What is retinal detachment caused by?
Tx?
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Definition
Pts complain of photopsia (flashes of light) and floaters (spots in visual field). Most classic is a "curtain coming down over my eyes" (this is also seen in amurosis fugaue)
Ophthalmoscopic exam may show retinal tears and/or grey, elevated retina.
Retinal breaks are caused by myopia or trauma -> fluid seeps in and separates retinal layers
Tx: Laser therapy and cryotherapy; these create permanent adhesions btwn neurosensory retina, retinal pigment epithelium, and choroid |
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Term
What visual disturbance do pts with choroidal rupture complain of?
What might you see on opthalmoscopic exam?
What is choroidal rupture usually caused by? |
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Definition
Pts may complain of central visual defect/black spot (scotoma, also seen in optic neuritis) and/or blurred vision.
Exam may show retinal edema, hemorrhagic detachment of macula, subretinal hemorrhage, and crescent-shaped streak concentric to optic nerve
Caused by blunt ocular trauma |
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Term
What visual disturbances do pts with central retinal artery occlusion complain of?
What might you see on ophthalmoscopic exam?
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Definition
Pts complain of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye.
Exam may show pallor of the optic disk, cherry red fovea (b/c fovea get's its blood supply from choroidal vessels, which are not occluded), and boxcar segmentation of blood in retinal vv |
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Term
What visual disturbances do pts with proliferative diabetic retinopathy complain of?
What might you see on ophthalmoscopic exam?
What retinal abnormality are these pts at risk of developing? |
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Definition
Pts are initially asymptomatic, and then later complain of decreased visual acuity.
Exam may show neovascularization (classic finding) 2/2 chronic microvascular insufficiency, vitrous hemorrhage, and macular edema. These changes may lead to retinal detachement.
Remember, retinal involvement in DM begins with non-proliferative retinopathy, where BM glycosylation -> increased permeability and BV weakness -> microaneurysms and macular edema and plexiform exudates. This then over time progresses to proliferative retinopathy as described above. See Robbins pg 186 for more info
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Term
What visual disturbances do pts with exudative degeneration typically complain of?
What might you see on ophthalmoscopic exam?
What retinal abn are these pts at risk of developing? |
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Definition
Pts complain of painless, progressive, blurring of central vision, which can be acute or insidious. It occurs bilaterally. Testing may reveal central scotoma (also seen in choroidal rupture, and optic neuritis)
Exam may show growth of abn vessels in retinal space
Can lead to retinal detachment
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Term
What are the 11 criteria that, if 4 are present at one time in a pt, diagnoses SLE? |
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Definition
1) Mucocutaneous signs (each counts as one)
-Butterfly rash
-Photosensitivity
-Oral or nasopharyngeal ulcers
-Discoid rash
2) Arthritis (like RA it effects MCP and PIP, but unlike RA it is non-deforming)
3) Pericarditis, pleuritis
4) Hematologic disease - hemolytic anemia w/ reticulocytosis, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia
5) Renal disease - proteinuria > 0.5 g/day, casts
6) CNS - seizures, psychosis
7) Immunoligic manifestations - positive LE prep, false positive test for syphilis, anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm Ab
8) ANAs |
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Term
40 y/o female p/w for her first visit rash on shoulders and back, and scales on hands. She claims to have had these findings for several years. She says she has difficulty climbing stairs b/c "her legs get tired." She was Dx'd with lung cancer 3 years ago, and is now in remission. Labs are signficiant for elevated serum CK.
Dx? |
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Definition
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Term
45 y/o African American female p/w malaise, fever, WL, cough, diffuse joint tenderness, and tender red nodules on both shins. Exam shows uveitis. CXR shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and parencymal infiltrates. ECG results suggest conduction block.
Dx?
What peculiar lab findings might you see?
Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - Sarcoidosis
Labs - may see hypercalcemia (giant cells w/in the granulomas over-expressing 1-alpha-hydroxylase), elevated ACE levels
Tx - systemic steroids, if this fails -> methotrexate |
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Term
What is the pathophysiology behind Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease? |
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Definition
It's related to insulin resistance:
-Increased fat accumulation (in hepatocytes and peripherally) over years contributes to insulin resistance -> increased rate of lypolysis and elevated levels of insulin.
-Intrahepatic FA oxidation -> oxidative stress and release of proinflammatory cytokines (TNF-apha) -> liver inflamation, fibrosis, cirrhosis |
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Term
For influenza pneumonia, fill in the following:
1) Common present signs/Sx
2) CBC findings
3) UA findings
4) CXR findings
5) Fastest way to confirm Dx
6) Tx
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Definition
1) f/c, malaise, cough, corzya
2) Mild leukopenia
3) Proteinuria
4) May be nml or may show intestitial or alveolar pattern
5) Confirm Dx by nasal swab for Influenza Ags
6) Tx: Neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir and zanamivir), less effective are rimantidine/amantidine (block viral uncoating)
-Tx MUST BE STARTED W/IN 48 HRS to be effective |
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Term
According to USPSTF, what patient population should you routinely screen for AAA?
How do you screen for AAA? |
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Definition
Men aged 65-75 who have any Hx of smoking should get an abdominal ultrasound |
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Term
What are the RFs for cardiovascular disease related to hemodyalysis in pts with ESRD? |
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Definition
-Anemia
-Metabolic abn, particularly hyperphosphatemia, and increased PTH levels
-Increased homocysteine levels - 2/2 impaired metabolism and decreased removal
-Accelerated atherogenesis - 2/2 enhanced oxidative stress 2/2 uremia and bio-incompatable renal replacement therapies
-Increased calcium intake (given to HD pts to correct for hyperphosphatemia) -> enhances coronary artery calcification
-Inhibition of NO - common finding in dialysis pts, can cause vasoconstriction and HTN
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Term
What's the differential Dx (8) for confusion?
What's the empirical Tx for confusion? |
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Definition
DDx: intoxication, infection, vitamin deficiency, endocrine disturbance (hypoglycemia), post-ctal state, hypertensive encephalopthy, or CNS hypoxia
Empirical Tx: administration of thiamine for Wernicke's encephalopathy, dextrose for hypoglycemia, supplemental O2 for hypoxia, and naloxone for opiate OD |
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Term
A 22 y/o female is brought in by her mother sho says she found her in the bathroom very drowsy and confused. Her HR 50, BP 80/40. Exam shows diplopia, ataxia, and slurred speach. Her mother says she also found a bottle of her anti-anxiety pills next to her.
Dx?
Tx? |
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Definition
Dx - benzodiazapine overdose
Tx - flumazenil (GABA-R antagonist) |
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Term
What are the first-line drugs for treatment of hypertensive encephalopthy? |
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Definition
Nitropursside and labetalol |
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Term
How do the following differ from each other as far as presentation, and progression of Sx throughout the day:
-Compression Fracture
-Ligamentous Sprain
-Lumbar Osteoarthritis
-Ankylosing Spondylitis |
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Definition
Compression fracture - focal vertebral pain, pain increases in intensity upon straining and coughing, pain occurs with sleeping
Ligamentous Sprain - Pain is perispinal (NOT directly over vertebrae), worse with movement, but pt feels best in morning
Lumbar OA - pain worsens as day progresses and is relieved with rest
Ankylosing Spondylitis - progressive limitation of back motion. Occurs in young men (<40 yrs). Typically worse in morning and improves throughout day
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Term
27 y/o female p/w decreased sensation and weakness of 4th and 5th digits for 3 days. She has no past medical Hx. She does not smoke or drink, is sexually active with one partner but uses protection. She says she woks as a desk clerk and uses a computer for about 8 hrs a day.
What's most likely Dx?
Pathophys? |
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Definition
Dx - Ulnar Nerve Syndrome
-Pathophys - due to ulnar nerve entrapment at medial epicondyle 2/2 prolonged leaning while typing |
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Term
What's the best treatment for the following complications of DM?
-Neuropathy
-Gastroparesis
-Foot ulcer
-Retinopathy
-Nephropathy |
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Definition
-Neuropathy - NSAIDs, tricyclic antidepressants, and gabapentin
-Gastroparesis - promotility agents like metoclopromide; also, low fat diet, and exercise
-Foot ulcer - prevention! Have them get regular foot care, regular podiatry visits
-Retinopathy - referal to ophtho for possible photocoagulation
-Nephropathy - ACE-I slows progression of microalbuminuria |
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Term
When does the neuropathic pain of diabetes characteristically occur and when is it worse?
As the disease progresses, what happens to the pain? |
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Definition
It characterisitcally occurs at rest and is worse at night.
As the disease progresses, the pain subsides and finally disappears. |
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Term
A 50 y/o male p/w pain and swelling of inner R-eye for 2 days. Exam shows tenderness, edema, and redness over medial canthus. Pressure over medial canthus expresses purulent material. Visual acuity is nml.
Dx? |
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Definition
Dacrocystitis
Usually caused by strep pygenes or staph
Responds to systemic AbX therapy |
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Term
50 y/o male p/w acute onset mild-moderate L-eye discomfort, photophobia, and watery discharge Exam shows diffuse L-bulbar conjunctival injection.
Dx? |
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Definition
Episclaritis - infection of episcleral tissue (btwn conjunctiva and sclera) |
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Term
54 y/o male p/w pain and swelling of R-upper eyelid. Exam shows erethym, and tender fluctuant mass of R-upper eyelid, but no involvement of R-eyeball, and no decrease in visual acuity.
Dx? |
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Definition
Hordeolum - abscess of upper or lower eye lid |
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Term
A 49 y/o female p/w painless lower eyelid nodule and mild eyelid discomfort.
Dx?
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Definition
Chalazion - chronic granulomatous inflammation of mebomian gland |
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Term
What is the difference btwn angioedema and urticaria (hives) as far as:
-part of skin/subQ involved
-presenting Signs/Sx |
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Definition
Angioedem is characterized by localized edema of deep subQ -> non-pitting puffy skin with firm swelling that is more tender and burning or pruritic (b/c there are fewer mast cells/sensory nerve endings in deeper tissues)
Urticaria is characterized by pruritic, blanchging swelling of the dermis 2/2 mast cell release of histamine (causes local increase vascular permeability).
-Urticaria is sort of analogous to eresypelas, which is infection of the dermis, whereas cellulitis is infection of the deep subQ
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Term
Live viruses are contraindicated in HIV pts. What is the exception to this rule, and what state must the pt be to receive that vaccination?
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Definition
MMR vaccine is exception to this generaliatoin b/c measles is life-threating in HIV pts
MMR vaccine can be administered to HIV pts w/ CD4 counts > 200 micro-L and without Hx or evidence of AIDs defining illness
In fact, even if HIV pt has had MMR given to them as a child, they should receive a booster due to their increased susceptibility to measles |
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Term
What test can you do to determine whether a pt has global vasodilitory shock (toxic, anaphylactic, neurogenic shock) vs hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock)? |
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Definition
Mixed venous oxygen content!
-In vasodilitory shock, since the peripheral resistance arteriols are all dilated -> resistance goes down -> so blood rushes through microcirculation so fast that tissue doesn't have enough time to exchange O2 -> high mixed venous O2
-In hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock, cardiac output is low -> tissue has much more time for gas exchange in microcirculation -> low mixed venous O2
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Term
What test can you do to distinguish between cardiogenic shock and hypovolemic shock? |
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Definition
Measure PCWP via Swan Gans Catheter
-Cardiogenic shock - low cardia output results in back up of blood into LA and pulmonary venous system -> high PCWP
-Hypovolemic shock - low PCWP |
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Term
What test can you do to distinguish between ARDs vs Left Heart Failure?
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Definition
Measure PCWP with a Swan Gans Catheter
-L-Heart Failure - low cardiac output results in back up of blood into LA and pulmonary venous system -> high PCWP
-ARDs - increased vessel permeability -> leakage of fluid and proteins from vascular space into interstitial space of lung -> decreased blood volume in pulmonary vasculature -> low PCWP |
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Term
What is the number one thing you decrease your risk of when you control your weight and blood pressure? |
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Definition
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Term
Seborrheic dermatitis is associated with what two unrelated diseases?
What is Seborrheic dermatitis?
What is it thought to be caused by?
Tx? |
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Definition
-Parkinsons disease and HIV
SD - waxy scaling w/ underlying erythema on the scalp, central face, presternal region, interscapular areas, umbilicus, and body folds.
-Malassezia fur fur (aka Pityrosporum ovale) may play a role in pathogenesis of SD
-Topical anti-fungal agents are effective in Tx this cond'n |
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Term
How does Tinea Versicolor present? |
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Definition
Pale or pink macules that don't tan or as hyperpigmented macules.
Caused by fungal infection of skin (Malassezia globosa) |
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Term
How does pityriasis rosea present?
What pathogen is it a/w? |
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Definition
Oval shaped erythematous and mildly scaling patches arranged in a "Christmas tree" pattern on trunk. Eruption begins w/ larger lesion known as herald patch
A/w HHV-7
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Term
A 33 y/o male returns from a missionary trip to Nepal complaining of several days of diarrhea. What two organisms could this most likely be due to? |
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Definition
Giardia and Cyclospora as they're both hyperendemic in Nepal |
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Term
22 y/o female p/w erythematous papules, pustules, and telangiectasias of her face. She says these lesions worsen when she drinks hot beverages. Surrounding skin is thickened and greasy.
Dx?
What can you tell her to avoid?
Tx?
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Definition
Dx - rosacea
Avoid EtOH, hot beverages, extremes of temperature, and reduce emotional stressors
Tx - Topical metronidazol (gel form) for induction effective and pplied BID
-Systemic AbX (tetracycline) used for maintenance |
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Term
What lipid abnormality is an indication for thyoid function testing?
What's the mechanism for this abn?
What medication do you need to be cautious about giving and why? |
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Definition
Hyperlipidemia, specifically hypercholesterolemia b/c pts with hypothyroidism have decreased LDL-R -> decreased LDL clearance
Need to be cautious when giving statins to these pts b/c hypothyroid pts are more susceptible to statin myopathy |
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Term
What is the firstline management of non-ruptured esophageal varices?
Ruptured? |
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Definition
Non-ruptured - beta-blockers; sometimes nitrates are added on
Ruptured - endoscopic sclerotherapy
Note: Octreotide is used in the management of hepatorenal syndrome, not esophageal varices
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Term
What is the medical management for hepatorenal syndrome?
What is the definitive treatment? |
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Definition
Octreotide, and sometimes midodrine (alpha-1 agonist)
Definitive Tx is liver transplant |
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Term
What's the pathophys behind hepatorenal syndrome?
What precipitates it?
What might you see on renal biopsy?
What are the clinical features? |
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Definition
-Pathophys - renal hypoperfusion 2/2 renal vasoconstriction of renal vessels
-Commonly precipitated infection and diuretics
-Renal biopsy will show normal kidney morophology b/c this is a functional renal failure
-Clinical features - azotemia, oliguria, hyponaturemia but low urine sodium (why???), hypotension |
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Term
Which anti-psychotic medication might cause hypothermia and why?
Qid 3139 |
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Definition
Fluphenazine (more potent than haloperidol)
-Can cause hypothermia by inhibiting body's shivering mechanism and/or inhibiting autonomic thermoregulation
-For this reason, pts taking antipsychotics shoould be advised to avoid prolonged exposure to cold temperatures |
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Term
What visual disturbance migth a pt with central retinal vein occlusion complain of?
What might you see on exam?
RFs? |
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Definition
Acute or subacute loss of vision. It's less acute than central retinal artery occlusion.
Fundoscopic exam may show "blood and thunder" appearance, including optic disk swelling, retinal hemorrhages, dilated vv, and cotton wool spots
RFs: coagulopathy, hyperviscosity, chronic glaucoma, atherosclerotic RFs
Tx: no Tx is particularly effective |
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Term
A 40 y/o male comes in b/c of a tingling sensation of feet. He has had lower back pain for 1 week since lifting somthing. He had a URI 1 month ago that lasted 4 days. He has a Hx of IV drug abuse. Vitals are nml and stable. Muscle strength is reduced in LE but preserved in UE. LE sensation is decreased. He has hyper-reflexia of LE and positive Babinski.
Dx?
NSIM? |
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Definition
Dx - spinal cord compressoin
-typicall presents with isolated, symetric LE Sx, loss of sensation, and UMN signs
-since he has bilateral Sx and it's present only in LE, lesion is most likely located in spinal cord
NSIM - MRI of spine
Note: Guillain-Barre Syndrome does not present with UMN signs (Babinski, hyperreflexia) and rarely p/w sensory findings
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Term
What two blood pressure medications are known to worsen HL? |
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Definition
Thiazides - increase LDL, total cholesterol, and TG (VLDL) levels
Beta-blockers (propranolo) - increases TGs (VLDL) and lowers HDL levels |
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Term
What diabetic drug is contraindicated in renal failure and why? |
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Definition
Metformin
-Due to it's a/w lactic acidosis, renal failure can cause worsening of acidosis
-This is why you MUST check a pt's renal function before and during treatment with metformin |
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Term
What drugs do you need to watch out for that can worsen renal failure in someone who develops pre-renal azotemia? |
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Definition
NSAIDs - block PGE2 -> decreased vasodilation of afferent glomerular arterioles -> decreased GFR
ACE-I - block Angiotensin II -> decreased vasoconstriction of efferent glomerular arterioles -> decreased GFR
Cyclosporine - mechanism unknown |
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Term
What is the Tx of choice for Paget's Disease? |
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Definition
Oral or IV bisphosphonates
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Term
What is the diagnostic criteria for fibromyalgia?
What should you advise the pt?
Tx? |
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Definition
-Diagnostic criteria
-Widespread musculoskeletal pain for at least 3 months in absence of joint swelling or mm weakness
-Pain in at least 11 of 18 possible tender points
-These points include: occiput, neck, shoulders, ribs, elbows, upper quadrant of buttocks, and inner aspect of knees
-Advise pt to remain active and productive
-Tx: SSRIs and TCAs have shown some effect and may be beneficial. Avoid narcotics
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Term
51 y/o caucasian female p/w low back pain radiating to buttocks. She complains of persistent mm pain in arms and shoulders that worsens w/ exercise. Exam shows no joint swelling or decreased mm strength. Palpation to outer upper quadrant of buttocks and medial knees elicits pain. ESR is 12 mm/hr
Dx? |
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Definition
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Term
Does injection of lidocaine into the shoulder decrease the pain of rotator cuff tear?
Rotator cuff tendonitis?
Adhesive capsulitis? |
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Definition
RC tear - no
Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) - no
RC tendinitis (resulting in RC impingement) - yes!
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Term
How can you distinguish a rotator cuff tear from rotator cuff tendonitis? |
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Definition
In a rotator cuff tear, there is:
1) Weakness of shoulder
2) Sx do not improve with lidocaine injection
Both p/w pain upon reaching and lifting arm overhead |
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Term
How does thoracic outlet syndrome typically present? |
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Definition
Unilateral numbness, weakness, and swelling 22 compression of subclavian vessels and lower trung of brachial plexus
Pt may have weakened radial pulse and reproduction of Sx w/ specific amr mov'ts |
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Term
How does cervical radiculopathy present? |
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Definition
Parasthesias and pain of neck and arm
Weakness may affect shoulder, elbow, or wrist, depending on cervical root(s) involved
Mov't of neck exacerbates Sx |
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Term
What is the most relyable indicator or opioid intoxication?
What is the goal in management of such a pt? |
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Definition
-Respiratory depression is most relyable indicator
-Goal is to increase respiratory rate to at least 12/min by giving naloxone
Note: Pupil constriction (meiosis) is not a relyable indicator of opioid intox, as pupils can be nml or even enlarged (especially if pt OD'd on meperidine or propoxyphene). |
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Term
What is the empirical Tx for agitation?
What condition is this Tx contraindicated in?
Qid 4622 |
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Definition
Epirical Tx - haloperidol; benzodiazapines can also be used but in non-elderly pts (b/c they metabolize them slower)
Haloperidol is contraindicated in Lewey Body Dementia (beware of pts with visual hallucinations!)
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Term
Name 4 first-generation anti-histamines and 3 second/third generationg anti-histamines.
What is the difference in SE profile btwn the two? |
|
Definition
1st generation - diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, doxepin, hydroxyzine
2nd generation - loratidine, desloratadine, fexofenidine
2nd/3rd generation drugs do not block cholinergic, alpha-1 adrenergic, or 5-HT receptors. Also they are more selective of peripheral H1 receptor as opposed to CNS ones -> less sedation effect
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Term
A 22 y/o male comes in b/c of itching and redness of his R-arm after bee sting. He perscribed doxepine and told to return if the swelling worsens. The next day, he returns b/c of mouth dryness, and dysuria.
Dx? |
|
Definition
Dx - symptomatic anti-cholinergic effect of 1st generation anti-histamine (chlorpheniramine, doxepine, hydroxyzine, diphenhydramine) |
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Term
22 y/o female comes in with mild acne. She is perscribed topical retinods, and told to discontinue overuse of make-up. She returns 5 weeks later b/c acne has worsened. Exam shows mild-moderate facial acne.
NSIM? |
|
Definition
NSIM - reassurance
-It takes about 6 weeks to notice effects of meds, and in meantime, skin may get worse before it gets better |
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Term
What test can you do to screen for cystinuria if you suspect it?
What might you see on UA? |
|
Definition
Cyanide nitroprusside test - look up how this works
May see hexagonal crystals on UA |
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Term
What is the main disease modifying drug used in rheumatoid arthritis?
What SE must you look out for?
What are 2 alternative drugs? |
|
Definition
Methotrexate
-SE include: bone marrow suppressiong (anemia, thrombocytompenia, leukopenia), pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, oral ulcers (stomatitis), mild alopecia
2 alternatives include: hydroxychloroquine (SE is visual loss, so do eye exam Q 6 months), Sulfasalazine |
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Term
What is Felty's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid Arthritis + anemia, neutropenia, and splenomegally |
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Term
What's the test of choice for diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis?
What is the gender ratio for AS? |
|
Definition
Test of choice is pelvic X-ray
-If it shows fusion of sacroiliac joint, that's diagnostic of AS!!!
-If pelvic X-ray is negative or equivocal, you can do an MRI of spine as it's highly sensitive and specific for sacroilitis
Gender ratio for AS is 2:1, male:female |
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Term
The diagnosis of DKA is suggested by what 4 lab value findings? |
|
Definition
1. Blood glucose level > 250 mg/dL
2. pH <7.3
3. Serum bicarb <15-20 mmol/L
4. Detection of plasma ketones |
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Term
How do you calculate serum osmolality based on Na, glucose, and BUN? |
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Definition
Osm = 2*Na + Glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 |
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Term
What is the NSIM in pts with hyperosmolar non-ketotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
IV nml saline!!!
-1 L nml saline for first hr, 1 L nml saline for hrs 2-3
-switch to D5-half nml saline once Osm gets to 150 mg/dL |
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Term
What is the NSIM for a pt with suspected melanoma?
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Definition
NSIM - excisional biopsy w/ narrow margins b/c wide margins is inappropriate if the lesion turns out to be benign
AFTER the Dx of melanoma has been made, wide excision (of 1-3 cm) is NSIM |
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Term
What visual disturbances to pts with macular degeneration present with?
What is this a result of? |
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Definition
Central vision loss, but peripheral and navigational vision are always spared
It's a result of atrophy of outer retina, retinal pigment epithelium, Bruch's membrane and choriocapillaries |
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Term
What is the first-line drug therapy for osteoarthritis? |
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Definition
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Term
What are 5 complications of nephrotic syndrome that directly relates to loss of protein in urine?
Why do these occur? |
|
Definition
-Hypercoagulability - loss of anti-thrombin III
-Iron-resistant microcytic hypochromic anemia - transferrin loss
-Osteomalacia/Rickets - loss of VitD binding protein
-Hypothyroidism - loss of thyroxine binding globulin
-Increased susceptibility to infection - loss of low molecular weight complement |
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Term
What will you see in a joint aspirate in a pt with pseudogout?
Gout? |
|
Definition
Pseudogout - rhomboid shaped positively birefringent crystals (calcium pyrophosphate)
Gout - needle shaped negatively birefringent crystals (monosodium urate) |
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Term
46 y/o female with Hx of RA comes in complaining of R-knee swelling and tenderness for 3 days. She says pain began shortly after R-knee replacement surgery. Exam shows swelling, warmth, and decreased range of motion. Temp 101, BP 120/80, HR 90. CBC shows leukocytosis w/ left shift. Synovial analysis shows positively birefringent crystals and negative gram stain. Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - pseudogout
Tx - symptomatic management with NSAIDs |
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Term
What is the NSIM in organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
Do both of the following:
1) Administer atropine (competes with organophosphates at muscurinic-R) -> reverses Sx
2) Remove all clothing and wash pt's body b/c it may be contaminated with pesticides and you need to prevent transcutaneous absorption
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Term
What is the NSIM in evaluation of a pt with suspected pancreatic cancer? |
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Definition
CT abdomen
If both CT and U/S are negative, then you do ERCP (gold standard) |
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Term
What's the Tx for early syphilis?
What if pt is allergic to that medication?
What's the Tx for neurosyphilis?
Qid 3256 |
|
Definition
Early syphilis - single IM dose of benzathine penicillin G
-For pts allergic to penicillin, 14 day course of tetracycline is used
Neurosyphilis - IV aqueous crystalline penicillin |
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Term
What 4 types of neuropathy can be seen in pts with longstanding DM?
Of these, which is most common? |
|
Definition
Distal symmetrical sensorimotor polyneuropathy
Proximal neuropathy
Mononeuropathy
Autonomic neuroapthy
MC is distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy - pts classically p/w "stocking glove" pattern of sensory loss |
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Term
Pure small fiber neuropathy is characterized by what?
Pure large fiber neuropathy is characterized by what? |
|
Definition
Small - pain, allodynia, parasthesias
-there is not appreciable sensory loss, and ankle jerk is preserved
-think about it this way: you're losing the sensory neurons and interneurons that inhibit/modulate pain
Large - numbness, loss of pressure, propioception, and vibratory senses; ankle jerk is lost
-less pain
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Term
What are the 6 stages (0-5) of DM foot ulcers?
What is the management for each? |
|
Definition
0 - high risk foot w/o ulcer
1 - ulcer contained to skin (full thickness skin)
2 - ulcer penetrates to ligaments or mm
3 - ulcer deep enough to cause osteomyelitis, cellulitis, or abscess formation (think infectous!)
4 - localized gangrene
5 - extensive gangrene involving whole foot
Tx:
0 - continue to observe
1-2 - proper wound care and debridement
3 - admit, debride, culture deep parts, IV AbX (infectious is often polymicrobial so make sure ot cover anaerobic and gram (-))
4-5 - surgical consult for amputation
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Term
What are the 2 criteria for Dx of "brain death?"
Does a brain dead pt:
1) have increased HR when given atropine?
2) have DTRs?
3) spontaneously breath at high pCO2?
Qid 4159 |
|
Definition
Criteria:
1) Loss of cortical and brain stem functions
2) Proving irreversibility of brain activity loss (sufficient observation length)
Brain dead pts:
1) do not have increased HR with atropine b/c vagal control of heart is lost, so HR becomes invariant
2) DTRs are intact b/c spinal cord may still be functioning
3) no spontaneous breathing with hypercarbia (pCO2 >60) b/c loss of lower brainstem centers |
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Term
How does hemochromatosis manifest with respect to involvement of the following organs:
-liver -thyroid
-pancreas -gonads
-heart
-joints
-skin |
|
Definition
liver - cirrhosis, very high risk of HCC
pancreas - DM
heart - restrictive cardiomypathy, conduction block
joints - arthritis
skin - bronze appears 2/2 hemosiderin deposition
thyroid - hypothyroidism
gonads - hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (decreased libido, small testes) 2/2 deposition in pituitary and hypothalamus
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Term
In what pt population/situation should you suspect myocarditis?
How do you Dx it?
Tx? |
|
Definition
ANY young patient who p/w Sx of heart failure (PND, cardiomegally, hepatomegally, LE edema, pleural effusions, 3rd heart sound)
Dx by echocardiogram - you'll see dilated ventricles w/ diffuse hypokinesis, reflecting dilated cardiomyopathy
-If echocardiogram is equivocal - myocardial biopsy (gold standard)
Tx - supportive, involving management of CHF Sx
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Term
How does rubella present?
What's the Tx? |
|
Definition
-Fever, malaise, and tender suboccipital LN (after 2-3 wks)
-Rash that decends from head to toe
Tx: acetaminophen for Sx relief |
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Term
How does rocky mountain spotted fever present?
Tx? |
|
Definition
-Red macular rash that begins over wrists and ankles and spreads centrally
-Influenza-like prodrome occurs
Tx: doxycyline everyone except pregnant women, and chloramphenicol for pregnant women
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Term
What are the 3 types of treatment for aconyloma acuminata? |
|
Definition
1) chemical or physical agents (trichloracetic acid, 5-FU, podophilin [antimitotic agent])
2) Immune therapy (imiquimod, IFN-alpha)
3) Surgery (cryosurgery, excisional procedures, laser Tx) |
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Term
What two electrolyte disturbances can you see when a pt is transfused with many units of packed RBCs? |
|
Definition
Hyperkalemia 2/2 RBCs losing K+ to surrounding solution
Hypocalcemia 2/2 citrate chelation |
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|
Term
What's the difference between Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia 1 and 2?
What's the difference in management?
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|
Definition
1 - occurs <48hrs after administration, and is caused by platelet aggregation. No Tx is necessary
2 - occurs 3-12 days after administration, and is caused by antibody-mediated injury to platelet. Tx is IMMEDIATE discontinuation of heparin, and administration of direct thrombin inhibitor (lepiruden, argatroban)
Note: HIT is a hypercoagulable state 2/2 antibody mediated activation of platelets -> release of procoagulant mediators
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Term
22 y/o male p/w pain and swelling of his R-foot. He is a construction worker, and said he stepped on a nail at work a few days ago. Temp is 101. Exam shows red, swollen, warm R-heel. Xray is suggestive of osteomyelitis.
Organism causing osteomyelitis?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - hint was Hx of nail puncture wound through his shoe (pseudomonas lives in moist environments like inside shoe)
NSIM - oral or parenteral quinolone and aggressive surgical debridement |
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Term
How does essential tremor present?
What are 2 treatment modalities for essential tremor? |
|
Definition
Intention tremor of upper extremity that is markedly decreased by alcohol use
-disoriented handwriting often present
-Other Sx of Parkinsonism are absent (bradykinesia, rigidity, shuffling gait)
Tx: beta-blockers, and anticonvulsants (commonly topiramate and primidone [anticonvulsant that converts to phenylethlmalonamide and phenobarbitol]) |
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Term
62 y/o male is brought in by his son due to progressive cognitive decline over the past year. Exam shows ophthalmoplegia, bradykinesia and limb rigidity, however no tremor.
Dx? |
|
Definition
Dx - progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)
-Caused by deneration of brainstem (ophthalmoplegia, basal ganglia (rigidity, bradykinesia), and cerebellum
-Like Parkinsons, it p/w rigidity and bradykinesia
-Unlike Parkinsons, p/w ophthalmoplegia, but no tremor |
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|
Term
In adults with meningitis, what comes first lumbar puncture or AbX?
Qid 3633
SU pg 356
|
|
Definition
Abx are given first followed by LP and CT
Children, on the other hand, should first have an LP and then a AbX (LP is easy to do in kids even when agitated) |
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Term
What are the 5 main complications of Ankylosing Spondylitis? |
|
Definition
-Restrictive lung disease
-Cauda equina syndrome
-Spinal fracture w/ spinal cord injury
-Osteoporosis
-Sponylodiscitis |
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|
Term
What is the NSIM for a pt with a frost-bitten extremity? |
|
Definition
-Rapid rewarming with warm water (40-44 C)
-This results in less tissue damage than slow rewarming.
-Rapid rewarming with dry heat is not effectiveb/c it takes longer and results in tissue damage if temp is too high. Dry heat can also cause thermal injury b/c decreased sensitivity of frost bitten extremity
-There should be NO ATTEMPT TO DEBRIDE frost bitten area initially. Only after complete rewarming and re-evaluation of extremity may this be done. True demarcation of where margins of healthy tissue is may take weeks
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Term
What is the goal BP for a pt with DM?
What's the firstline drug for BP control in these pts? |
|
Definition
Goal BP - 130/80
Firstline drug - ACE-I |
|
|
Term
What is the AbX of choice for both human and dog bites?
What is the AbX of choice for Legionnaire's disease? |
|
Definition
Human and dog bite - amoxicillin-clavulanate
Legionarre's disease - erythromycin |
|
|
Term
What is the NSIM of a pt with Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
Disconinue heparin products (including LMWH)
-Its also recommended to continue anti-coagulation therapy despite thrombocytopenia b/c these pts are in a hypercoagulable state -> use direct thrombin inhibitor (lepiruden or argatroban) |
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Term
What is the management for pts RV heart failure following RV infarct? |
|
Definition
IV fluids (b/c RV infarcts required high preload to maintain BP) and discontinue nitrates and diuretics (b/c they decreased preload)
-Nitrates are contraindicated in RV infarction, AO stensois, and recent phosphodiesterase use
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Term
What is the empirical Tx of infective endocarditis in pts w/ suspected IV drug abuse?
What about non-IV drug abusers? |
|
Definition
IV drug abusers - vancomycin (since MRSA is such a common cause)
Non-IV drug abusers - ampicillin-sulbactam (since MRSA is less common a cause) |
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|
Term
How does a rash of Type II hypersensitivity differ from that of a Type III hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
II - p/w more bullae and blisters (think of pemphigus and pemphigoid)
III - erethematous and maculopapular rash |
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|
Term
What is the reason for the decreased or absent achelles tendon reflex commonly seen in elderly ppl? |
|
Definition
Decreased sympathetic tone and/or changes in the mm themselves |
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Term
57 y/o female with Hx of HTN p/w continuous loss of urine for the past several months. She denies dysuria or hematuria, and had a UTI once 17 years ago. She had surgery for removal of invasive cervical cancer 2 yrs ago. BP 108/82, HR 80. Exam is unremarkable.
Dx?
How do you Dx? |
|
Definition
Vesico-vaginal fistula
-Pts with Hx of pelvic surgery or irradiation are at risk
Dx is made with intravenous pyelogram
-Will see dye leaking from fistula |
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Term
45 y/o male is brought in b/c his son found him on bathroom floor next to an unknown bottle. He is in severe pain, and his tongue is white. He is salivating heavily and has difficulty swallowing.
Dx?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Dx - caustic substance ingestion
NSIM - after maintaining an airway, do an upper GI endoscopy w/in first 24 hrs to assess extent of injury
Recall, NG lavage is doen for pts who have ingested poisons or OD'd on drugs such as EtOH. However, it's not used in caustic substance ingestion b/c it can ppt GI hemorrhage! |
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Term
Name 4 sequellae associated with Chronic Hep C. |
|
Definition
1) Chronic arthralgias (often w/ a false pasitive Rh factor or ANA)
2) Cryoglobulinemia
3) Porphyria cuteanea tarda
4) Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
5) B-Cell lymphomas
6) Plasmacytomas
7) Autoimmune diseases (Sjogrens, thyroiditis)
8) Lichen planus |
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|
Term
Describe pathologic changes of hypertensive kidney disease.
Describe pathologic changes of diabetic kidney disease.
|
|
Definition
HTN:
-Nephrosclerosis - hypertrophy and intimial medial fibrosis of renal arterioles (efferent and afferent)
-Glomerulosclerosis - progressive loss of glomerular capillary surface area w/ glomerular and peritubular fibrosis
-Kidneys decrease in size
DM
-Characterized by: increased ECM, BM thickening, mesangial expansion, and fibrosis
-First year of DM - glomerular hyperperfusion and renal hypertrophy with increased GFR
-First 5 yrs of DM - glomerular BM thickening, hypertrophy, and mesangial volume expansion w/ GFR returning to nml
-5-10 yrs of DM - microalbuminuria, which later progresses to overt nephropathy |
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|
Term
What will you see on microscopy of pts with Whipple's Disease?
What Sx do pts with Whipple's Disease p/w?
How do you Dx? |
|
Definition
Microscopy - PAS positive macrophages in lamina propria
-Recall: You also see PAS macrophages in mycobacterium avium infections of GI, and PAS positive globules in pts with Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Sx include: chronic malabsorptive diarrhea (steatorrhea, flatulance, and abd distension), protein-losing enteropathy, WL, non-deforming arthritis, LN, fever
Dx by SI biopsy and viral PCR
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Term
What are the criteria for Dx of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?
What tests should you order for Dx? |
|
Definition
It's essentially the absence of findings a/w MM, including absence of:
-anemia - CBC
-lytic bone lesions - Bone X Ray
-hypercalcemia -Chem 7
-renal insufficiency - Chem 7
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Term
What is the best initial screening test for allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
Nasal smear for eosinophils
-Predominnace of eosinophils indicates allergic rhinitis
-This test however has a low specificity - other causes of nasal eosinophilia include: nasal polyposis (including aspirin sensitivity), non-allergic rhinitis w/ eosinophilia)
Note: A common cause of non-allergic rhinitis is vasomotor rhinitis (chronis use of diphenhydramine) and is characterized by absence of eosinophelia |
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Term
What key part of the History may help in distinguishing between cardiac vs. vasovagal syncope?
|
|
Definition
Cardiac will have sudden onset of syncope w/o warning signs
-pt may have Hx of structural heart disease (e.g. MI), frequent ectopic beats, use of diuretics (causes electrolyte imbalance)
Vasovagal is typically preceded by presyncopal dizziness, weakness, and nausea |
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Term
What is the best screening test for histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
Antigen in urine or serum
-Fungal blood cultures are sensitive, but take way too long (up to 6 weeks)
-Another clue that it's Histo is presence of palatal ulcers!
Recall: Urine is the most productive fluid for culturing CMV! |
|
|
Term
What is the Tx for:
Blastomyocosis
Histoplasmosis
Coccidiodomycosis
Sporotrichosis |
|
Definition
Blasto - PO intraconazole; Ampho for meningitis
Histo - PO intraconazole; Ampho if severe/fungemia
Coccidiodo - PO fluconazole; Ampho if severe/fungemia
Sporo - PO potassium iodide or intraconazole; Ampho for severe/fungemia |
|
|
Term
How does Lumbar Spinal Stenosis present?
How is Dx confirmed?
Tx? |
|
Definition
p/w lower back pain and pain in legs that is worsened with back extension (walking) and relieved with back flexation (sitting, lying) -> this is termed neurogenic claudication and is easily differentiated from PVD by nml peripheral pulses and nml ankle-brachial index
-flexation widens spinal canal
-extension narrows spinal canal
Dx confirmed by MRI of spine
Tx: May be conservative or surgical (laminectomy) |
|
|
Term
For mechanically ventilated pts, what do you do if:
pO2 is low
pO2 is high
pCO2 is low
pCO2 is high |
|
Definition
Low pO2 - turn up PEEP
High pO2 - turn down FiO2
Low pCO2 - turn down venilation rate or tidal vol
High pCO2 - turn up ventilation rate or tidal vol |
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Term
What is the screening test of choice for acromegally?
What is the confirmatory test of choice for acromegally? |
|
Definition
Screening test - IGF-1 (somatomedin C) levels
Confirmatory test - Oral glucose supression test |
|
|
Term
As a rule of thumb in endocrinology, ______ is performed AFTER biochemical diagnosis of a disorder is made. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are 4 SE of EPO therapy? |
|
Definition
1) Worsening HTN - 20-50% of pts will experience an increase of 10 mmHg in diastolic BP. More common with IV administration as opposed to SubQ
-2/2 increase in viscosity of blood -> increased resistance (recall R = [8*viscosity*length]/pi*r2
2) Headaches
3) Flu-like Syndrome - responsive to anti-inflammatory drugs; less common with SubQ administration
4) Red cell aplasia
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Term
45 y/o HIV positive man is brought in b/c of seizures. He has no Hx of seizures. T 98, BP 130/88, HR 90. He is not compliant with his medications, and his CD4 count is 60. CT head shows a single weakly enhancing lesion in brain.
Most likely Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - primary CNS lymphoma (Toxo a little less likely given its characteristics on CT and fact that pts is afebrile)
Tx - Brain irradiation |
|
|
Term
What drug is used for prophylaxis agaist toxoplasmosis?
What drug is used to treat toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
Prophy - TMP-SMX
Tx - sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
What are Light's Criteria for classifying an effusion as an exudate?
|
|
Definition
Effusion must have at least one of the following:
-Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
-Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio >0.6
-Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of upper limit of nml for serum LDH |
|
|
Term
What are the steps in working up cause and management of a pleural effusion? |
|
Definition
1) Determine if transudate or exudate using Light's Criteria. Exudate needs 1 of the following:
-Fluid protein/Serum protein >0.5
-Fluid LDH/Serum LDH >0.6
-Fluid LDH > 2/3 upper limit nml of serumLDH
2) Deterimine if uncomplicated or complicated. Complicated have: positive gram stain, positive culture, pH<7.2, glucose <60 mg/dL
-If complicated -> requires chest tube placement as well as AbX b/c it's unlikely to resolve spontaneously w/ AbX alone!!! |
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|
Term
All pts with systolic dysfunction should be given what drug even if asymptomatic?
What is the initial Tx of symptomatic heart failure? |
|
Definition
ACE-I
initial Tx of choice - ACE-I + diuretic |
|
|
Term
What two things might you find in disseminated Blastomycosis?
Where is the highest infection rate?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Ulcerated skin lesions and lytic bone lesions
-Recall, Coccidiodomycosis also p/w bone lesions, and a maculopapular rash
Great Lakes, Mississippi and Ohio rr basins; highest infection rate is in Wisconsin
Tx: PO intraconazole; Ampho for meningitis |
|
|
Term
What is presbyopia?
How does it present?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Age-related disorder that results in loss of elasticity of lens -> prohibits accommodation of lens, which is req'd in order to focus on near objects
Presents with poor near-sided vision--pts will classically hold reading material far away to read
Tx - reading glasses
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Term
What physical exam finding confirms the dx of malignant HTN? |
|
Definition
Presence of papilledema on ophthalmoscop
-Renal failure (elevated creatinine and oliguria) can develop rapidly w/o Tx but is not req'd for Dx
Recall, the pathologic change responsible for end-organ damage in m-HTN is fibrinoid necrosisi of small arterioles
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|
Term
What is the Tx of choice for Nocardiosis?
What is the Tx of choice for Actinomyces infection? |
|
Definition
Nocardiosis - TMP-SMX
-p/w Sx of TB: WL, fever, night sweats
-p/w cough productive of purulent sputum
-CXR shows alveolar infilatrates and nodules, often with cavitation
Actinomyces - Penicillin G
Recall the SNAP mneumonic:
Sulfa for Nocardia, Actinomyces treated with Penicillin |
|
|
Term
How does costochondritis present? |
|
Definition
Pain syndrome characterised by tenderness of costochondral or costosternal junctions
-pain is sharp, focal, lasts for hours, and worsens with inspiration and mov't
-tenderness is reproducible to palpation |
|
|
Term
What two cytochemical features are specific for Hairy Cell Leukemia? |
|
Definition
Tartrate-Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)
CD11c |
|
|
Term
What fundoscopic findings are seen in pts with vitreous hemorrhage?
How do these pts present? |
|
Definition
Vitreous hemorrhage - fundus is hard to visualize and/or retina has dark red glow to it
P/W sudden vision loss and onset of floaters |
|
|
Term
For pts with Bell's Palsy, what physical exam finding excludes central facial paralysis and why?
Qid 2673 |
|
Definition
Absence of forehead furrows b/c both L and R hemispheres contribute UMN to the upper facial nerve nucleus to both sides, therefore UMN from BOTH L and R hemisphere would have to be knocked out (which is highly unlikely) |
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|
Term
What are the 3 indications for placement of an IVC filter? |
|
Definition
1) Anticoagulation is contraindicated in that pt (recent surgery, hemorrhagic stroke, bleeding diathesis, active bleeding)
2) Hx of adverse RXN to anticoagulation (HIT)
3) Pts who develop DVT/PE despite sufficient anticoagulation |
|
|
Term
What is a SE of acyclovir?
How can you prevent this from happening? |
|
Definition
Renal tubular obstruction
-Acyclovir is poorly soluble in urine and easily precipitates in renal tubules -> tubular obstruction -> renal failure
-Crystallineuria w/ renal tubular obstruction usually occurs during administration of large parenteral doses of acyclovir
Prvent this with adequate hydration
This is also seen with indinavir (HIV protease inhibitor)
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|
Term
What is a great drug to use on SLE pts who have isolated skin and joint disease? |
|
Definition
Hydroxycholorquine
-This drug can cause retinopathy and corneal damage so eye exams every 6 months are indicated for these pts |
|
|
Term
What electrolyte lab finding is a poor prognosis in pts with CHF? |
|
Definition
Hyponatremia - b/c it indicates that the RAAS system has already kicked in and the pt is retaining fluid and worsening the CHF |
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Term
What is happening in Sick Euthyroid Syndrome?
What will the pt's thyroid function tests look like as the disease progresses?
Does giving thyroid hormone help? |
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Definition
Sick Euthyroid Syndrome is when the body is trying to conserve energy during times of illness by shutting down metabolism, and it does this by decreasing thyroid function (since thyroid hormone drives metabolism).
-Early on, T4 -> T3 conversion is shut down, so pt will have nml TSH and T4, but low T3
-Later on TSH drops, causing a decrease in both T4 and T3
Giving these pts thyroid hormone does not help, and infact can increase the likelihood of mortality in these pts
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Term
For every 1.0 unit below normal a pt's albumin is, how much do you add to the pt's Ca2+?
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Definition
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Term
A 45 y/o male comes in w/ fatigue, constipation, muscle weakness, and a 15 lb weight gain over the past 2 months. Vitals are T 98, BP 116/92, HR 62. Labs show low T3 and T4. The pt is perscribed levothyroxine and discharged home. He returns 2 weeks later saying all his Sx have worsened since taking the levothyroxine.
NSIM?
Most likely Dx? |
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Definition
NSIM - measure serum cortisol
Most Likely Dx - adrenal insufficiency 2/2 malignancy of thyrotropin cells -> decreased TSH; damage to ACTH producing cells -> decreased ACTH |
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Term
What does the presence of following casts indic indicate?
-Muddy brown granular casts
-RBC casts
-WBC casts
-Fatty casts
-Broad and waxy casts |
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Definition
-Muddy brown granular casts - indicates presence of renal tubular epithelial cells
-Non-specific finding in ATN
-RBC casts - glomerulonephritis or vasculitis
-WBC casts - interstitial nephritis and pyelo
-Fatty casts - nephrotic syndrome
-Broad waxy casts - broad casts arise from tubules that are enlarged (2/2 compensatory hypertrophy) in response to decreased renal mass |
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Term
Pt p/w slurred speach, unsteady gait, drowsiness and mild respiratory depression. Pt's pupils are nml and reactive. Pt does not drink alcohol.
What drug has pt most likely OD on?
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Definition
Benzodiazapine
-Unlikely opioid overdose by the fact that there's only mild respiratory depression and the pupils are nml
-Not as likely to be phenytoin as there's no nystagmus |
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Term
Pt comes in with horizontal nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, malar rash on face, and confusion. Pt also has labs showing megalobastic anemia.
What drug did this pt most likely OD on? |
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Definition
Phenytoin
-May also see: gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, induction of cytochrome P450, generalized lymphadenopathy |
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Term
The following foods can put pt at risk for infections from what pathogen(s):
1. undercooked seafood
2. undercooked pork
3. undercooked rice
4. undercooked ground beef
5. custards, potatoe salad |
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Definition
1. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
2. Yersinia, Campylobacter
3. Bacillis cerius
4. E. coli
5. S. aureus
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Term
22 y/o female p/w fever and dysuria. UA shows small RBCs and coffin shaped crystals.
Most likely Dx?
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Definition
Struvite crystals 2/2 urease producing bacteria causing UTI (proteus, ureaplasma uriliticum, klebsiella) |
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Term
What criteria must a pt with PCP pneumonia meet in order for TMP-SMX and steroids to be indicated? |
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Definition
Pt must have PaO2 <70 mmHg or A-a gradient >35 mmHg
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Term
What is the drug of choice for pts who have severe PCP pneumonia who can't tolerate TMP-SMX? |
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Definition
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Term
How does warfarin-induced necrosis present?
How do you manage it? |
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Definition
P/W pain, followed by bullae formation and skin necrosis
-Most commonly affects breasts, buttocks, thighs and abdomen
Management - administer VitK in early stages of lesion, and warfarin should be d/c'd if lesion progresses. Administer heparin to maintain coagulation until lesion heals
This disorder is sometimes a/w protein C deficiency since protein C has shortest half-life, and so it disappears the fastest when giving Warfarin for the first time -> pt is transiently hypercoagulable |
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Term
What lab value is a good predictor of the response to IFN and lamivudine therapy for chronic Hep B? |
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Definition
ALT
-An ALT > 2x upper limit of nml (40 U/L) predicts a favorable response to this Tx
-A normal ALT predicts poor response to this Tx
Therefore, you only treat Chronic Hep B pts with IFN therapy if their ALT is > 2x ULN!
Qid 2961 |
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Term
Pt comes in with blurred vision and moderate R-eye pain. Cornea is hazy, and the pupil is constricted w/ poor light reflex. Slit lamp exam shows flare and cells in the anterior chamber.
What's most likely Dx? |
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Definition
Uveitis
-In acute glaucoma, pupil is dilated and non-reactive to light |
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Term
What test helps in Dxing corneal abrasion? |
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Definition
Slit lamp examination with fluorescein |
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Term
For a pt with a suspected arterial occlusion (pt has any combination of pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, poikilothermia, pallor)?
How do you confirm Dx? |
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Definition
You put the patient on heparin therapy right away based on clinical suspicion alone!
Confirm Dx with angiography
-Once Dx made, you can either do percutaneous direct intra-arterial (NOT intravenous) fibrinolysis, or embolectomy |
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Term
62 y/o female with Hx of DM, HTN, and CAD p/w sudden loss transient of vision. She describes no eye pain, and says that "all of a sudden a curtain fell down over my eye." She says she's had this happen a few times before. Fundoscopy shows zones of whitened, edematous retina following distribution of retinal arterioles.
Dx?
NSIM? |
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Definition
Dx - Amaurosis Fugax
NSIM - carotid ultrasonography
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Term
What is the initial diagnostic test of choice when a pt p/w unprovoked new-onset seizure? |
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Definition
CT head w/o contrast
-This is to exclude life-threatening processes such as intracranial hemorrhage
CT with contrast is usually indicated if brain tumors or other mass lesions (toxo, lypmphoma, cancer) is suspected cause of pt's Sx |
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Term
What should you screen for any pt with PID, even when the cause (GC/CT) is known? |
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Definition
Since these pts are at increased risk for another STD, most physicians advise that these pts be screened for:
-HIV
-RPR
-PAP
-Hep B surface Ag |
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Term
A 24 y/o woman comes in for vomiting and amenorrhea. Pregnancy test is positive, and U/S confirms that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is worried b/c 2 months ago she received a Rubella vaccine, and her doctor told her to avoid getting pregnant for 3 months.
NSIM? |
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Definition
Reassurance
-Although women of child-bearing age were previously advised to avoid contraception for months after rubella immunization, there have been no case reports to date of congenital rubella syndrome 2/2 vaccination
-Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices has reduced recommended waiting time from 3 months to 2 months |
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Term
How do you make the Dx of amebic liver abscess? |
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Definition
-Serologic testing (IgG enzyme immunoassay)
-Stool exam for trophozoites
-Liver imaging
Note: Aspirate from amebic liver abcess is usually sterile |
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Term
What's the reason why Osteoarthritis has an insidious onset? |
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Definition
It's because there are no pain fibers in cartilage, so cartilagenous destruction over time goes unnoticed
Once it is completely worn out, the bones (which do have pain fibers) start rubbing against each other, producing pain |
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Term
Name the diseases a/w the following findings on X-ray of a joint:
1. Narrowing of joint space and osteophyte formation
2. Punched out erosions w/ rim of cortical bone
3. Periarticular osteopenia and joint margin erosions
4. Calcifications of cartilagenous structures
5. Normal joint space w/ soft tissue swelling
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Definition
1. Osteoarthritis
2. Gouty arthritis
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Chondrocalcinosis typical of pseudogout
5. Infectious arthritis |
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Term
What criteria must a pt meet to be Dx'd with metabolic syndrome? |
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Definition
Pt must have at least 3 of the following 5:
1. Abd obesity (men: waist circumf >40, women >35)
2. Fasting glucose >100 - 110 mg/dL
3. BP >130/80
4. TG >150 mg/dL
5. HDL <40 in men, <50 in women
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Term
What is the test of choice for Dxing an empyema?
Tx? |
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Definition
Dxing - CT scan
Tx:
-Aggressive drainage of pleura and AbX
-If empyema is severe, persistent/won't drain (after placement of 2 chest tubes), or on CT is complex and has thick rim -> surgery!!! |
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Term
What's the Cardiac Output (a), Systemic Vascular Resistance (b), and PCWP (c) in the following types of shock:
-Cardiogenic
-Hypovolemic
-Neurogenic
-Septic |
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Definition
Cardiogenic - low, high, high
Hypovolemic - low, high, low
Neurogenic - low, low, low
Septic - high, low, low (with nml-high mixed venous O2 content; see pg 57 for details) |
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Term
45 y/o female with Hx of RA p/w R-hip pain. She says pain began 3 weeks ago and has progressively worsened. She has no restriction of motion of R-hip. She is currently on methotrexate and predisone. Radiograph of hip is normal.
NSIM? |
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Definition
MRI of the hip, or scintigraphy
-This is highly suspicious for avascular necrosis of femoral head 2/2 chronic corticosteroid therapy
-Other RFs to look for are: chronic EtOHism, and hemoglobinopathies |
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Term
What are 4 indications for thoracostomy placement when a pt as suspected empyema? |
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Definition
Pleural Fluid is defined as "complicated" b/c it fulfills any of the following criteria:
-Positive gram stain
-Positive culture
-pH <7.2
-Glucose <60 mg/dL |
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Term
What is De Quervain tenosynovitis?
How does it present, and who does it present in?
What test assists in the Dx? |
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Definition
-Its inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons as tehy pass through a fibrous sheath at the radial styloid process
P/W pain over lateral wrist, tenderness w/ palpation of radial side of wrist. See in new postpartum moms
Finklestein test - passive stretching of affected tendons by grasping flexed thumb into palm w/ fingers -> elicits pain |
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Term
What is the treatment of choice for acute gout? |
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Definition
NSAIDs!
-If this doesn't work, an alternative is colchicine
-If colchicine doesn't work or is not tolerated, use oral corticosteroids |
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Term
What is a febrile transfusion reaction caused by?
How does it present?
How can it be avoided? |
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Definition
-Caused by anti-HLA Abs in pt's serum reacting against donor leukocytes
-Causes f/c that is not responsive to NSAIDs
-Unlike hemolytic transfusion rxn or bacterial contamination, no hemodynamic abn and renal dysfunction are present
Avoided through leukocyte depletion techniques |
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Term
A 34 y/o female with Hx of lupus p/w fatigue and joint pain. Vitals are normal and stable. Clinical chemistry is significant for creatinine of 2.8, her baseline being 0.8. UA shows 2+ protein, and 20 RBC/HPF.
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Renal biopsy
-There are 6 different classifications of lupus nephritis, and the management of each differs; therefore biopsy is essential for guiding treatment!
SU pg 239 says cytotoxic agents such as cylophosphamide can be used for active glomerulonephritis. Corticosteroids are used for acute exacerbations of lupus in general |
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Term
What is miliaria?
Who does it present in? |
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Definition
AKA heat rash, miliaria p/w superficial aggregated small vescicels, papules, or pustules over trunk, which are a/w burning and itching
Presents in people living in hot and moist climates |
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Term
What is the treatment for cellulitis? |
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Definition
Depends on the severity:
-Mild can be treated with PO anti-staph penicillines (oxicillin, dicloxicillin, naficillin)
-If systemic Sx present (f/c, rigors, confusion, malaise, fatigue) treat with IV anti-staph penicilins, such as IV naficillin |
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Term
How do you confirm the Dx of Dubin Johnson Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Either of the following:
1) Liver biopsy showing grossly black pigment
-This is 2/2 epinephrine metabolites w/in lysosomes
2) Unusually high levels of coproporphyrin I (normally ppl have higher coproporphyrin III) |
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Term
What is the criteria for placing an AF pt on anticoagulation?
|
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Definition
Pt must have a CHADS2 score >2:
CHF - 1 point
HTN - 1 point
Age >/= 75 - 1 point
DM - 1 point
Stroke (Hx of) - 2 points |
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Term
When do you prophylax against MAC in HIV pts?
How do you treat MAC? |
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Definition
Prophy when CD4 < 50 with azithromycin or clarithromycin
Treat with clarithromycin + ethambutol |
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Term
What types of anemias can you get with malignant lymphoproliferative disorders (including NHL and CLL)? |
|
Definition
1) Aplastic anemia 2/2 bone marrow suppression
-Tx with EPO?
2) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
-Tx with predinsone; if this doesn't work, then splenectomy |
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Term
Does lidocaine work in decreasing risk of VF in post-MI pts?
What's the problem with lidocaine in these pts? |
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Definition
-It does decrease risk of VF and PVCs
-Problem is it does not improve prognosis, and these pts have increased risk of asystole
-For this reason, lidocaine is NOT used for this purpose |
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Term
What are the 2 main causes of SVT, and how do they work?
What will you see on EKG in each? |
|
Definition
AV nodal re-entry tachycardia
-caused by re-entrant circuit within AV node
-EKG will show narrow QRS w/o discernible P-waves (b/c P-waves are buried w/in QRS
Atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia
-caused by accessory pathway some distance from AV node -> re-entrant circuit btwn atria ant ventricles (kind of like WPW)
-EKG will show narrow QRS w/ or w/o P waves
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Term
What is a hydatid liver cyst?
Who does it present in?
What can you see on CT scan?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Hydatid cysts are caused by infection of tapework Echinococcus granulosus or multilocularis
Presents in ppl in close contact with dogs, so beware of Hx of owning dogs, being a vet, etc.
CT may show eggshell calcifications
Tx - surgerical resection under the cover of albendazole |
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Term
What medication can you use in women with breast cancer that's ER/PR negative but Her2 positive?
What SE do you need to watch out for? |
|
Definition
Trastuzumab - monoclonal antibody against the EGF receptor that Her2 codes for
Trastuzumab with chemotherapy can lead to cardiotoxicity. Thus, an echochardiogram to assess baselinee cardiac function need to be done in these pts |
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Term
42 y/o female p/w 1 week intermittent hearing loss. She says she has been having episodes of vertigo, ringing in her ears, and ear fullness.
Dx?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Meniere's Disease
-results from actual build up of endolymph w/in inner ear
NSIM - have pt avoid triggers that increase endolymphatic retention (EtOH, caffeine, nicotine, and foods high in salt)
-if this doesn't work, you can perscribe diuretics |
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Term
What is Milk alkali syndrome? |
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Definition
Triad of hypercalcemia, metabolic alkylosis, and renal insufficiency a/w ingestion of large amounts of calcium and absorbable alkali for Tx of PUD |
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Term
What is a sensitive indicator of a pt's volume status? |
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Definition
BUN/creatinine ratio
-Though this is sensitive (good screening test), it is not sensitive |
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Term
What things on history and physical help differentiate benign from malignant lymphadenopathy (given LAN is non-tender)?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Benign
-Small </= 1 cm in diamter
-Rubbery
-Mobile
-NSIM: observation
Malignant
-Moderate-Large size, > 2 cm in diameter
-Firm
-Immobile
-NSIM: lymph node biopsy
Note: Small, rubbery lymph nodes are rarely pathologic and are often found in healthy kids and young adults |
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Term
Name 5 causes of an exudative pleural effusion.
Name 7 causes of a transudative pleural effusion. |
|
Definition
Exudative:
-Bacterial pneumonia, TB
-Malignancy, metastatic disease
-Viral infections
-Pulmonary embolism (can be transudative too)
-Collagen Vascular Disease
Transudative:
-CHF -Hypoalbuminemia
-Cirrhosis -Atelectasis
-Pulmonary Embolism (can be exudative too)
-Nephrotic syndrome
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Term
How does opiod withdrawal present?
How does the administration of methadone in the inpatient setting differ from outpatient? |
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Definition
-n/v, sweating, tachycardia, piloerection, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, restlessness, diarrhea +/- increased bowel sounds, abd pain, arthralgias, myalgias
-the DEA allows for unrestricted administration of methadone to a pt withdrawing from opiods in an inpatient setting, however the outpatient administration of methadone for chronic withdrawal is highly regulated
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Term
What will you find on histology of an apthous ulcer? |
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Definition
Shallow, fibrin coated ulceration with underlying mononuclear infiltrate |
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Term
How does calcinosis (of CREST syndrome, for example) present on physical exam? |
|
Definition
Subcutaneous pink-to-white nodules, typically in upper extremities
-They may ulcerate and drain chalky material
Calcinosis cutis is caused by localized dystrophic deposition of calcium in skin |
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Term
What is the main differential diagnosis for polyuria and polydypsia (5 things)? |
|
Definition
1. Diabetes Mellitus
2. Diabetes Insipidus
3. Psychogenic Polydypsia
4. Hyperparathyroidism
5. Hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome) |
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Term
Why do patients with Conn's Syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) have polyuria? |
|
Definition
Increased aldosterone results in:
-Na retention, but no appreciable hypernatremia 2/2 "aldosterone escape" (increased ANP)
-H+ and K+ excretion -> metabolic alkylosis (with resultant functional hypocalcemia) and hypokalemia
It's the hypokalemia that causes ADH resistance in kidney -> polyuria!
Note: Hypercalcemia can also cause ADH resistance
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Term
82 y/o male with DM and HTN comes in b/c of progressively worsening blurry vision for 6 months. He says he can barely go about his day b/c of it. He complains of problems with nighttime driving, and glare. Pt has a 40 pack year Hx of smoking, but denies EtOH use.
Most likely Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Cataract
Tx - Lense extraction is definitive treatment
-Indicated if vision loss is significant, and interferes with daily activities |
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Term
82 y/o male with Hx of DM and HTN comes in for annual check up. Vitals are nml, and he has no complaints. Fundoscopic exam shows cupping of optic disk. Visual field exam reveals constricted peripheral vision.
Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - primary open angle glaucoma
Tx - Beta-blocker eye drops such as Timolol |
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Term
When do you drain pancreatic pseudocyst? |
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Definition
When cyst becomes >5 cm
If <5 cm, then observation is NSIM |
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Term
23 y/o female comes in b/c of itching in her hands, arms and breasts. Exam shows pruritic vesciles and pustiles in "runs" over finger webs, heels of palms, wrist creases, and nipple and areola.
Dx? How do you Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Scabes
-To Dx, examination of scrapings form excoriated lesions under light microscopy needs to be done -> mites, ova, and/or feces may be found
Tx - topical 5% permethrin +/- steroids (for dermaitits) |
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Term
What physical exam finding is diagnostic of body lice infestation? |
|
Definition
Maculae caerulea
-faint bluish-grey spots found in periphery of axialla and/or groin
-hemosiderin-stained purpuric spots where lice have fed |
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Term
What is the pathophysiology behind a Baker's cyst?
|
|
Definition
Excessive synovial fluid production by inflamed synovium
-Seen in RA (most common), OA, and cartilage tears |
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Term
What is the Tx for fibromyalgia? |
|
Definition
TCAs
-At low doses, they've been shown to provide increase in restorative stage 4 sleep
Cyclobenzaprine (flexeril), a mm relaxant, has also shown to be efficatious
SSRIs are particularly helpful in pts who also have depression |
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Term
What is the treatment for acute gout? |
|
Definition
NSAIDs
-If pt cannot take or doesn't respond to NSAIDs, then colchicine can be used
-If colchicine doesn't work, then corticosteroids can be used |
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Term
In pts undergoing COPD exacerbation, what type of ventilation should they be placed on? |
|
Definition
Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation
-Shown to be a/w less barotrauma than invasive (require intubation) positive pressure ventilation
-Should be done if:
-pH<7.35
-pCO2>45
-RR>25
It's contraindicated in: sepsis, hypotension, and dysrhythmias |
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Term
Are heterophile antibody test sensitive and specific for infectious mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
Yes!
They typically appear 1 week after onset of Sx, and may persist in low levels for up to one year
-For this reason, a negative heterphile antibody test does not r/o Dx of IM |
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Term
23 y/o male p/w severely pruritic lesions on hands, knees and feet. Exam shows serpigenous, reddish brown, elevated lesions bilaterally on upper and lower extremities. He says 2 weeks ago he was visiting his parents in Miami, but denies travel outside the country.
Dx?
|
|
Definition
Cutaneous larve migrans
-Hx of travel to South Eastern US, especially if pt walked on the beach, raises suspicion b/c Ancylostoma braziliense (hookwork causing this) infects hosts through skin contact with soil contaminated w/ dog or cat feces containing infected larvae
-Initially, lesions appear as multiple pruritic, erythematous papules that develop at site of larval entry, followed by severely pruritic, elevated, serpiginous, reddish brown lesions on skin |
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Term
32 y/o female is brought in b/c of sudden onset confusion and fever. She has never had an episode like this before. She was admitted to hospital 2 months ago for hallucinations, and was discharged home in stable cond'n. T 101/6, BP 150/100, HR 112, RR 24. Mucus membranes are dry. Profuse diaphoresis is present. Abdominal mm are rigid, and mm tone in all 4 extremities is increased. Tremor is noted.
Dx? |
|
Definition
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
-caused by "typical" anti-neuroleptic agents (haloperidol most commonly)
-typically seen w/in 2 weeks of initiation of precipitating drug
-Myoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis can cause renal failure!
-may also see autonomic instability, leukocytosis, and electrolyte abnormalities
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Term
What is the goal INR for pts with Hx of DVT or PE?
In what conditions/situations would you want an even higher INR? |
|
Definition
-Goal INR is 2-3 for pts with Hx of DVT or PE
-Pts with the following need INR of 2.5-3.5
-prosthetic mechanical heart valve
-prophylaxis for recurrent MI
-treatment of antiphospholipid antibody synd.
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Term
What CSF finding might you see in a pt with Multiple Sclerosis?
|
|
Definition
Oligoclonal Bands of IgG (although IgM and IgA are also increased)
This is a non-specific finding and is not diagnostic of MS!!!
To Dx MS, you should get an MRI |
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Term
How can you prevent contrast-induced nephropathy? |
|
Definition
1) Give non-ionic contrast agents as they've been shown to decrease incidence of contrast nephropathy compared to older ionic hyperosmolar agents
2) IVF
Note: Statins may benefit in preventing CIN as they improve endothelial function and reduce oxidative stress, but are not routinely given prior to contrast infusion. NSAIDs should be d/c'd before giving contrast. |
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Term
38 y/o African American female p/w mild sob, and painful erethematous of her shins for months. CXR shows bilateral hilar adenopathy.
Dx?
How do you Dx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Sarcoidosis
To Dx - perform mediastinal bronchoscopy and obtain tissue for biopsy
Symptomatic pts require steroids |
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Term
How do you differentiate restrictive from obstructive lung diseases based on spirometry?
Once you've narrowed it down to either of the two, what test(s) do you do to further narrow down the Dx?
Qid 4863 |
|
Definition
Obstructive - low FEV1/FVC
-Perform a bronchodilator challenge
-If FEV1 increases -> asthma
-If no change in FEV1 -> COPD
Restrictive - normal or high FEV1/FVC (low VC)
-Assess DLCO
-If DLCO is normal -> Chest wall thickness
-If DLCO is low -> Interstitial lung disease |
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Term
If RBCs are coated with _____ on Direct Coombs test, then Dx is warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
If RBCs are coated with _____ on DC, then Dx is cold AIHA.
How is each treated? |
|
Definition
IgG - Warm -Causes: SLE, CLL, NHL, methyldopa, PCN
-Tx - Corticosteroids (first-line), rituximab (CD-20 antibody), splenectomy
Complement or IgM - Cold -Causes: Plasmacytomas (MM, MGUS, Waldendrom's)
-Tx - warm the body, RBC transfusions. NOT responsive to corticosteroids |
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Term
35 y/o male comes in with increasing sob. He has a Hx of chronic sinitis, otitis media, and mastoiditis. Temp is 101, HR 110, BP 110/70. Exam shows patch rales. CXR shows multiple nodular densities bilaterally. Creatinine is 2.7, and UA shows RBC casts.
Dx?
What might you see on biopsy of lung?
Tx?
|
|
Definition
Dx - Wegener's Granulomatosis
-Biopsy may show necrotizing granulomas
-Recall C-ANCA is marker for disease
Tx - Cyclophosphamide and Corticosteroids
Note: Wegener's is MCC of saddle nose deformity in US. It commonly results in perforated nasal septum. |
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Term
How do you usually make the Dx of Amebic Liver Abscess? |
|
Definition
Serologic testing (IgG enzyme immunoassay)
However, once a CT abd shows cysts and clinical suspicion is high, you can start metronidazol even before the serologic test is back
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Term
What is the Tx of a pyogenic liver abscess? |
|
Definition
IV AbX and percutaneous drainage of abscess |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the greatest RF for develping a diabetic foot ulcer?
A) diabetic neuropathy
B) peripheral vascular disease |
|
Definition
A) diabetic neuropathy
-By decreasing pain sensation and perception of pressure -> pt is less aware of pressure damage to extremities
Peripheral vascular disease is less strong of a RF than diabetic neuropathy
-Poor blood supply prevents adequate healing
-Ulcers occur on tips of fingers rather than pressure points
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|
|
Term
What antibodies are associated with the following?
1) Autoimmune Hepatitis
2) Primary Biliary Sclerosis
3) Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
|
|
Definition
1) AIH - anti-smooth muscle, anti-LMK
2) PBS - anti-mitochondrial
3) PSC - atypical p-ANCA, and hypergammaglobulinemia |
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|
Term
What are the 3 MC drugs used as anti-emetics? |
|
Definition
1) Ondansetron (zofran) - seratonin (5HT3) antagonist
-Powerful antiemetic used for post-op and chemo
2) Scopolamine patch - anticholinergic
3) Metachlopramide/prochlorperazine - dopamine antagonist |
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Term
What are the only 3 therapies proven to prolong survival in COPD pts? |
|
Definition
1) Smoking cessation
2) Supplemental O2
3) Lung Reduction surgery
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Term
What are the best ways to biopsy peripheral vs central lung lesions?
|
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Definition
central - bronchoscopy
peripheral - CT-guided |
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Term
A 50 y/o male is brought in b/c of confusion. He admits to overdosing in a suicide attempt. Temp 100, BP 130/80, P 100. He has dry mucus membranes. Lungs are CTAB, and heart is RRR no m/g/fr. Abd exam shows reduced bowel sounds w/o tenderness. Foley is placed and collects 600 ml over 1 hr.
Dx? Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Diphenhydramine poisoning!
Recall, diphenhydramine (anti-histamine) has:
-anti-cholinergic properites - confusion, decreased bowel motility, dry mouth, dilated pupils, blurred vision, urinary retention
Tx - physostigmine - cholinesterase inhibitor which reverses all it's effects, including CNS effects (b/c it crosses BBB) |
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Term
What are the current recommendations regarding PSA testing as screening for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
It is very controversial!!!
-USPSTF does not recommend screening as it doesn't save lives and places pt at unnecessary risk for pain, impotence, and incontinence
-American Cancer Society and American Urological Association do recommend screening in conjunction with DRE in men btwn 40-75 w/ a life expectancy of at least 10 years
Regardless UW says if you're given the option of PSA vs other invasive means of evaluating for prostate cancer (transrectal U/S, biopsy, etc., always chose PSA testing. |
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Term
When does the vision loss of retinal vein occlusion typically occur?
Is it bilateral or unilateral? |
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Definition
Typically occurs upon waking in the morning.
It is unilateral. |
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Term
How can you differentiate post-streptococcal GN from IgA Nephropathy as a cause of post-URI hematuria? |
|
Definition
Differentiate them based on latent period btwn infection and onset of hematuria, as well as the level of complement in serum:
1) PSGN - latent period for pharyngitis is ~10 days, and impetigo ~21 days. Serum complement here is low
2) IgA Nephropathy - latent period is ~5 days. Serum complement here is normal |
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Term
30 y/o female p/w muscle pain, swelling, tenderness, and weakness. She says 3 weeks ago she had a bout of severe abdominal pain, n/v, and diarrhea, which lasted for 1 week. She also notes that a week later she had significant eye pain. Exam shows periorbital edema, chemosis, and conjunctival/retinal hemorrhages. Her finger nails have splinter hemorrhages.
Dx?
|
|
Definition
Trichinosis - parasitic infection caused by a roundworm. There are 3 phases:
-Phase 1 - larval invasion of intestinal wall -> abd pain, n/v, diarrhea
-Phase 2 - local/systemic hypersensitivity rxn -> splinter hemorrhages, conjunctival and retinal hemorrhages, periorbital edema, chemosis
-Phase 3 - larvae enter mm -> mm tenderness, swelling, and weakness. Blood count shows eosinophilia
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Term
How does Ascariasis present?
How od you treat it? |
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Definition
-Initially p/w lung phase where pt has non-productive cough
-This is followed by an asymptomatic intestinal phase. Pt may have signs of obstruction of small bowel or biliary system though
Tx - albendazole, mebendazole, or pyrantel pamoate
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Term
Name a way to distinguish between rotator cuff tendonitis vs rotator cuff tear? |
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Definition
Pain of rotator tendonitis will get better with lidocaine injection, whereas with rotator cuff tear it won't.
Note: Adhesive Capsulitis (aka frozen shoulder) is an idiopathic cond'n characterized by pain and contracture of shoulder. Pt cannot lift arm overhead, and pain doesn't improve w/ injection of lidocaine b/c of fibrosis of shoulder capsule |
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Term
What is the NSIM for a pt with a thyroid nodule on physical exam?
Qid 3484 |
|
Definition
Get a TSH
-Elevated or normal TSH suggests cold nodule -> thyroid U/S
-If benign appearing -> routine surveillance
-If malignant appearing -> FNA
-Low TSH suggests hot nodule (rarely malignant) -> radionucleid thyroid scan |
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Term
What is the initial test to distinguish between Diabetes insipidus and psychogenic polydipsia? |
|
Definition
Water deprivation test
-If pt can't concentrate urine -> DI
-If pt can concentrate urine (i.e. urine osm goes up) -> psychogenic polydipsia |
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Term
What is the treatment for lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Name 2 treatments for central DI. |
|
Definition
Lithium induced DI: Amiloride
Central DI: intranasal demopression (DDAVP), and chlorpropamide (increases ADH secretion and effect) |
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Term
What radiographic findings of the hand might suggest hemochromatosis-associated arthropathy?
Qid 4110 |
|
Definition
Squared off-bone ends and hook-like osteophytes in the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints |
|
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Term
How does cyclosporine effect the following?
1) Kidney 2) CV system
3) CNS 4) Endocrine system
5) Dentition 6) GI
Qid 3980
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|
Definition
1) Kidney - reversible or irreversible renal failure. Hyperuricemia -> accelerated gout, hyperkalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia
2) CV - HTN 2/2 renal vasoconstriction -> Na retention
3) CNS - HA, visual disturbances, tremor, akinetic mutism
4) Endocrine - glucose intolerance (esp. if pt is on corticossteroid)
5) Dentition - gingival hyperplasia
6) GI - anorexia, n/v, diarrhea
7) Others include: hirsutism, increased susceptibility to infection, increased risk of malignancy (esp. SCC and lymphoproliferative diseases) |
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Term
What are the side effects of Tacrolimus? |
|
Definition
Similar to that of cyclosporine except it doesn't cause hirsutism or gum hypertrophy. It causes:
-nephorotoxicy, including hyperkalemia
-neurotoxicity
-diarrhea
-glucose intoelerance |
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Term
What is myocphenolate and how does it owrk?
What is the major SE a/w it? |
|
Definition
Its an inhibitor of isosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH), the rate-limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis
Major toxicity of mycophenolate is bone marrow suppression |
|
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Term
What is the treatment of choice and 2nd line Tx for cluster headaches?
Prophylaxis of choice? |
|
Definition
Treatment of choice - 100% O2
-It's most rapid acting and effective in aborting an acute attack
2nd Line Tx - intranasal sumatriptan
Prophy - Verapamil taken daily
2nd Line Prophy - Ergotamine, lithium, steroids |
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Term
What are some of the first activities that are effected by age related macular degeneration?
What vision test can you do to help with Dx? |
|
Definition
Driving and reading since they both required fine visual acuity.
The grid test his helpful in Dx b/c one fo the earliest signs of the disease is the distortion of straight lines such that they appear wavy |
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Term
Which types of kidney stones do you prevent by alkylinizing the urine?
How do you alkylinize the urine? |
|
Definition
All types of stones EXCEPT struvite. These include:
-Calcium stones
-Uric acid stones (these are radiolUcent) - main Tx of urate stones is alkylinization of urine with potassium citrate
-Cystine stones
Alkylinize by giving KCO3 or potassium citrate |
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Term
Is calcium-restricted diet beneficial in preventing calcium and/or urate stones (why/why not)? |
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Definition
No it doesn't prevent these stones
-In fact, calcium restriction can cause potential negative calcium balance and hyperoxaluria 2/2 consequent increased GI absorption of oxalate |
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Term
What's the pathophysiology behind hyposthenuria (inability of kidneys to concentrate urine) in pts with sickle cell disease and trait?
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Definition
Results from RBC sickling in the vasa rectae of the inner medulla (2/2 very low oxygen tension) -> impairs counter current exchange and free water reabsorption |
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Term
23 y/o male p/w with fever, drenching sweats, and malaise. Vitals are Temp 103, HR 106, and BP 110/60. Exam shows jaundice and dark-colored urine. He denies any recent sick contacts, but does admit to going on a camping trip in Connecticut 2 weeks ago. Labs show anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, elevated ESR, and abn LFTs.
Dx? How do you Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Babesiosis
How to Dx - definitive Dx is made by Giemsa-stained thick and thin blood smear
Tx - either quinine-clindamycin and atovaquone-azithromycine |
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Term
What is Ehrlichiosis?
How does it present? |
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Definition
Ehrlichiosis (aka "spotless" Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever) is a tick-bourne disease that causes n/v, HA, fever, and malaise
-Labs show leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
-Unlike Babesiosis, hemolytic anemia is not common |
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Term
What is Q fever caused by?
How is it transmitted?
How does it present?
|
|
Definition
Caused by Coxiella burnetii
Transmitted by infected cattle, goat, and sheep
-Ppl at risk include meat processing workers and veterinarians
P/W flu-like syndrome, hepatitis, or pneumonia |
|
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Term
What is ichthyosis?
What can cause it to flare up?
Qid 2754 |
|
Definition
Ichthyosis - dry, thick, scaly, flaky skin that resembles scales of a fish (ichthys is Greek for fish)
-Flares up in winter months b/c of increased dryness
-In kids, there's relative sparing of face and diaper area |
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Term
How does beta-blocker toxicity present?
What's the first-line treatment for beta-blocker |
|
Definition
Beta-1 - bradycardia, hypotension
Beta-2 - wheezing, hypoglycemia (decreased gluconeogenesis)
Tx:
-Atropine and IV fluids (first-line)
-Glucagon (second-line) - works by increasing cAMP and intracullular calcium -> increasing cardiac contractility
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Term
What must you do to evaluate diarrhea in any HIV-positive pt? |
|
Definition
Get stool culture, exam for ova and parasites, and C. difficile toxin before starting AbX
-This is b/c infectious diarrhea in HIV pts has many causes, so it's important to get the etiology first before treatment |
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Term
What bone abnormality can be seen in hypervitaminosis A? |
|
Definition
Abundant mineralization of the periosteum |
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Term
Retinal hamartomas are a/w what disorder?
Iris hamartomas are a/w what disorder? |
|
Definition
Retinal hamartomas are a/w Tuberous Sclerosis
-May also see adenoma sebacium, cardiac rhabodmyoma, angiomyolipoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, MR, "ash-leaf spots," and shagreen patches
Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) are a/w Neurfibromatosis I
-May lso see Cafe au lait spots, neurofibroma in skin, optic glioma, pheochromocytoma |
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Term
What is the main management for kidney stones?
|
|
Definition
1) Analgesia: IV morphine or parenteral NSAIDs (ladder is prefered in pts with normal kidney function b/c narcotics increase n/v a/w stones)
2) Vigerous fluid hydration if stone is <5mm in diameter
-Beneficial in all forms of kidney stones
-If stone(s) is 5mm - 2cm -> lithotripsy
-If stone(s) is >2cm -> percutaneous nephrolithotomy |
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Term
What is the underlying pathophysiology behind tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)? |
|
Definition
Degeneration of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon 2/2 repeated extension and supination (backhand tennis, use of screwdriver) |
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Term
How does uveitis present? |
|
Definition
Blurred vision w/ moderate pain, conjunctival injection, and constricted pupils. In severe cases, you may see hypopyon.
Keratic precipitates ("mutton fat") and iris nodules may be seen. |
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Term
Name the 4 different cancers of the thyroid, and order from most to least common. |
|
Definition
-Papillary carcinoma (70%, best prognosis)
-Follicular carcinoma (20%, bypasses the LN and goes straight to vasculature)
-Anaplastic carcinoma (5%, worst prognosis)
-Medullary carcinoma (2%, cancer of parafollicular cells [C-cells]) |
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Term
What finding on Urine Microscopy will help you differentiate between papillary necrosis and glomerular injury? |
|
Definition
Glomerular injury will more likely cause deformed RBCs, significant proteinuria and casts.
Papillary necrosis will more likely cause unchanged RBCs. |
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Term
What's the definition of neutropenic fever?
How do you treat it?
What if fever persists for 4-5 days despite the above treatment?
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|
Definition
NF - absolute neutrophil count <1,500/mm3
-Once ANC drops below 500/mm3 there's a severe risk of infection with even nml flora
Tx - broad spectrum AbX AFTER blood Cx are drawn
-Monotherapy - consists of ceftazidime (3rd gen), cefepime (4th gen), imipenem, meropenem
-Combination - aminoglycoside + antipseudomonal beta-lactam
-Persistent fever despite AbX requires antifungal agents such as IV amphotericin B. Consider G-CSF
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Term
What must a vaccine have in it to be able to elicit a T-cell-dependent B-cell response?
Name some examples of vaccines that do this. |
|
Definition
The vaccine must have a peptide conjugated to it. Peptides, not polysaccarides, get presented to T-cells by macrophages and B-cells
Examples include TdAP vaccine b/c the toxoid is a peptide. Many other vaccines are coupled to these bacterial toxins to elicit a T-cell dependent B cell response |
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Term
When is carotid endarterectomy indicated?
When is medical management of carotid artery stenosis indicated? |
|
Definition
-For "symptomatic" carotid stenosis of 50-99% and low surgical risk, and good 5 yr predicted survival
-For "asymptomatic" carotid stenosis of 60-99% and low surgical risk, and good 5 yr predicted survival
-If pt has a lesion that is less than 50%, then medical therapy with aspirin and statins is indicated |
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Term
What is an alternative to CEA (aside from medical management)?
When is the alternative NOT indicated? |
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Definition
-Alternative to CEA is carotid angioplasty with stenting. This is done if pts has high surgical risk, poor 5 yr predicted survival, or has Hx of radiation to neck
-Angioplasty is NOT indicated as an alternative in asymptomatic patients
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Term
How do pts with porphyria cutanea tarda present?
What infection is it a/w?
What can trigger it?
How do you Dx it?
How do you Tx it?
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|
Definition
-P/W painless blisters and increased fragility of the dorsal surfaces of hands, facial hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.
-PCT is a/w Hepatitis C infection
-Triggered by ingestion of ethanol, estrogen, and phenobarbitol
-Dx by measuring increased urinary porphyrin
-Tx by phlebotomy or hydroxycholoquine |
|
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Term
What radiographic findings will you see in:
1) Osteosarcoma
2) Giant cell tumor
3) Ewings Sarcoma |
|
Definition
1) Osteosarcoma - Codman's triangle and a sunburst appearance
2) Giant cell tumor - "soap bubble appearance"
3) Ewings Sarcoma - "onion skinning" |
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Term
How does necrotizing fasciitis present?
Are there typically systemic Sx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
-P/W sudden onset pain and swelling at site of trauma or recent surgery. As cond'n progresses, there is purplish discoloration w/ gangrenous changes
-Signs of systemic toxicity (e.g. fever, hypotension) may be present
-High flow oxygen, fluid resuscitation, and broad spectrum AbX
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Term
What's the NSIM of a female pt who over a 3 month span rapidly develops hirsutism and virulization? |
|
Definition
Get a serum testosterone and DHEAS to differntiate if the androgens are ovarian (testosterone) or adrenal (DHEAS)
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Term
Name as many of the 13 things that a newly Dx'd pt with HIV should get. |
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Definition
1) Detailed H&P
2) Routine chemistry and hematology
3) Two plasma HIV RNA levels
4) CD4 count
5) VDRL test for syphilis
6) PPD skin test
7) Anti-Toxoplasma antibody titer
8) Mini Mental Status Exam
9) Pneumococcal vaccine, unless CD4 < 200
10) Hep A and B serology
11) Hep A and B vaccine, if seronegative
12) HIV counceling
13) Info and assistance for those who might have been infected by the subject |
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Term
A 50 y/o male comes in with severe abdominal pain, voming and fever. His vitals are T 101.4, BP 130/88, HR 88. He has had several episodes of nonbilious/nonbloody vomiting. He admits to drinking 8 beers/night, over the last 2 nights drank even more heavily. He is positive for anti-HBs Abs and anti-HAV Abs. Physical exam shows maked scleral icteris and jaundice.
Most likely Dx?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - Severe alcoholic hepatitis
Tx - predinsone
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Term
What are the 4 cardinal symptoms of restless leg syndrome? |
|
Definition
1) Uncomfortable sensation or urge to move legs
2) Discomfort which worsens in evening or during sleep
3) Discomfort which worsens at rest
4) Discomfort alleviated by movement of affected limb(s) |
|
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Term
What 2 diseases is restless leg syndrome a/w?
What is the mechanism RLS?
Tx? |
|
Definition
-A/W Chronic Kidney Disease and Iron Deficiency Anemia
-Mechanism involves abn of dopaminergic transmission in CNS
-Tx - dopaminergic agonists (e.g. pramipexol and ropinerol) or levodopa |
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Term
What is the management for uncomplicated pyelonephritis?
|
|
Definition
A urine and blood Cx then a single dose of ceftriaxone or gentamycin (these are parenteral).
Once Urine Cx is done and AbX susceptibility is back 48-72 hrs later, switch to PO AbX according to susceptibility
-Drugs of choice (depending on if bacteria are susceptible) are TMP-SMX and fluoroquinolones (for Gram neg), and Amoxicillin (for Gram pos)
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Term
What are the 4 stages of syphilis?
When does each one occur from the time of initial infection? |
|
Definition
Primary - painless chancre, heals in 4 weeks
Secondary - maculopapular rash that spreads from trunk to extremities (including palms and soles), develops 4-8 weeks after chancre healed
Latent - defined by positive serology but absence of clinical signs/Sx
Tertiary - CV syphilis, neurosyphilis, and gummas (subQ granulomas), can occur up to 40 years after initial infection |
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Term
Name two eye diseases where the patient may complain that a "curtain came down over their eye." |
|
Definition
Amorosis Fugaux and Retinal Detatchment |
|
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Term
What are some red flags (8) to watch out for in pts with back pain that would indicate getting an X-ray? |
|
Definition
1) Age > 50
2) Hx of cancer
3) WL
4) Pain for >1 month
5) Nighttime pain causing difficulty w/ sleep
6) No response to previous therapy
7) Neurologic Sx
8) Lack of exacerbation w/ movement |
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Term
What 4 conditions should you suspect in a pt w/ hypokalemia, alkylosis and normotension? |
|
Definition
1) Surreptitious vomiting
2) Diuretic abuse
3) Bartter syndrome
4) Gitelman's syndrome
The latter 2 are inherited diseases that result in a defect in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle |
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Term
How does the hematuria of papillary ischemia/necrosis differ from glomerulopathy? |
|
Definition
In glomerulopathy, there will be dysmorphic RBCs, and RBC casts
In papillary necrosis (as in DM, SS trait, analgeic abuse), the RBCs are unchanged |
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Term
How would you describe the skin lesions of tinea corporis?
How about pityriasis rosea?
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|
Definition
Tinea corporis - ring-shaped scaly patches w/ central clearing and distinct borders
Pityriasis rosea - numerous, oval, scaly plaques which follow the cleavage lines of the trunk. The centers of the lesion have a crinkled, cigarette paper-like appearance. Initially presents as a herald patch |
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Term
40 y/o male comes in b/c of increasing abdominal pain, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. Exam shows R-hand clumbsiness and some memory loss. His labs are significant for Hb 8.5 and Creatinine 2.1.
Dx?
|
|
Definition
Lead poisoning!
Typically p/w:
-GI symptoms including abd pain and constipation
-Nephropathy (chronic form of interstitial nephritis)
-Sideroblastic anemia -> fatigue
-Neurologic symptoms including memory loss, difficulty concentrating, and peripheral neuropaty (typically exensor mm weakness) |
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Term
What do you see on histologic exam of liver in pts with acetaminophen toxicity? |
|
Definition
Centrilobular or diffuse necrosis |
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Term
Name 8 causes of bile ductopenia. |
|
Definition
1) Primary biliary cirrhosis (MCC)
2) Failing liver transplant
3) Hodgkins disease
4) G v H disease
5) Sarcoid
6) CMV infection
7) HIV
8) Medication toxicity |
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Term
What's the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
What if the region has known resistance to that drug, what drug do you then use?
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|
Definition
-DOC for chemoprophylaxis - chloroquine
-DOC for chloroquine-resistant regions - melfoquine
-Regions known to be chloroquine-resistant P. falciprum include sub-Saharan Africa and Indian sub-continent (India, Pakistan, Bangladesh)
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Term
What anti-malarial drug is used in regions known to harbor P. vivax and ovale, and why? |
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Definition
Primiquine - destroys the dormant form of vivax and ovale, which reside as hypnozoites in the liver |
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Term
What is an important clinical difference between PTH and PTH-like peptide? |
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Definition
PTH-like peptide does not activate 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme in peritubular cells of PCT, thus does not cause increased active VitD |
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Term
What are the 5 Hs and 5 Ts of causes of pulseless electrical activity? |
|
Definition
H: hypovolemia, hypoxia, H+, hypoglycemia, hypo/hyperthermia
T: tampenade, tension pneumo, thrombus (MI, PE), trauma (hypovolemia), tablets (drugs), toxins |
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Term
What's the management of:
1) Mild-Moderate hyponatremia (120-130)
2) Severe or Symptomatic hyponatremia (<12)) |
|
Definition
1) Mild-Moderate - fluid restriction
-If pt has difficulty w/ water restriction or water restriction doesn't correct it, give pt demeclocyclin
2) Severe or Symptomatic - hypertonic saline at a rate of 0.5-1.0 mEq/L/hr until Sx improve
-Don't increase sodium more than 8 mmol/L during first 24 hrs! |
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Term
What are the most common type of kindey stone?
What do they look like under microscopy? |
|
Definition
Calcium oxalate stones
-Comprise up to 75-90% of all kidney stones
-Are "enevelope" shaped stones |
|
|
Term
What population is it recommended to give the HepA vaccine to? |
|
Definition
-Those living in endemic areas
-Those with chronic liver disease
-Those with clotting factor disorders
-Men who have sex with men |
|
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Term
What is the main way to distinguish between an exudative vs a transudative cause of ascites? |
|
Definition
Serum Ascites Albumin Gradient (SAAG):
-Calculated by: Albuminserum - Albuminascites
-A difference of >/= 1.1 g/dL is 95% accurate in diagnosing a transudative process |
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|
Term
62 y/o male comes in with sudden onset of severe dyspnea and R-sided chest discomfort. He was walking up the stairs to his appartment when suddenly started feeling sob. He has a 45 pack year Hx of smoking, but denies drinking or drug use. Exam shows trace ankle edema, decreased breath sound on R-chest, and scattered wheezes on L-chest.
Most likely Dx? |
|
Definition
Spontaneous pneumothorax
-Recall that smokers have increased risk of spontaneous pneumothorax b/c of the destruction of alvoelar sacs -> formation of large alveolar blebs (generally upper lobes), which eventually rupture and leak into pleural space |
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|
Term
What does generalizability mean with respect to a clinical study?
|
|
Definition
-Generalizability (aka external validity) - applicability of the obtained results beyond the cohort that was studied |
|
|
Term
What is observer bias?
What is confounding bias?
How do you control for these? |
|
Definition
Observer bias - occurs with investigator's decision is adversely affected by knowledge of the exposure status of individuals
-Double blinding controls for this
Confounding bias - occurs when the effect of 1 factor (age, gender, socioeconomic status, etc) distorts or confuses the effect of another
-There are 3 ways of controling for confounding bias:
1) Matching - selection of matching variables such athe both groups have a similar distribution in accordance w/ the variables
2) Restriction
3) Randomization - purpose is to balance factors taht can influence the estimate of association btwn treatment and palcebo so the unconfounded effect of the exposure of interest can be isolated. It is better than matching b/c it controls for unknown or diffuclt-to-measure confounders (level of stress, SES)
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Term
|
Definition
Respondent Bias - when outcome is obtained by the pt's response to therapy rather than by objective diagnostic methods |
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|
Term
What is recall bias?
What is selection bias? |
|
Definition
Recall bias - results from inaccurate recall of past exposure by pts. Applicable in case-control study
Selection bias - results from nonrandom assignment of individuals to a study group.
-For example, if you wanted to what the average BP was, and went on to take BP from people coming out of a gym. This would NOT accurately reflect the average BP of the population in general
-Control for this by chosing a representative sample of the population for the study and achieving high raes of flollow up
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|
Term
What is susceptibility bias? |
|
Definition
Susceptibility bias - when treatment regiman is selected for a pt based on severity of their condition, w/o taking into account other possible confounding variables
-Example: If you are looking at the long term CV effects of CABG vs medical therapy, and 20% of the ppl in the medical therapy group go on to have a CABG anyway, this study has susceptibility bias (b/c 20% of the medical therapy group were treated according to severity of their disease and not based on what group they were assigned to in the study)
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Term
What is measurement bias? |
|
Definition
Measurement bias - misclassificaiton of outcome and/or exposure (e.g. labelling disease group as non-disease group). This is related to poor study design |
|
|
Term
What is the attributable risk percent?
How do you calculate it? |
|
Definition
ARP (aka etiologic fraction) represents the excess risk in a population that can be explained by exposure to a pathologic factor
-It's measures the impact risk factor has on statistical outcome of disease
ARP = (relative risk - 1)/relative risk |
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|
Term
What are you evaluating in a cross sectional study? What does the test allow you to extrapolate?
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|
Definition
Cross Sectional - you're looking at who has and doesn't have diseae (prevalance); at the same time you're assessing factors that might be a/w the disease. Later, in a case-control study, you're examining if these factors cause disease
-It allows you to extrapolate prevlance odds ratio (odds ratio beibng the odds of you having had an exposure given your disease status--it does NOT imply causality)
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Term
What are you evaluating in a case control study?
What does the study allow you to extrapolate? |
|
Definition
Case control - loking back in time and comparing those with disease (case) to those w/o disease (control) with respect to the presence or absence of a risk factor. That risk factor was identified using a cross sectional study.
-It allows you to extrapolate causailty and exposure odds ratio (odds ratio being the odds that you were exposed to a certain risk factor given your disease status) |
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Term
What is a cohort study evaluating?
What does it allow you to extrapolate? |
|
Definition
Cohort - looking forward in time and comparing those with a risk factor to those w/o a risk factor to see if there's a difference in development of disease
-This allows us to extrapolate incidence
-Comparing the incidence btwn the 2 groups allows us to determine relative risk (relative probability of getting a disease in an exposed group compared to unexposed group |
|
|
Term
How do you determine incidence? |
|
Definition
To determine incidence, subjects w/o the disease must be followed over a period of time to discover how many subjects develop said disease |
|
|
Term
What is relative risk?
How do you determine relative risk from the following table:
Disease Status
+ -
Risk factor + | a b
- | c d |
|
Definition
Relative risk - relative probability of getting a disease in an exposed group compared to an unexposed group
-Note: you can't calculate RR from a case-control study b/c the subjects in the study already have the disease
RR = a/(a+b) - c/(c+d) |
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Term
What does a correlation coefficient assess?
What is the null value of a cc? |
|
Definition
-It assesses the strength and direction of a linear relationship btwn two variables. It does NOT imply causality!
-Null value of a corelation coefficient is 0
-Correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1
-The closer the cc approaches either of these margins the stronger the association. Whether or not cc is negative or positive determins what direction the assocation is |
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Term
What is the absolute risk reduction?
How do you calcualte it? |
|
Definition
ARR is the reduction in risk a/w a treatment as compared to placebo
ARR = Event Rate control - Event Rate treatment |
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|
Term
What is the number needed to treat?
How do you calculate it?
|
|
Definition
NNT is the number of subjects that need to be treated in order to prevent one adverse outcome
NNT = 1/ ARR = 1/ (Event Rate cntrl - Event Rate Tx) |
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|
Term
Which of the following is most effected by outlier values:
1) Mean
2) Median
3) Mode |
|
Definition
The mean is the most effected by outliers; the median is much less likely effected; the mode is NOT effected
Recall: from the peak of the hill outward, the order goes mode, median, mean (reverse alphabetical) |
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Term
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Definition
Hazard ratio is the ratio of an event rate occurring in the treatment group compared to an event rate occuring in the non-treatment group
-i.e. HR = Event Rate tx : Event Rate cntrl
-The higher the ratio, the more likely the factor is a/w the incidence of an outcome
Note: ARR = Event Rate cntrl - Event rate tx |
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|
Term
How is a parallel-group studies constructed?
|
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Definition
1) Parallel-groups - randomizes one treatment to one group and a different Tx to another group (such as Tx of drug to one group vs placebo to another group) |
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Term
How is a cross-over study constructed? |
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Definition
Cross-over study is where group of participants is randomized to one Tx for a period of time and the other group is given an larternative Tx for same period of time. At the end of the time period, the two groups then switch treatments for another set period of time
-The first half of this definition is identical to a parallel study |
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Term
How is a factorial design study constructed?
Qid 7689 |
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Definition
A factorial design invlolves 2 or more experimental interventions, each with 2 or more variables that are studied independently
-Example: say you're studying the incidence of hyperkalemia with different blood pressure medications. A factorial design study may look at incidence of hyperkalemia in different groups (ppl on no meds vs ACE-I vs HCTZ vs beta-blockers), while at the same time stratifying each of these groups in to hightly controlled vs not tightly controlled BP |
|
|
Term
What are pretest probabilities?
Which does the pretest probability effect:
-sensitivity/specificity
-positive/negative predictive value
Qid 4189 |
|
Definition
The subjective probabilities of the presence of a condition before a diagnostic test
-Examples include a person's age, gender, family history of the disease. These factors determine a pt's risk status for having the disease being tested, placing them in either a high risk (high prevalance), moderate risk, or low risk (low prevalance) group
-Note: prevelance of disease is directly related to pre-test probability of having a disease; both of these effect PPV and NPV
Pretest probability affects PPV/NPV, NOT sensitivity and specificity |
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Term
Are positive and negative predictive value affected by prevelance? |
|
Definition
Yes! In fact, you need prevelance to calculate PPV and NPV
-Prevelance is directly related to pre-test probability of having a disease. Both effect PPV and NPV
-Prevelance does NOT affect sensitivity and specificity |
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|
Term
What is the validity of a test?
What values of a test are useful in assessing a test's validity? |
|
Definition
Validity is the extent to which a conclusion or measurement cooresponds to the real world.
Sensitivity and specificity are useful for assessing the validity of a test |
|
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Term
What information about two groups (experimental and control) in a randomized clinical trial can help you to determine if randomization was successful? |
|
Definition
The baseline characteristics of the patients in each arm would demonstrate if the two arms had pts with similar characteristics, and would ensure proper randomization occurred in the study |
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|
Term
What are subgroup analysis tables (stratified analysis) used to determine with respect to a clinical trial? |
|
Definition
It's used to determine if certain patient characteristics (age, comorbidities, etc) influenced treatment to any significant extent. Improper randomization can result in inaccurate results during subgroup analysis |
|
|
Term
What are the following test used to compare:
1) t-test
2) z-test
3) analysis of variance (ANOVA)
|
|
Definition
1) t-test compares the difference between the means of two sample groups
2) z-test compares the difference between the means of two populations. Since population variances are not usually known, the test has limited applicability
3) ANOVA is used to compare 3 or more means |
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|
Term
In a case-control study, when can the odds ratio be approximately equivalent to the relative risk? |
|
Definition
When the prevalence of disease is very low (i.e. the disease is rare)
-This statement is called "the rare disease assumption" |
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Term
Increasing the sample size of a study would do what to the P value and confidence interval (CI)? |
|
Definition
Increasing sample size would decrease the P value and tighten the confidence interval
-Both of these increase the significance of any difference found between experimental and control groups
-Precision of the estimate also increases |
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|
Term
What is pulsus alternans and why does it occur?
What conditions is it seen in? |
|
Definition
Pulsus alternans - phenomenon of alternation of QRS complex amplitude or axis btwn beats and possible wondering base-line
-Seen in cardiac tampenade and severe pericardial effusion
-It's due to changes in ventricular electrical axis 2/2 fluid in the pericardium, as the heart essentially wobbles in the fluid filled pericardial sac |
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Term
What are the 6 classic criteria used to establish the Dx of osteoarthritis? |
|
Definition
1) Age >50
2) Minimal to no morning stiffness
3) Bony tenderness
4) Bony enlargement
5) Crepitus on active motion
6) No warmth of the joint
If 3 or more criteria are met, specificity for OA is 69% |
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Term
Which of the following has the greatest reduction in the likelyhood of an aortic aneurysm enlarging:
1) Controling HTN
2) Controling HL
3) Controling DM
4) Smoking cessation
5) EtOH cessation |
|
Definition
Smoking Cessation!!!
-Studies have shown that smoking cessation has the greatest potential impact for preventing AAA enlargement, even over reducing atherosclerotic risk factors
-Continued smoking increases the rate of aneurysm growth by about 25% |
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Term
What is the median in the following 3 data sets:
1) 12, 14, 18, 18, 10, 11, 20
2) 1, 4, 5, 2, 1, 1, 5, 8, 10
3) 40, 44, 50, 31, 22, 50, 42 |
|
Definition
1) 14
2) 4
3) 42
The median is the number in the middle of the dataset, when you order the numbers from lowest to highest. It is NOT the midpoint of the range!!! |
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Term
What heart sounds can you hear in COPD?
What heart sounds can you hear in cardiac tampenade? |
|
Definition
COPD - diminished heart sounds
Tampenade - "distant" or "muffled" heart sounds |
|
|
Term
What should always be considered in pts with unexplained elevation of serum CK concentration? |
|
Definition
Hypothyroidism
-Serum CK can be elevated years before a pt develops clinical symptoms of hypothyroidism!
-Just check pt's TSH level |
|
|
Term
Define intermittent asthma and mild persistent asthma.
What are the treatments for these? |
|
Definition
Intermittent (think 2's) -> SABA
</= 2 daytime Sx/week
</= 2 nightime Sx/month
</= 2 uses of beta-agonist/month
normal PFTs
Mild persistent -> SABA + low dose inhaled corticosteroid
> 2 daytime Sx/week
3-4 nightime Sx/month
normal PFTs |
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Term
Define moderate persistent and severe presistent asthma.
What is the Tx for each? |
|
Definition
Moderate -> SABA + low dose inhaled corticosteroid + LABA
-daily Sx
-weekly nightime awakenings
-FEV1 60-80% of predicted value
Severe -> SABA + high dose inhaled corticosteroid + LABA
-daily Sx
-frequent nightime awakenings
-extremely limited activity
-FEV1 < 60% of predicted value |
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Term
Does blastomycosis or coccidiodomycosis present with skin manifestations?
Bone manifestations? |
|
Definition
Both present with skin and bone manifestations |
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Term
How do you distinguish between atopic keratoconjunctivitis and allergic conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
Atopic keratoconjunctivits - itching, tearing, thick mucus discharge, photophobia, and blurred vision
Allergic conjuctivits - itching, hyperemia, tearing, conjunctival edema, eyelid edema
-Pt will most likely NOT have vision loss
-Pt may have Hx of asthma, seasonal rhinitis, atopic dermatitis, food allergies, and urticaria |
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|
Term
What is blepharitis?
What will you seen in anterior and posterior blepharitis?
|
|
Definition
Blepharitis - chronic inflammatory condition involving the lid margins bilaterally
Anterior - crusty discharge clinging to lashes
Posterior - hyperemic lid margins w/ telangiectasias |
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|
Term
What can increase the incidence of disease?
What can increase the prevalence of disease? |
|
Definition
Incidence - number of new cases of disease in a certain time period
-Creating a test with a greater sensitivity for a disease will increase incidence b/c more people with the disease are now testing positive (new cases increases)
Prevalance - number of cases of disease at a certain point in time
-Creating a treatment that prolongs survival for a disease but doesn't cure it increases prevalence |
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Term
Name 3 bone/connective tissue dieases where osteophytes can be seen. |
|
Definition
1) Osteoarthritis (MCC)
2) Osteomyelitis
3) Neurogenic arthropathy (Charot's joints) seen in: DM (MCC), peripheral nn damage, syringomyelia, spinal cord injury, B12 deficiency, and tabes dorsalis |
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Term
How would you characterize the skin lesion of Bacillary angiomatosis?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Bacillary angiomatosis presents as bright red, firm, friable, exophytic nodules
Tx - oral erythromycin |
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|
Term
How can Pneumocystis manifest on the skin and where in the body does it present? |
|
Definition
Pneumocystis can cause a nodular and papular cutaneous lesion of external auditory meatus in HIV pts |
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|
Term
What are the 4 progressive steps of diabetic nephropathy with respect to glomerular disease?
Qid 3986 |
|
Definition
1) Glomerular hyperfiltration
-can be seen as early as several days after Dx
-causes intraglomarular HTN -> further damage
2) Thickened Glomerular BM - results from hyperfilitration/intraglomarular HTN
3) Mesangial expansion
4) Nodular sclerosis (specific for DM nephrotpahy) |
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Term
What is 3 step process for working up hypoxemia according to Zar? |
|
Definition
1) Get pCO2
-if normal or low - excludes hypoventilation
-if elevated - compute A-a gradient
2) If A-a gradient is:
-normal - hypoventilation is sole cause
-elevated - there's an additional component of V/Q mismatch, diffusion limitation, or shunt
3) Give 100% O2
-if pO2 rises - V/Q mismatch or diffusion impairment present
-if pO2 remains low - shunt is present
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Term
What are the 4 causes of hypoxamia?
How do you distinguish between them based on pCO2 levels, A-a gradient, and ability to correct it with 100% oxygen? |
|
Definition
1) Hypoventilation - high pCO2, nml A-a gradient
2) Low inspired O2 - nml pCO2, nml A-a gradient
3) Shunt (ARDS, pulm edema) - nml pCO2, high A-a gradient, does NOT correct with 100% O2
4) V/Q mismatch (PE, asthma) - nml pCO2, high A-a gradient, does correct with 100% O2
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Term
How do you calculate A-a gradient at sea level?
What is a normal A-a gradient? |
|
Definition
A-a gradient = PAO2 - PaO2
PAO2 = FiO2(Patm - PH2O) - PCO2/0.8
= 0.21 (760 - 47) - 37/0.8
= 104
so...
A-a gradient = 104 - PaO2
Normal A-a gradient is <15, but values increase with age. If >30, its unequivocally elevated |
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Term
If clinical suspicion for GERD is high but EGD is normal, what is the NSIM? |
|
Definition
Perform a 24 hr pH recording
-It records acid reflux at the esophageal and pharyngeal site |
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Term
Name 4 tick bourne diseases.
|
|
Definition
1) Lymes Disease (B. bergdorferi)
2) Babesiosis (B. nicrodii) - hemolytic anemia similar to malaria, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, abn LFTs, decreased complement
3) RMSF (R. rickettsii)
4) Ehrlichiosis (Gram neg bacteria) - f/c, malaise, HA, n/v, no rash (hence "spotless RMSF") |
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Term
What is the treatment of choice for RMSF?
What about in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline in non-pregnant patients
Chloramphenicol for pregnant patients |
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|
Term
What is a keratoacanthoma?
How does it present? |
|
Definition
Low grade malignancy that pathologically resembles SCC
It appears as a solitery, firm, round, skin-colored or reddish plaque that develops into a nodule with a central keratin plug |
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|
Term
How does cryoglobulinemia present?
What should all pts with suspected cryoglobulinemia be tested for? |
|
Definition
-Suspect mixed cryoglobulinemia in pts with palpable purpura, proteinuria, and hematuria
-Other Sx include: arthralgias, hepatosplenomegally, and hypocomplementemia
-If you suspect croglobulinemia, test for HCV antibodies |
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|
Term
What must you do as a first step in all elderly pt who present with acute renal failure?
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|
Definition
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|
Term
What is clubbing in COPD pts caused by?
Qid 4521 |
|
Definition
Malignancy!
-Clubbing is not a feature of simple COPD; when it is present in COPD, it's usually 2/2 malignancy
Other conditions a/w clubbing include lung abscesses, bronchiectasis, CF, interstitial lung disease, and sarcoidosis. |
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Term
What 3 diseases might you see a low leukocyte alkaling phosphatase level? |
|
Definition
1) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
2) Hypophosphatemia
3) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria |
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Term
If you suspect a subarachnoid hemorrhage and non-contrast CT shows no bleed, what's the NSIM?
Once a SAH is diagnosed, what test must be done next? |
|
Definition
If non-contrast CT is negative, perform a lumbar puncture and look for blood or xanthochromia
Once SAH is diagnosed, order a cerebral angiogram. It's the definitive study in detecting the site of bleeding so surgical clipping can be done |
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|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for ventricalar tachycardia in pts who are hemodynamically stable?
Hemodynamically unstable? |
|
Definition
Stable - amioderone or lidocaine
Unstable - DC cardioversion |
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|
Term
What medical management is available for treatment of cancer cachexia?
Qid 2646 |
|
Definition
Progestins (e.g. megestrol acetate and medroxyprogesterone) are firstline agents
Corticosteroids can also be used, but are less favored than progestins b/c of worse side effect profile |
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Term
In what population is a PPD considered positive when the measure of induration is:
1) >5mm
2) >10mm
3) >15mm |
|
Definition
1) >5mm
-HIV positive persons
-pt recently in contact w/ TB-positive persons
-pts with signs of TB on CXR
-organ transplant pts; pts on immunosuppressive therapy
2) >10mm
-immigrants from a TB endemic area
-IV drug abusers
-residents/employees of prisons, homeless shelters, etc.
-pts with DM, CKD, hematologic malignancy, fibrotic lung disease
-kids <4 y/o, teens exposed to high-risk adults
3) >15mm
-healthy individuals w/o RFs |
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Term
Name 4 potassium sparing diuretics.
|
|
Definition
Eplerinone, triamterine, amiloride, and spironolactone
Remember that spironolactone is a competetive aldosterone receptor antagonist, while the other 3 drugs just block potassium excretion from collecting duct
Ethacrynic Acid is a loop diuretic that has no sulfter moitety so is safe to use in pts with sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for:
1) Hairy Cell Leukemia
2) CLL
3) NHL |
|
Definition
1) Hairy Cell - cladribine (purine analogue)
-bone marrow suppression, neurologic, and renal toxicity
2) CLL - chlorambucil and prednisone
3) NHL - CHOP regimen: cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunomycin (doxorubicin), oncovin (vincristine), prednisone |
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Term
What are the main foods incriminated in staph preformed toxin induced food poisoning? |
|
Definition
poultry and egg products, meat and meat products, salads made with mayonnaise (egg, tuna, chicken, potato, and macaroni salad), cream filled pastries, and milk and dairy prouducts |
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|
Term
Once clinical suspicion for Sarcoidosis is high and CXR shows hilar lymphadenopathy, what's NSIM? |
|
Definition
Perform mediastinal bronchoscopy and obtain tissu for biopsy! |
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|
Term
What things can potentiate Warfarin and further increase INR? |
|
Definition
-Alcohol
-Vit E
-Ginseng
-Garlic
-Ginco biloba
-St. John's Wort
-Anything that inhibits P450: INH, ketoconazol, HIV protease inhibitors, Grapefruit juice, erythromycin, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ciprofloxicin |
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|
Term
What is the only cause of restrictive lung diseases where FRC is increased?
Why does this happen? |
|
Definition
Ankylosing Spondylitis
-b/c fusion of hte costovertebral joints results in fixation of the chest wall in an inspiratory position (i.e. the chest wall is fixed such tat lung volume is higher)
-there is no lung parenchymal involvement in the restictive lung disease of AS--it's solely related to chest wall immobility |
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|
Term
What does it mean with a restrictive lung disease is "non-concentric?"
What disease is this most commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
Non-concentric refers to unequal decrease in TLC, vital capacity, and residual volume
This is commonly seen in obesity
-the increased abdominal panus presses the diaphragm cephalad -> decreased TLC and RV
-however VC remains normal b/c there is no restriction in forcing air out |
|
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Term
What are the clinical features of Behcet's Syndrome?
Who is this most commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
International criteria for Dx:
-recurrent oral ulcers + 2 of the following:
-recurrent genital ulcers, eye lesions (uveitis, optic neuritis, retinal revascularization), skin (erethyma nodosum, acneiform nodules), CNS involvement (meningioencephalitis), positive pathergy
MCly seen in Turkish, Asian, and Middle Eastern population
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Term
What are some other causes of HTN, hypokalemia, and suppressed plasma renin activity besides Conn's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
11-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess
glucocorticoid ingestion
licorice ingestion (licorice prevents breakdown of cortisol (weak mineralcorticoid activity) -> cortisone (no mineralcorticoid activity)) |
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|
Term
What might the cause of sudden onset fever, abodminal pain, and hematuria in a pt with nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
Renal vein thrombosis
-recall that antithrombin III is lost in urine, predisposing to RVT and arterial thrombosis
-This is MCly seen in membranous glomerulonephritis
Also, recall that: loss of low MW complement -> infections; loss of transferrin can lead to iron deficiency anemia |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for metastatic breast CA?
Qid 4252 |
|
Definition
Depends on whether or not there's widespread or solitery metastasis:
-widespread, and/or high operative risk -> systemic chemotherapy +/- hormone therapy
-solitary metastasis and low operative risk -> surgery |
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|
Term
How does INH induced liver injury differ from most other causes of drug induced liver injury? |
|
Definition
Most drugs that cause liver injury cause extrahepatic hypersensitivity manifestations like rash, arthralgias, fever, leukocytosis, and eosinophilia
INH, on the other hand, characterisitically does not do this
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Term
What is the best management for progressive pain due to bone metastasis from prostate cancer (after pt has had orchiectomy)? |
|
Definition
Radiation therapy via Focal External Beam
Remember, giving flutamide (DHT blocker) or finasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitor) would be usesless in post-orchiectomy pts b/c they nor longer have testosterone/DHT production
Bisphosphonates can relieve pain from bony metastasis but take longer than radation to work |
|
|
Term
Does pulmonary edema give a more obstructive or restrictive lung disease pattern on PFTs?
Qid 4630 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common site of bleeding in pts with hemophelia? |
|
Definition
Joints (hemarthrosis)
-up to 80% of bleeding events occur there, and are so characteristic of hemophelia they're almost diagnostic |
|
|
Term
What 3 tests must periodically be performed on any patient on amioderone? |
|
Definition
-Thyroid function tests (hypothyroidism)
-Pulmonary function tests (pulmonary fibrosis)
-Liver function tests (hepatotoxicity) - drug should be d/c'd if LFTs elevate to > 2 fold ULN
Amioderone also causes:
-Corneal deposits (b/c it's secreted by lacrimal gland) - doesn't lead to vision loss, and does not necessitate drug discontinuation
-Skin changes - specifically blue-gray skin discoloration, most prominent on the face |
|
|
Term
What actions can result in subacromial bursitis? |
|
Definition
-It typically occurs in the setting of chronic microtrauma to the supraspinatus tendon caused by overhead work and repeated overhead movements of the arm during work or sporting activities
-Vascular supply may be temporarily compromised during compression 2/2 inflammation
-Exam may how pain with active range of motion of shoulder, tenderness in shoulder when arm is internally rotated and forward flexed at the shulder, but no signs of deltoid atrophy |
|
|
Term
What are some worrying signs and lab findings that may hint that an asthmatic is in respiratory failure?
Tx? |
|
Definition
-diminished breath sounds and/or absence of wheezes signifies poor air movement
-solmnence or drowsiness
-hypercarbia
Tx - intubation and mechanical ventilation
|
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|
Term
What must you watch out for after treating a pt with Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Secondary malignancy
-those treated with chemo AND radiation are at as high as a 3.2% risk of developing a secondary malignancy (usually lung or breast cancer) within 20 years of treatment
-this is especially true in pts treated who are less than 30 y/o |
|
|
Term
35 y/o male p/w altered mental status for the past 2 days. Exam shows scleral icteris. Labs show Hb 7.8, MCV 85, retic 9.0%, platelet count 45,000, direct bili 1.2. CT head shows no abnormalities.
Dx?
NSIM?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx - TTP
NSIM - peripheral blood smear to look for schistocytes
Tx - plasmapharesis
You must be thinking TTB whenever a pt p/w thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia (normocytic anemia with elevated retic count bili), renal failure, AMS!!! |
|
|
Term
When do the following lesions appear and what do they look like on exam:
1) gonococcal skin lesions
2) syphilis rash
|
|
Definition
1) gonococcal skin lesions
-within days-weeks of sex contact
-vesiculopustular lesions numbering from 2 - 10
2) syphilis rash
-within 1-2 months after chancre has healed
-maculopapular rash |
|
|
Term
What is the first line treatment for sarcoidosis?
What if disease is refractory to that Tx? |
|
Definition
1st line - glucocorticoids
refractory cases - methotrexate
Remember, if sarcoid pt is asymptomatic, no treatment is required b/c most pts resolve spontaneously |
|
|
Term
How do the following pts present:
1) anaphylactic transfusion rxn
2) ABO mismatching |
|
Definition
1) anaphylacti transfusion rxn
-wheezing 2/2 bronchospasm
-hypotension 2/2 anaphylactic shock
2) ABO mismatching
-fever, flank pain, dark urine 2/2 rapid hemolysis
-manifestations of DIC (bleeding everywhere) |
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|
Term
What can a reaction to cytokines stored in blood transfusion result in? |
|
Definition
Stored cytokines can result in febrile non-hemolytic reaction or Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
|
|
|
Term
What is anamnestic antibody response with respect to blood transfusions? |
|
Definition
Response to a minor RBC antigen
-Kell - antiKell is the classic example in which a pt who is Kell negative who developed anti-Kell Abs from previous transfusions undergoes extravascular (IgG mediated) hemolysis 3-4 weeks after 2nd transfusion with Kell positive blood
-usually self limited hemolytic anemia characterized by fever, jaundice, and anemia |
|
|
Term
What is the leading cause of lower extremity edema?
RFs?
What is the management? |
|
Definition
Chronc venous insufficiency 2/2 incompetent venous valves
RFs - female, obesity, age, Hx of LE surgery or LE DVT
Management - leg elevation, compression stockings, and pneumatic compression dressings |
|
|
Term
What are some complications of chronic venous insufficiency?
|
|
Definition
Skin fibrosis, stasis dermatitis, chronic edema (MCC of LE edema), and ulceration |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for mild-moderate hypercalcemia related to bone metastasis?
What about for hypercalcemic crisis?
|
|
Definition
Mild-moderate - zoledronic acid therapy
-bisphosphonates my prevent skeletal complications (reduce bone pain, fracture risk), and perhapse survival in pts with MM or breast CA
Hypercalcemic crisis - IV fluids (to start diuresis), then furosemide
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|
|
Term
What is the difference between Mobitz type II AV Block and Third Degree AV Block? |
|
Definition
Mobitz type II - P wave suddenly does not conduct to the ventricles -> "dropped QRS" with nml PR interval
Third Degree Block - no atrial impulse will travel to ventricles, so atria and ventricles beat independently and have their respective rates. PR interval is completely variable and non-relevant |
|
|
Term
WHat are the 3 classical clinical criteria for Dxing ARDS? |
|
Definition
1) Hypoxemia refractory to O2 therapy; ratio of PaO2/FiO2 </= 200
2) Bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates on CXR
3) No evidence of CHF: PCWP </= 18 mmHg |
|
|
Term
What are 4 conditions that can result secondarily in chondrocalcinosis (aka pseudogout)? |
|
Definition
1) hemochromatosis
2) hyperparathyroidism
3) hypothyroidism
4) Bartter's syndrome (defect in Na and Cl reabsorption in DCT)
See SU pg 252 for more info |
|
|
Term
What is the difference in management of hemorrhagic (traumatic) vs non-hemorrhagic cardiac tampenade? |
|
Definition
Hemorrhagic - emergent surgery is indicated to repair injury. Pericardiocentesis is only a temporizing measure and should NOT be done if it will delay surgery
Non-hemorrhagic - management depends on hemodynamic status of pt:
-stable - monitor closely w/ echo, ECG, or CXR
-unstable - pericardiocentesis +/- fluid challenge
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Term
A 33 y/o school teacher comes in complaining of joint pain. She's had these Sx for 10 days, saying it involves her MCPs, PIPs, wrists, and ankles bilaterally. She complains of joint stiffness for 10-15 mins after prolonged rest. She also complains of fatigue and diarrhea. She takes no medications. Exam shows no swelling, redness, or tenderness of involved joints, and the rest of the exam is unremarkable.
Dx?
How do you confirm Dx?
Qid 3172
|
|
Definition
Dx - Parvo B19 infection
-usually resolves within 2 months
Confirm Dx by detecting anti-B19 IgM in blood
This woman's MCP, PIP, and wrist involvement are c/w RA, however the acute nature, morning stiffness < 30 mins, lack of joint swelling, and lack of constitutional Sx go against RA. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference in management of hemorrhagic (traumatic) vs non-hemorrhagic cardiac tampenade? |
|
Definition
Hemorrhagic - emergent surgery is indicated to repair injury. Pericardiocentesis is only a temporizing measure and should NOT be done if it will delay surgery
Non-hemorrhagic - management depends on hemodynamic status of pt:
-stable - monitor closely w/ echo, ECG, or CXR
-unstable - pericardiocentesis +/- fluid challenge
|
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Term
MEN I is due to a mutation in ______.
MEN II is due to a mutation in ______. |
|
Definition
MEN I - mutation in tumor suppressor gene Menin
MEN II - mutation in proto-oncogene RET |
|
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Term
What is the diagnostic test of choice for bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
High resolution CT scan
-characteristic findings include airway dilation, bronchial thickening, and lack fo airway tapering
Note: CXR findings are nonspecific and are non-diagnostic; PFTs reveal an obstructive pattern |
|
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Term
What are some of the main symptoms that can differentiate Cushings syndrome from a pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
Pheo causes weight loss, while Cushing's causes weight gain.
Cushings may result in electrolyte findings suggestive of mineralcorticoid excess (hypokalemia, metabolic alkylosis)
Both Cushings and Pheo result in HTN, hyperglycemia, and agitation and restlessness |
|
|
Term
Why are the elderly more prone to dehydration? |
|
Definition
1) decreased thirst response to dehydration
2) impaired renal sodium conservation
3) impaired renal concentration ability |
|
|
Term
What portion of the bowel is most susceptible to crush injury?
Name a common sequela of injury to this portion of the bowel? |
|
Definition
-The duodenum is most susceptible to crush injury because it's almost entirely retorperitoneal and can be compressed against the vertebral bodies
-A common sequela is duodenal hematoma formation which can lead to obstruction |
|
|
Term
What is pancoast syndrome? |
|
Definition
Shoulder pain radiating to the arm in an ulndar distribution
-results from tumor invasion of the C8 and T1
Remember, superior sulcus tumor can also result in:
-Horner's syndrome - invasion of cervical sympatheic cahin
-phrenic nn palsy
-voice hoarsness - recurrent laryngeal nerve plasy |
|
|
Term
What must you be cautious about when treating an elderly pt with radioactive iodide ablation (I^131)? |
|
Definition
Thyrotoxicosis - massive destruction of thyroid cells can release thyroxine from colloid
You can avoid this by premedicating them with antithryoid meds (methimazole) to deplete their thyroid hormone stores |
|
|
Term
What are 2 contraindications to radioactive iodide therapy? |
|
Definition
pregnancy
severe ophthalmopathy |
|
|
Term
List 4 reasons why renal transplantation is preferred over dialysis in pts with ESRD.
|
|
Definition
1) Better survival and quality of life
2) Transplant pts have return to nml endocrine, sexual, and reproductive function
3) Transplant pts have less anemia, bone disease, and HTN persist than dialysis pts
5) Diabetics who undergo transplant have improvement of neuropathy, whereas those on dialysis have persistent or worsening neurpathy |
|
|
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of theophylline toxicity?
What 2 drugs are known to increase the chances for theophylline toxicity?
Qid 4048 |
|
Definition
CNS stimulation (HA, insomnia)
GI disturbances (n/v)
CV toxicity (arrhythmias)
-Mechanism is debated, but may include phosphodiesterase inhibition, adenosine antagonsim, and stimulation of epinephrine release
P450 inhibitors are known to enhance theophylline toxicity, especially ciprofloxicin and erythromycin
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Term
What is the management for centralretinal artery occlusion? |
|
Definition
Occular massage - to dislodge embolus to a site further down circulation to allow for better perfusion
Anterior chamber paracentesis - to lower intraocular pressure
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy |
|
|
Term
What is the empirical treatment for bacterial meningitis in:
-pts who are 3 months - 55 y/o
-pts who are > 55 y/o
Qid 3245, SU pg 357 |
|
Definition
- 3 mo - 55 y/o - cefriaxone or cefatoxime + vanc
- > 55 y/o - ceftraixone or cefatoxime + vanc + ampicillin |
|
|
Term
What pulmonary and extra-pulmonary complications can pts with pulmonary Nocardiosis get? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary - cavitation, empyemia (33%)
Extra-pulmonary - dissemination to CNS (MC), and skin |
|
|
Term
What is the NSIM in an AIDS pt (CD4 count < 100) with dysphagia? |
|
Definition
PO fluconazol
-b/c oropharyngeal candidiasis is MCC of dysphagia in AIDS pts
-If dysphagia doesn't resolve w/in 3-5 days, then endoscopy + biopsy, cytology, and culture is indicated |
|
|
Term
How do the following pts present:
-NF-1
-NF-2 |
|
Definition
NF-1 - cafe au lait spots, neurofibromas, CNS tumors (gliomas, meningiomas), axillary freckeling, Lisch nodules, bony lesions, optic nerve gliomas
NF -2 - bilateral acoustic neuromas, meningiomas, cafe au lait spots, neurofibromas (much less common than in NF-1 though), cataracts |
|
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Term
What is the receiver-operating characteristic curve and what does it emphasize? |
|
Definition
-It's a graph of a test's sensitivity (proportion of true positive results) in Y-axis and 1 - specificity (proportion of false positive results) in X-axis
-It emphasizes the importance of choosing the appropriate cutoff value |
|
|
Term
The higher the sensitivity, the higher the ____ (PPV or NPV)?
The higher the specificity, the higher the ____ (PPV or NPV)? |
|
Definition
sensitivity - NPV
specificity - PPV |
|
|
Term
What is the difference btwn a chi square test and a two-sample t-test?
|
|
Definition
Chi square test compares the proportions of categorized outcome. For example, if you're studying the effect Drug A has on protein C levels, then you run a Chi square test to compare the proportion of pts with elevated protein C in the exposed group (Drug A) to that of the placebo group
Two-sample t-test compares means of two groups
|
|
|
Term
What is the best way to monitor a DKA pt's response to treatment?
|
|
Definition
arterial blood pH and/or anion gap
see pg 188 of SU for more info |
|
|
Term
What is the glucose level in a pleural effusion 2/2 heart failure?
What is the pH of a pleural effusion in heart failure? |
|
Definition
-Transudative effusions (CHF) have glucose levels >60, and pH between 7.65 - 7.3
-Exudative effusions have glucose levels < 60 (if glucse < 60 -> chest tube), and pH < 7.3 (if pH <7.2 -> chest tube!) |
|
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Term
What is the likely source of hematuria if the hematuria occurs:
1) at the beginning of voiding
2) at the end of voiding
3) throughout voiding
Qid 4751 |
|
Definition
1) at the beginning - urethral damage
2) at the end - bladder or prostatic damage
3) throughout - renal or ureter damage |
|
|
Term
What are the 6 causes of hypothyroidism that result in decreased iodine uptake and low TSH? |
|
Definition
1) Subacute lymphocytic (painless) thyroiditis - MCly occurs in post-partum period
2) Subacute granulomatous (De Quervain's) thyroiditis - intense pain/tenderness of thyroid, increased ESR, caused by Coxackie or Mumps inf.
3) Reidel's thyroiditis - thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue; thyroid is rock hard and painless
4) Iodine induced hyperthyroidism
5) Facticious hyperthyroidism - leads to gland atrophy (NO goiter!), absence of exophthalmos (but may see lid lag)
6) Struma ovarii - ovarian teratoma w/ thyroid follicular cells
|
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|
Term
How can glucocorticoid treatment effect the levels of:
-lyphocytes
-eosinophils
-neutrophils |
|
Definition
-lymphocytes - decreases
-eosinophils - decreases
-neutrophils - increases by increasing bone marrow release and mobilizing the marginated neutrophil pool
-it is not uncommon to see neutrophilia during Tx with glucocorticoids |
|
|
Term
What is the Tx for Achalasia?
How do you Dx it? |
|
Definition
Tx - subligual nitroglycerine, long-acting nitrates, calcium channel blockers
Dx - barium swallow
-If pt is >60 or has WL, NSIM is EGD |
|
|
Term
What is the Tx for diffuse esophageal spasm?
How do you Dx? |
|
Definition
Tx - nitrates and calcium channel blockers
Dx - esophageal manometry is diagnostic; often times CXR and barium swallow will be normal |
|
|
Term
Latex allergy is particularly common (18-73%) in pts with ________.
Qid 4234 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A 28 y/o female with a known Hx of papillary thyroid cancer p/w hematemesis and black tarry stools. Her vitals are wnl, but CBC shows marked microcytic anemia. Exam show jaundice of the skin, and RUQ tenderness.
NSIM?
Likely Dx? |
|
Definition
Dx - hemobilia
Hemobilia is commonly caused by:
-trauma (MCC)
-papillary carcinoma of thyroid (as in this pt)
-surgery (e.g. cholecystectomy)
-tumors
-infection |
|
|
Term
What is the distinction between toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and steven johnson syndrome (SJS)?
What 4 main drugs cause it? |
|
Definition
SJS involves up to 10% of body surface area
TEN involves greater than 30% of body surface area
-Pts with btwn 10-30% skin involvement are said to have TEN/SJS overlap
Both are characterized by morbilliform eruption that rapidly evolves into exfoliation of skin with positive Nikolsky's sign
-Caused by sulfonamides, barbiturates, phenyoin, and NSAIDs |
|
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Term
How does vertebral osteomyelitis present?
What's the best test to evaluate it? |
|
Definition
p/w low grade fever + back pain + increased ESR
MRI is most sensitive/specific test for IDing it |
|
|
Term
Damage to the dominant parietal lobe results in what 3 things?
Damage to nondominant parietal lobe results in what 3 things? |
|
Definition
dominant parietal - dysgraphia, dyscalculia, right/left confusion
non-dominant parietal - construction apraxia (inability to execute learned purposeful movements), contralateral sensory neglect, anosognosia (unaware of his/her disability) |
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Term
What bacteria are pts with Hemochromatosis more prone to being infected with and why? |
|
Definition
Listeria, Yersinia enterocolitica, and Vibrio vulnificus
-due to increased bacterial virulence in presence of high serum iron, and impaired phagocytosis due to iron overloaded reticuloendothelial cells |
|
|
Term
What 4 things qualify as orthostatic vitals? |
|
Definition
A change in the following from supine to sitting/standing:
-systolic >20
-diastolic >10
-HR increase > 20 bpm
-dizziness or lightheadedness |
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Term
In contrast to EBV mononucleosis, CMV mononucleosis presents w/o what 2 things? |
|
Definition
Pharyngitis and cervical LAN
Also this results in negative heterophile antibody test
Note: splenomegally and posterior cervical LAN are not seen in strep pharyngitis |
|
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Term
What is the Tx for cocaine induced angina? |
|
Definition
Benzodiazapines
-they decrease the anxiety, HTN, and tachycardia a/w cocaine use
-other things to give include aspririn and nitrates
-Calcium channel blockers and alpha-1 blockers (phentolamine) can also help reduce coronary artery vasospasm
For Cocaine induced MI -> cardiac catheterization |
|
|
Term
What does a ruptured Baker's cyst lead to?
What may be seen on exam? |
|
Definition
Leads to pseudothrombophlebitis syndrome
Swelling is seen in posterior calf just below knee. The fluid from cyst can leak down inner leg -> hematoma over medial malleolus (crescent sign) |
|
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Term
What is the Tx for diabetic gastropariesis (5)? |
|
Definition
1) improve glycemic control
2) small frequent meals
3) DA antagonisits (metoclopromide)
4) Bethanechol
5) Erythromycin (stimulates motilin-R) |
|
|
Term
What's the NSIM for a pt who does not respond w/in 72 hrs of appropriate AbX for pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
Urological investigation including either CT or U/S
-failure to respond to AbX may indicate presence of obstruction or perirenal or renal abcsess |
|
|
Term
EHEC, shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter, and Yersenia all produce bloody diarrhea. How do you differentiate EHEC from the rest? |
|
Definition
-EHEC produces bloody diarrhea w/ abdominal tenderness and absence of fever
-Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter produce bloody diarrhea w/ presence of fever and absence of abdominal pain
-Yersinia produced bloody diarrhea + fever |
|
|
Term
What might you see on skin biopsy of a pt with Paget's Disease of the Breast?
Most pts with Paget's Disease of Breast have what underlying cancer? |
|
Definition
You may see large cells surrounded by clear halos b/c cancer cells become retracted from adjacent keratinocytes
Most pts w/ Paget's have underlying adenocarcinoma
-Skin changes in Paget's is thought to result from migration of neoplastic cells through mammary ducts to nipple surface |
|
|
Term
Increased serum anion gap metabolic acidosis tells you if the acidosis is coming from the kidney (RTA) or GI tract (diarrhea). What calculation can help you determine if the acidosis comes from one of those two? |
|
Definition
Urine Anion Gap
-Decreased UAG suggests HCO3 wasting in urine -> renal tubular acidosis
-Increased UAG suggests HCO3 reabsorption in kidney in responese to HCO3 elsewhere -> diarrhea
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|
Term
When is V/Q scan indicated over Spiral CT in the workup of a PE? |
|
Definition
V/Q scan is done with IV contrast is contraindicated like in renal failure pts |
|
|
Term
What will you see on bone marrow biopsy of a pt with myelodisplastic syndrome? |
|
Definition
Normal or hypercellular marrow
-Yet pt will have pancytopenia
-MDS is characteried by ineffective hematopoiesis, with apoptosis of myeloid precursors
-Other random findings include: Howell-Jolly bodies, basphilic stippling, nucleated RBCs, hypolobulated neutrophilic nuclei, and large agranular platelets |
|
|
Term
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) is commonly seen in 4 populations? |
|
Definition
1) Sickle Cell pts (thus it's common in African Americans)
2) Massive Obesity
3) HIV
4) IV drug abuse, specifically heroin use |
|
|
Term
When should a pt with ulcerative colitis begin colon cancer screening?
How often do they need colonoscopy once screening begins? |
|
Definition
Begin screening 8 years after Dx
Pt should be screened Q 1-2 years |
|
|
Term
How can portal HTN result in thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
Splenomegally induced splenic sequestration of platelets
-platelet count usually remains above 30,000 |
|
|
Term
What is the management of Toxic Megacolon 2/2 UC? |
|
Definition
Prompt administration of:
1) IV steroids
2) NG decompression
3) fluid management |
|
|
Term
What's the mneumonic for the DDx for an anterior mediastinal mass? |
|
Definition
4T's:
1) Thymoma
2) Teratoma (including seminomas, non-seminomas, and germ cell tumors
3) Thyroid neoplasms
4) Terrible lymphomas
Note: Seminomas may cause elevated beta-HCG in 1/3 of cases, but AFP is nml. Mixed germ cell tumors commonly have elevations in both. |
|
|
Term
What are common causes/RFs for osteonecrosis of femoral head (5)?
What situations does pt typically feel pain?
What might X-ray show? |
|
Definition
-RFs include: chronic corticosteroid use, chronic EtOH use, antiphospholipid Ab syndrome, trauma, and hemaglobinopathies (esp. HbSS)
-Pts p/w anterior hip pain worse w/ mov't, but as disease progresses pain is present at rest too
-In first few months of disease, X-ray may be normal, thus MRI is best test |
|
|
Term
Why are pts with nephrotic syndrome at increased risk for stroke and MI? |
|
Definition
B/c of:
1) Abnormal lipid metabolism of nephrotic syndrome causes increased LDL and decreased HDL -> accelerated atherosclerosis
2) Hypercoagulability of nephrotic syndrome 2/2 loss of Antithrombin III
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|
Term
What is the MCC of painless hematuria in adults in the US? |
|
Definition
Bladder tumors
-Renal cell carcinoma also p/w painless hematuria but is a less common cause than a bladder mass |
|
|
Term
Low T4 with normal T3 and TSH levels can be seen in __________.
Qid 3495 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is it no common practice to check thyroid function tests in a pt with, or recovering from, acute severe illness if they're clinicall euthyroid? |
|
Definition
Because of possibility of sick euthyroid syndrome
-during acute severe illness, the caloric deprivation and or increased cytokines lead to decreased peripheral conversion of T4 -> T3, leading to nml T4 and TSH, but low T3
-during recovery, TSH may increase yet T3/T4 are normal, and so this may be misinterpreted as subclinical hypothyroidism
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|
Term
What is the most common type of lung cancer?
What about in smokers?
Qid 2615 |
|
Definition
Adenocarcinoma is most common lung cancer in both non-smokers and smokers
-usually located in periphery of lung and consists of columnar cells growing along the septa
-bronchoalveolar carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma, and it's a/w pulmonary scars such as pulmonary fiborosis |
|
|
Term
In pts who are hypernatremic, when do you give normal saline vs 1/2 normal saline?
In pts who are hyponatremic, when do you give normal saline vs 3% saline?
Qid 2182 |
|
Definition
Hypernatremia:
-normal saline to volume depleted pts (hypotension, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor)
-1/2 normal saline to pts who are euvolemic
Hyponatremia:
-normal saline to moderate hyponatremia (120-130) pts who are asymptomatic
-3% saline to severe hyponatremia (<120) pts or who are symptomatic
Note: if pt is mildly hyponatremic, NSIM is water restriction
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Term
What is the recommended 7 step approach to giving bad news to a patient?
Qid 2642 |
|
Definition
1) Make sure you're in a private, comfortable environment
2) Ask pt how much they know or what they think they may have. This lets you know what the expectations are. Ask "What do you know of your Sx?"
3) Ask pt how much they want to know
4) Give pt a warning shot: "Unfortunately, the situation is more serious than what I earlier thought"
5) Break the news if they want you to: "The results show that you have ____"
6) Give their prognosis, but keep them aware of options available
7) Try to explain everything as clearly and simply as possible |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 key principles to the use of pain medication in pts with terminal stages of cancer?
Qid 2621 |
|
Definition
1) Try non-narcotic measures first, unless you're sure they're in severe pain
2) Don't be afraid to use narcotic analgesics
3) Perscribe adequate amounts of medication |
|
|
Term
What is the best NSIM for a pt with terminal stage cancer who has severe pain from cancer? |
|
Definition
Start short-acting morphine
-Once dose has been titrated for adequate pain control, then you can give long acting opiates |
|
|
Term
58 y/o male comes in b/c of fatigue and jaundice. He also complains of RUQ pain and tenderness. Labs show decreased Hb, elevated total bili, high LDH, and low haptoglobin. MRI of abdoman shows hepatic vein thrombosis.
Dx? |
|
Definition
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria |
|
|
Term
Most thyroid nodules are the result of what? |
|
Definition
Benign colloid nodules
-The second most common cause of thyroid nodules is follicular adenoma
|
|
|
Term
What classic sign/symptom do pts with actue monocytic leukemia present with (aside from constitutional Sx)?
|
|
Definition
-Bleeding from the gums and nose
-Gingival hyperplasia (also seen with verapamil and phenytoin use)
Recall, pts with acute monocytic leukemia are also alpha-naphthyl esterase positive |
|
|
Term
What intervention has the greatest effect on lowering blood pressure? |
|
Definition
Weight reduction of BMI < 25 leads to reduction of 5-20 mmHg
-Next most efficacious is DASH diet -> 8-14 mmHg reduction in blood pressure |
|
|
Term
What screening should be done in all pts with newly diagnosed cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Endoscopy is recommended to screen for presence of esophageal varicies |
|
|
Term
Is Bone Scan efficacious for Dx of Multiple Myeloma? Why/Why not? |
|
Definition
No
-The bone lesions of MM are not picked up by bone scan b/c there is no associated bone formation |
|
|
Term
What is information bias?
How can it be controlled? |
|
Definition
Imperfect assessment of assocation btwn exposure and outcome -> errors in measurement of exposure and outcome status
Minimized by using standardized techniques for surveillance and measurement of outcomes as well as trained observers to measure exposure and outcome |
|
|
Term
What is sample distortion bias?
How can it be controlled? |
|
Definition
Estimate of exposre and outcome association is biased b/c study sample isn't representative of target population w/r/t joint distribution of exposure and outcome
-Essentially same as selection bias |
|
|
Term
Define the following:
-Adjuvant therapy
-Neoadjuvant therapy
-Salvage therapy |
|
Definition
-Adjuvant - Tx given in addition to standard therapy. Ex: radiation given at same time assurgery
-Neoadjuvant - Tx given before standard therapy. Ex: radiation given before surgery
-Salavage - Tx given when standard therapy fails. Ex: radiation after disease recurrence following surgery |
|
|
Term
Define the following:
-Consolidation therapy
-Induction therapy
-Maintenance therapy (give an example) |
|
Definition
-Consolidation - Tx given after induction w/ multidrug regimens to further reduce tumor burden
-Induction - initial dose of Tx to rapidly kill tumor cells and send pt into remission (<5% tumor burden)
-Maintenance therapy - given after induction and consolidation therapies to kill residual tumor cells and keek pt in remission. Ex: daily antiandrogen therapy for prostate cancer |
|
|
Term
Episcleritis is a/w what two chronic inflammatory conditions? |
|
Definition
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
RA |
|
|
Term
For what age bracket is mammogram not indicated and why? |
|
Definition
For women less than 35 y/o b/c the dense breast tissue at this age doesn't allow adequate visualization of any masses, if present |
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiology behind heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). |
|
Definition
heparin induces release of platelet factor 4 (PF4) from platelet granules -> heparin complexes with PF4 -> in genetically predisposed pts, IgG auto-Abs are made against heparin-PF4 -> platelet activation -> thrombin release |
|
|
Term
What happens to the PTT in heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Is HIT as hyper or hypo coagulable state? |
|
Definition
PTT increases b/c of thrombin consumption
HIT is a hypercoagulable state |
|
|
Term
What is the MCC of cervical spine radiculopathy in pts > 50 y/o? |
|
Definition
Cervical spondylosis
-usually 2/2 bone spurs (osteophytes) of local osteoarthritis of the cervical spine
-radiographic findings include bony spurs and sclerotic facet joints |
|
|
Term
What is the recommended technique for tick removal? |
|
Definition
Remove tick with tweezers
-specifically grasp the tick's mouthparts with tweezers as close to skin as possible, then remove tick using steady pressure |
|
|
Term
What is the NSIM for TTP?
ITP? |
|
Definition
TTP - Emergent plasmapharesis
ITP - corticosteroids
|
|
|
Term
Why do pts who develop adrenal insufficiency 2/2 abrupt cessation of long-term corticosteroid use have hyponatremia? |
|
Definition
Because corticosteroids inhibit the secretion of ADH, so when pt abruptly stops taking corticosteroids -> increased ADH -> hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
Does primary, secondary, or tertiary adrenal insufficiency result in hypoaldosteronemia? Why? |
|
Definition
Primary
-Both secondary (abrupt d/c of long term corticosteroids, or hypopituitarism) and tertiary (hypothalamic disease) lead to low ACTH. ACTH has only a very modest effect on aldosterone production, so aldosterone remains normal in secondary and tertiary
-aldosterone is stimulated by Angio II and K+ |
|
|
Term
What is the best imaging technique for evaluating for pancreatic pseudocyst?
What are 3 indications for drainage of pseudocyst? |
|
Definition
-U/S is best imaging technique for pseudocyst
-Drain only if:
-persists for > 6 months
-it's > 5 cm
-i becomes secondarily infected |
|
|
Term
What is hypokalemic periodic paralysis?
What it it a result of?
Pathophys? |
|
Definition
Multiple episodes of paralysis 2/2 abrupt fall in serum potassium levels
-Result from either familial disorder or thyrotoxicosis
-Pathophysiology involves K+ influx into cell, due to release of epinephrine (stress) or insulin (meals) |
|
|
Term
For those who received blood transfusions in the past, who should be screened for Hep B, Hep C, or both?
|
|
Definition
If transfused before 1986, screen for Hep B and C, because transfusion screening for anti-HBcAg was introducted in 1986
-If transfused before 1992, screen for Hep C because sensitive immune assays for Hep C was introduced in 1992 |
|
|
Term
A 38 y/o male p/w with bilateral knee and shoulder pain that has been worsening for 6 months. He was recently diagnosed with DMII 1 year ago. He has 20 pack year Hx of smoking, and has been drinking 4 cans of beer/day for 20 years. Vitals are wnl. Exam shows slightly swollen and tender knee joints, and mild hepatomegally.
Dx?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
Dx - hemochromatosis
NSIM - serum iron studies
-suspect hemochromatosis in any pt with new Dx of DMII, hepatomegally, and arthropathy
- |
|
|
Term
What should be your first step in management of a pt with an acute abdomen before rushing them off to the OR? |
|
Definition
A supine and upright abdominal X-ray
-to r/o obstruction or perforation
-also may see intrathoracic process (pneumothorax, AO dissection) |
|
|
Term
What is the fever pattern in pts with facticious fever? |
|
Definition
Very high fever or brief spikes, absent diurnal variation, and rapid defervescence w/o chills or diaphoresis |
|
|
Term
Define malignant hyperthermia.
What drugs are known to cause it?
|
|
Definition
-Inherited skeletal mm discorder where hypermetabolic state is ppt by exposure to certain drugs
-results from increased intracellular calcium -> sustained mm contraction
-These drugs include:
-exposure to volatile inhalation of anesthetics (halothane, isoflurane)
-depolerizing agents (succinylcholine and decamethonium) |
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Term
What are the two types of microscopic colitis, and what may you see on biopsy?
How does microscopic colitis present?
Tx?
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Definition
There are 2 types of microscopic colitis:
-Collagenous - more than normal amounts of collagen beneath lining of colon
-Lymphocytic - increased number of lymphocytes
Microscopic colitis p/w chronic watery diarrhea w/o bleeding occuring around the 6-7th decade of life
Tx - loperamide, diphenoxylate, bismuth subsaliscylate
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Term
Disorders affecting the small intestine typically result in what kind of bowel movement?
Disorders affecting the large intestine typically result in what kind of bowel movement?
MKSAP, Section 3, Question 49 |
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Definition
SI - non-bloody diarrhea
LI - bloody diarrhea
Recall that mesenteric ischemia (small bowel ischemia) typically results in non-bloody diarrhea, whereas ischemic colitis often results in bloody diarrhea |
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Term
What may be seen on colonoscopy and biopsy in pts with radiation proctitis (2/2 radiation for prostate cancer)? |
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Definition
mucosal telangiectasias, submucosal fibrosis, and arteriolar endarteritis |
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Term
NSIM for gallstone pancreatitis?
NSIM for alcoholic pancreatitis?
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Definition
GS pancreatitis - ERCP
EtOH pancreatitis - enteral feeding + NG tube
-enteral feeding is prefered over parenteral feeding b/c of fewer complications (infection, less hospital stay, less bowel atrophy) |
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Term
What measures can reduce the sensivitiy of endoscopic rapid urease test?
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Definition
Intake of PPI, bismuth, or AbX
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Term
What is ischemic colitis and how does it present?
What is mesenteric ischemia and how does it present?
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Definition
IC - inflammation and injury of the large intestine result from inadequate blood supply.
-P/W LLQ pain, urgent defecation, bloody stool
MI - inflammation and injury of the small intestine result from inadequate blood supply.
-P/W severe abd pain, early physical exam findings are wnl (thus the classic "pain out of proportion to exam"). Bloody stool is rare. Late signs include n/v, fever, hematemesis, obstruction, and shock |
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Term
In what pt population do you screen for hepatocellular carcinoma?
What do you use to screen?
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Definition
Pts with Hepatitis B (even in absence of cirrhosis)
-Can screen with U/S
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Term
What is the maintenance therapy for Crohn's disease and Ulcerative Colitis?
What are the 1st and 2nd line drugs used for acute exacerbations of either? |
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Definition
Maintenance for both is sulfasalazine
-5-ASA (mesalamine) is the active component -> inhibits prostaglandin formation in GI -> reduces local inflammation
-more useful in UC than Crohns
Acute exacerbations of both is treated with corticosteroids first
-Second line drugs are immunosuppressants (azathiprine, 6-mercaptopurine)
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Term
NSIM for a pt with prostatitis who fails to improve in 36-72 hrs with appropriate AbX? |
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Definition
Transrectal U/S or CT abd/pelvis
-look for prostatic abscess as possible cause to prostatic inflammation unresponsive to AbX |
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Term
What features of sinusitis might suggest that it's due to a bacterial cause?
What is the treatment of choice for bacterial sinusitis? |
|
Definition
-onset of purulent rhinorrhea
-tooth pain
-biphasic symptoms (worsening of Sx after initially improving
-persistent Sx for >/= 10 days
-fever >102F
Treatment for bacterial sinusitis: amox/clav
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Term
What 2 criteria does an HIV pt with PCP pneumonia need to be placed on corticosteroids in addition to TMP-SMX?
What if pt is intolerant to TMP-SMX?
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Definition
1) pO2 < 70
2) A-a gradient >35
Pts who are intolerant to TMP-SMX should be given pentamadine |
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Term
What's the difference in appearance btwn a chancroid and genital herpes? |
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Definition
Chancroids are deep, ragged ulcers often with a purulent base
Genital herpes ulcers are typically vescicular in nature |
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Term
What is the treatment for kaposi sarcoma?
What is the treatment for Bacillary Angiomatosis? |
|
Definition
KS - intralesional and systemic chemotherapy and radiation
BA - PO erythromycin |
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Term
Is positive Toxoplasma serology specific for cerebral Toxoplasmosis in AIDS pts?
Is positive EBV DNA in CSF specific for primary CNS lymphoma in AIDS pts? |
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Definition
Positive Toxoplasma serology is NOT specific b/c Toxo is very common in the general population, so most people will have a positive serology
Positive EBV DNA in CSF is specific for primary CNS lymphoma in AIDS pts
-Note: both cerebral toxo and primary CNS lymphoma are ring enhancing on CT, but the lymphoma will be solitary, weakly enhancing, and periventricular (like cerebral CMV) |
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Term
What lab value do you follow to monitor a pt's response to HAART therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of what 3 things? |
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Definition
1) Sodium
2) Urea (thus increased BUN/Cr proportion)
3) Uric acid (thus gout exacerbation) |
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Term
Never diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism without first obtaining ____ to distinguish it from ______. |
|
Definition
-urine calcium documenting hypercalciuria
-distinguishing it from familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) |
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Term
What is the reason for the Z-score with the DEXA scan? |
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Definition
Z score compares old female bone density with that of the pt's
-tells us whether the pt's osteoporosis is typical, in other words 2/2 low estrogen
-if osteoporosis is 2/2 of hyper-PTHism, Vit D deficiency, Multiple Myeloma, then the Z score will be low |
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Term
Do you ever get a booster for the pneumococcal vaccine?
If so, when?
MKSAP (Sect 6, Q 39) |
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Definition
-A one-time booster 5 yrs after first dose is rec'd for > 65 y/o who received their first dose for any indication when they were younger than age 65 years
-Otherwise, a booster is not indicated |
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Term
What is the treatment for significant diphenhydramine intoxication? |
|
Definition
Administration of physostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, which reverses its effects |
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Term
What's the treatment for subacute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
IV penicillin G or ceftriaxone
-S. viridans is MC organism a/w subacute endocarditis
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Term
What are 3 ways you can have morning hypoglycemia in DMII?
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Definition
-Somoygi effect - when administered insulin levels peak early in morning (~3am) resulting in hypoglycemia -> counterregulatory hormone release (Epi, NE, Glucagon). 3am glucose is low
-Dawn effect - when insulin sensitivity decreases as a result of 3am release of GH. 3am glucose is high
-Waning of circulating insulin - 3am glucose is normal |
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Term
What are 3 side effects of azathioprine? |
|
Definition
dose related leukepenia, diarrhea, hepatoxicity
-think of the mneumonic LDH |
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Term
What 2 hypothalamac/pituitary hormones do corticosteroids inhibit? |
|
Definition
-CRH (blocks production and action of CRH on it's receptor)
-ADH |
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Term
What is the most important side effect of mycophenolate? |
|
Definition
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Term
What is presbycusis and who is it seen in?
What is otosclerosis and who is it seen in? |
|
Definition
presbycusis - sensorineural hearing loss that occurs w/ aging
-occurs in the 6th decade
-symmetrical loss of high frequency sound (difficulty hearing in crowded environments)
otosclerosis - conductive hearing loss a/w bony overgrowth of stapes
-seen in middle-aged individuals
-typically begins w/ low-frequency HL
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Term
How can you differentiate the metabolic acidosis of chronic renal failure from renal tubular acidosis? |
|
Definition
RTA results in a normal anion gap
Chronic Renal Failure results in increased anion gap |
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Term
What's the NSIM of a pt with vertebral osteomyelitis confirmed by MRI? |
|
Definition
Blood cultures!
-you cannot treat vertebral osteomyelitis w/o identifying the causative organism first
-if Blood Cx are negative, then do CT guided bone biopsy |
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Term
Is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is more a/w hypercapnic or hypoxemic respiratory failure? |
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Definition
Hypoxemic respiratory failure |
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Term
For a pt with chronic COPD, when are the following indicated:
-pulmonary rehab referral
-lung transplant |
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Definition
Pulm rehab referral - any patient with chronic respiratory disease who remains symptomatic or has decreased functional status despite otherwise optimal medical therapy. It increases exercise capacity, reduces dyspnea, improves quality of life, and decreases health care utilization
Lung transplant - patients who are hospitalized with COPD exacerbation complicated by hypercapnia (PCO2 > 50 and patients with FEV1 not exceeding 20% of predicted or DLCO less than 20% of predicted who are at high risk of death after lung volume reduction surgery) |
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Term
What is the ideal COPD candidate for lung resection surgery? |
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Definition
Pts with primarily upper lobe disease and an FEV1 between 20%-35% of predicted, a DLCO no lower than 20% of predicted, hyperinflation, and limited comorbidities |
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Term
What electrolyte abnormality is it contraindicated to use succinylcholine in?
Give examples of conditions that cause this electrolyte abn. |
|
Definition
Hyperkalemia b/c succinylcholine can cause significant potassium release and fatal arrhythmias
-burn or crush injuries (due to rhabdo), Guian Barre, Tumor lysis syndrome |
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Term
For how long should you keep a pt on heparin when bridging to warfarin when a pt has a DVT? |
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Definition
At least 5 days
-also, INR should be measured at therapeutic range (>2) on two occasions approximately 24 hours apart before stopping heparin |
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Term
Name 9 drugs (other than K+ sparing diuretics) that can cause hyperkalemia. |
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Definition
1) ACE-I
2) ASA
3) Cyclosporine
4) Heparin
5) Digoxin
6) Trimethorprim
7) Pentamidine
8) Succinylcholine
9) Beta-blockers |
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Term
What two drugs inhibit secretion of creatinine in the kidney thereby leading to a falsely elevated creatinine spike?
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Definition
1) Cimetidine (H2 blocker)
2) Trimethoprim (also causes hyperkalemia b/c it acts similar to K+ sparing diuretics in kidney) |
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Term
What 3 conditions might you see a low leukocyte alkyline phosphatase score? |
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Definition
1) CML
2) hypophosphatemia
3) paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria |
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Term
How is the diagnosis of vasovagal syncope made? |
|
Definition
Clinically!
-Hx of presyncopal n/v, diaphoresis, dizziness, etc is highly sensitive for Dx
-Tilt-Table Test is not sensitive, specific, or reproducible, and only provides a Dx in 60% of cases |
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Term
How long must a pt have depressive symptoms after the loss of a loved one to be a candidate for anti-depressant pharmacotherapy? |
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Definition
Depression for at least 2 consecutive weeks 8 or more weeks after their loved one's death are candidates for pharmacologic therapy. |
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Term
What drugs are used for the management of psoriatic arthritis? |
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Definition
NSAIDs, anti-TNF agents, and methotrexate are used for psoriatic arthritis
-corticosteroids are relatively contraindicated |
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Term
What is the stepwise (4) approach to treatment of ascites? |
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Definition
1) Sodium and water restriction
2) Spironolactone
3) Loop diuretic (not more than 1 L/day)
4) Frequent abdominal paracentesis (2-4 L/day, as long as renal function is ok) |
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Term
Name some occupations that are at high risk of lead poisoning. |
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Definition
Work with solder, paint, car radiators, batteries, pigments, lead glazes, smelting, and refining |
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Term
Burning what 2 things can cause cyanide poisoning?
What does the breath smell like of a pt with cyanide poisoning? |
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Definition
-Burning plastic or rubber
-Bitter almond breath |
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Term
What color skin do pts with the following classically have:
-carbon monoxide poisoning
-cyanide poisoning
-methemaglobinemia
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Definition
-CO and CN poisoning result in pink color skin b/c both block electron transport -> less oxygen utilization by tissues -> oxygen binds to Hb -> red blood
-also when CO binds to Hb it causes falsely elevated saturation on pulse oximeter
-methemaglobinemia causes blue color to skin b/c it blocks O2 binding to Hb -> blue color to blood |
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Term
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Definition
Infection of submandibular space. Typically begins on floor of mouth and extends through the submandibular and subligual spaces |
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Term
Non-spherical conrea can lead to _______. |
|
Definition
Astigmatism
-p/w blurry vision both at a distance and up close |
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Term
What drug can relieve the breathlessness a/w advanced cancer? |
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Definition
Opoids can relieve breathlessness a/w advanced cancer by an unknown mechanism |
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Term
What physical exam finding may help differentiate intestinal obstruction from ileus? |
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Definition
Bowel sounds
-obstruction will have hyperactive BS
-ileus will have hypoactive BS |
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Term
How might you differentiate a lacunar stroke from an intraparenchymal hemorrhage 2/2 HTN? |
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Definition
Intraparenchymal hemorrhage (MCly occurs in basal ganglia) p/w n/v, AMS plus deficits related to the area of the brain affected
-in the case of basal ganglia hemorrhage - hemiparesis +/- hemisensory loss, homonomous hemianopsia
Lacunar infarcts are typically pure motor or pure sensory strokes, but signs of ICP like n/v and AMS do not occur |
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Term
How can you differentiate sulfonylurea overdose from insulinoma as cause of hypoglycemia?
Qid 2188 |
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Definition
-In sulfonylurea overdose, the proinsulin level is sometimes lower than 20% of the total insulin immunoreactivity, whereas in insulinoma pts the proinsulin level is very high
-Dx is confirmed by measuring plasma sulfonylurea |
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Term
What are the following Dyslipidemias caused by?
What is the pharmacologic Tx?
Type I
Type IIa/IIb
Type IV
Type V |
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Definition
Type I: Exogenous hyperlipidemia, high chilomicrons, Tx: Diet
Type IIa: Familial hypercholesterolemia, high LDL, Tx: Statins, niacin, cholestyramine
Type IIb: Combined hyperlipoproteinemia, high LDL + VLDL, Tx: Statins, niacin, gemfibrozil
Type IV: Endogenous hyperlipidemia, high VLDL, Tx: Niacin, gemfibrozil, statins
Type V: Familial hyperTG, high VLDL + chylomicrons, Tx: Niacin, gemfibrozil
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Term
Does sensitivty and specificity measure accuracy (validity) or precision?
Does confidence interval measure accuracy or precision? |
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Definition
Sensitivity and specificity measure accuracy (validity)
-systematic error reduces accuracy
Confidence interval measures precision
-random error reduces precision |
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Term
Why is meperidine the opioid of choice for treating pancreatitis pain?
What other thing is meperidine known for that other opioid agonists are not known for? |
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Definition
-Meperidine causes less constriction of the Sphincter of Oddi
-Meperidine is the only opioid that has muscarinic blocking effect -> no meiosis! |
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Term
What two vitamins can a baby become deficient in when you switch them from cow's mile to goat's milk? |
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Definition
Folate and Pyridoxine (B6) |
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Term
Intake of soluble or insoluble fiber lowers cholesterol?
Intake of solube or insoluble fibers lowers risk for colon cancer and GYN cancer? |
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Definition
-Soluble fiber intake lowers cholesterol
-Solube and insoluble fiber intake lowers risk for colon cancer (due to excretion of lipocolic acid) and GYN cancers (due to excretion of excess estrogen) |
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Term
The single most important risk factor that contributes to mortality in the U.S. is... |
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Definition
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Term
What 3 conditions results in markedly elevated (>500) LFTs> |
|
Definition
1) Acute viral hepatitis
2) Shock liver
3) Drug induced hepatitis |
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Term
What is the most important feature of selenium deficiency?
Zinc? |
|
Definition
Selenium - cardiomyopathy
-recall, selenium is required for production of reduced glutathione
Zinc - abnormal taste (dysjucia), abnormal smell (anosmia), alopecia, bullous, pustulous lesions surrounding body orifaces and/or extremities, and impaired wound healing |
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Term
"Popcorn calcifications" seen on chest X-ray is a tip off for... |
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Definition
Bronchial hamartoma
(Goljan, Lecture 13, 27:00) |
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Term
A 57 y/o male with a long Hx of severe osteoarthritis comes to see you for a routine visit. After entering the room, the pt is visably angry and says, "I can't believe how insensitive you are putting your practice here! I could not find parking anywhere near here. Do you realize what that does to my knees?!"
What is the physician's best reply?
A) I'm sorry, it sounds like you are in a lot of pain, let's talk about what we can do so this does not happen again
B) I'm sorry, but you know, we do validate parking across the street
C) I'm sorry, it sounds like you are in a lot of pain, let me write you a perscription for the pain
D) I'm sorry, but I put my practice where most other practices are located in the area
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Definition
A) is correct - this expresses empathy and gives control to the patient
C) expresses empathy but does not address the issue the patient has with you
D) is defending yourself, it is not addressing the patient's concern
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Term
A 47 y/o obese male with HTN comes in for a routine health maintenance exam. The patient has no complaints, and the physical exam is normal. His most recent labs show a HbA1c of 7.6%.
What should the physician say do next?
A) Tell the patient that they have diabetes and recommend lifestyle modifications
B) Tell the patient they have diabetes and recommend lifestyle modifications and metformin
C) Tell the patient they have diabetes and ask what they know about diabetes
D) Tell the patient they have diabetes, explain what that means, and recommend lifestyle modifications
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Definition
C) is correct - after giving them the Dx of DM, you need to find out who you're talking to and what they know before launching into a discussion about what DM is and how to treat it
D) assumes the patient does not know what DM is, and if they do know about it you're just wasting your time and theirs
A) and B) don't allow you to get an understanding about what they understand of their own disease. Communicating what DM is before launching into a discussion about management is inappropriate b/c it doesn't allow the pt to be a partner in their own healthcare
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Term
56 y/o woman comes to see you with severe abdominal pain and diarrhea for 2 days. History and physical exam suggest bacterial gastroenteritis. Before revealing the diagnosis, she says "my next door neighbor has never liked me, I'm sure she's placed a voodoo curse on me making me feel this way."
What is the best reply?
A) Inform her of your tentative diagnosis
B) Inform her you have had great success dealing with just this kind of voodoo curse |
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Definition
B) is correct - it acceps the health beliefs of the patient. You are not lying--the pt calls it a "voodoo curse," so you call it a voodoo curse. You are simply using terms that represent her way of understanding her condition. |
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Term
If a patient needs a certain medication and they have no insurance and have no way to pay for it. What do you do? |
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Definition
Call a drug representative of the drug that patient needs. Try to get free samples for the patient, and inquire about any programs that the patient can be put in to get that drug. This is part of being an advocate of the patient |
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Term
What 4 conditions are commonly comorbid with panic disorder? |
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Definition
depression (60%), agoraphobia (40%), generalized anxiety disorder, substance abuse |
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Term
What is the cause of hypercholesterolemia in pts with anorexia nervosa? |
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Definition
Caused by elevated HDL (LDL and total cholesterol is wnl)
-possibly related to increased exercise |
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Term
What is the mechanism of refeeding syndrome? |
|
Definition
-mechanism is related to low phosphate resulting from:
-decreased dietary intake of phosphate
-increased insulin with refeeding -> cellular uptake of phosphate (and K+ and Mg2+) and causes cell to increase production of phosphate containing molecules (ATP and 2,3-BPG) -> lack of phosphorylated intermediates -> tissue hypoxia -> myocardial dysfunction and respiratory failure |
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Term
Fracture to what part of the clavical often requires open reduction? |
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Definition
Distal (lateral) 1/3
The vast majority occur in the middle 1/3, which typically only requires a brace, rest, and ice |
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Term
How does a pt hold their arm if they sustained:
-anterior shoulder dislocation
-posterior shoulder dislocation
What is the management? |
|
Definition
-anterior: slightly abducted and externally rotated
-posterior: adducted and internally rotated (with inability to externally rotate)
Management: closed reduction |
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Term
What are the distinguishing features of Myotonic Dystorphy?
What is the pathophysiology? |
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Definition
-Distinguishing Features: progressive mm weakness of distal hands, posterior forearm, and anterior compartment of legs, temporal wasting, upper lip in shape of V, DMII, cataracts, testicular atrophy, frontal balding, hypothyrpoidis
-Defect in mm Cl- channel -> mm cell unable to hyperpolerize -> mm cannot relax and gets damaged |
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|
Term
What is pulmonary alveolar proteinosis caused by?
What might you see on CXR?
What is the Tx? |
|
Definition
-Caused by accumulation of surfactant-like protein and phospholipids in alveoli
-possibly related to autoimmune process caused by production of anti-GM CSF antibodies
-CXR shows ground glass opacities w/ bilateral alveolar infiltrates that resemble a bat shape
-Tx: lung lavage; newer treatment is GM-CSF |
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Term
What must you suspect in a child with neck twisting to one side, and resistance to passive neck flexation?
What are common causes?
NSIM? |
|
Definition
-Suspsect Torticollis
-Causes: URI, minor trauma, cervical lymphadenitis, retropharyngeal abscess, antlantoaxial subluxation (seen in DS and RA)
-NSIM: Cervical spine radiograph to ensure no cervical spine fracture or dislocation |
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Term
What 4 non-GI symptoms associated with inflammatory bowel disease correlate with bowel disease severity? |
|
Definition
-episcleritis
-erethyma nodosum
-pyoderma gangrenosum
-migratory monoarticular arthritis |
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Term
What kind of gait do you see in pts with foot drop?
Where is the lesion typically for foot drop? |
|
Definition
-You see a "high stepping" gait
-since pt is unable to dorsiflex the fot, they over flex the hip and knee to bring the foot forward with each step
-the toes of the affected foot may also drag on the ground
-Occurs 2/2 peroneal nerve damage or L5 radiculopathy (spinal root contributing to peroneal nerve)
-Can be congenital such as in Charot-Marie-Tooth disease |
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Term
Describe the gait in pts with the following:
-corticospinal tract lesion
-basal ganglia lesion
-cerebellar lesion
-tarsal tunnel syndrome |
|
Definition
-CST: spastic leg is held extended and internally rotated, and walking occurs by abducting and advancing the spastic leg
-basal ganglia: festinating gait
-cerebellar: wide-based, erratic, staggering (they look drunk
-tarsal tunnel: entrapment of posterior tibial nerve as it passes underneath flexor retinaculum on medial aspect of ankle -> antalgic gait, where affected foot is favored and as little weight as possible is placed on it |
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Term
What is the management for cat bites?
Qid 4317 |
|
Definition
Clean the wound and perscribe amoxicillin/clavulanate for 5 days as prophylaxis against Pasteruella
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Term
What 2 cardiac drugs are known to increase digoxin levels? |
|
Definition
amioderone - decreases hepatic uptake of digoxin
verapamil - decreases renal tubular excretion of digoxin
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Term
What is Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?
Describe it's physical findings. |
|
Definition
-PSP is a degenerative cond'n of the brainstem, basal ganglia, and cerebellum, MCly affecting middle-aged and elderly men
-Like Parkinsons, PSP causes bradykinesia, limb rigidity, cognitive decline, and follows a progressive course
-Unlike PD, PSP:
-does NOT cause tremor
-does cause ophthalmoplegia |
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Term
What 3 things must you do in a pt with suspected pseudotumor cerebri before starting them on acetazolemide?
Why? |
|
Definition
1) CT head to r/o intracranial mass
2) MR venography to r/o venous sinus thrombosis
3) LP to document elevated opening pressure (>20), and to bring CSF pressure to below 20
-pseudotumor cerebri causes a communicating hydrocephalus, so LP is safe!!! |
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Term
Staph pneumonia is an uncommon cause of community acquired pneumonia. What 5 settings is staph pneumonia more commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
1) Hospitalized pts
2) Nursing Home Pts
3) IV drug abusers
4) CF pts
5) Pts with recent influenza infection |
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Term
What are the 4 SIRS criteria?
Define sepsis.
Define septic shock. |
|
Definition
-must meet 2/4 SIRS criteria:
-Temp >101.3 or < 95
-Pulse >90
-RR >20
-WBCs >12K or <4K or >10% bands
-Sepsis = SIRS + infection
-Septic shock = sepsis + hypotension (<90/60) |
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Term
How do you diagnose Duchenne's MD?
What is the Tx?
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Definition
-Dx by DNA testing (has now replaced mm Bx)
-mm Bx characteristically shows no inflam
-Tx: none, steroids may slow progression for limited period of time |
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Term
How do you differentiate Familial Short Stature, from Constitutional short stature, from GH deficiency as the cause of short stature? |
|
Definition
FSS - pts have normal height velocity and abnormal bone age
CSS - pts experience deceleration in height velocity at 6 months, but NORMAL velocity resumption by 3 yrs of age. Bone age = height age; although puberty is delayed, it will occur and child will acheive a normal adult height
GH deficiency - decreased height growth velocity, delayed bone age, and delayed puberty. Prominent features include: frontoal bossing, midline faceial defects [poor dev't of nasal bridge, thin hair, poor nail growth, micro penis, high pitched voice, truncal obesity, cherubic facies]) |
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Term
Describe the diagnostic findings in radial tunnel syndrome.
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|
Definition
Tenderness over the extensor muscle wad, nd pain elicited by flexing long fingerwhile actively extending the fingers and wrists |
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Term
Rotator cuff injury typically results from... |
|
Definition
-Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
-It presents with shoulder pain, weakness, and decreased range of motion |
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