Term
1-1
What is the function of a vortex generator? |
|
Definition
| It is designed to delay or prevent separation of the boundary layer |
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Term
1-2
What are the three axes of an airplane? |
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Definition
| Lateral, longitudinal, and vertical |
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Term
1-3
What are the three primary flight controls of an aircraft? |
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Definition
| Ailerons, Elevator, and Rudder |
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Term
1-4
Name several secondary flight controls and describe their general purpose. |
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Definition
| Trim tabs like balance tabs, spring tabs, anti-servo and servo tabs . They help the pilot in moving the controls and fly hands-off. |
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Term
1-5
Name several types of auxiliary flight controls and describe their general purpose. |
|
Definition
| Slats, slots , speed brakes, leading and trailing edge flaps. They are high-lift devices. |
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Term
1-6
What is a servo trim tab? |
|
Definition
| An auxiliary control that creates aerodynamic forces to help move a control surface. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| An auxiliary control that aids the movement of a primary control when control forces become too high, such as high speeds . |
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Term
1-8
What is a balance trim tab? |
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Definition
| An auxiliary control designed to create aerodynamic forces to assist in moving a control surface. |
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Term
1-9
What are the four most common types of high lift devices? |
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Definition
| Slats, slots, leading and trailing edge flaps. |
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Term
1-10
Describe some of the tools used to check control surface travel. |
|
Definition
| Propeller protractor or Surface protractor |
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Term
1-11
Name three mechanical methods by which flight control systems may be actuated. |
|
Definition
| Cables, push-pull rods, and torque tubes. |
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Term
|
Definition
| It is a device to prevent a cable from rubbing on the aircraft structure. |
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Term
1-13
What are the most likely places for a control cable to wear or break? |
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Definition
| Passing through the fairleads or over pulleys |
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Term
1-14
What information is required before a cable rigging chart can be used? |
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Definition
| The cable size and ambient temperature |
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Term
1-15
What is the function of a cable tension regulator? |
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Definition
| It automatically adjusts the cable tension to compensate for expansion and contraction in the aircraft structure |
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Term
1-16
Describe the function of a rotorcraft collective pitch control. |
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Definition
| The collective control causes each rotor blade to change its pitch angle by the same amount, thus increasing or decreasing the lift produced by the rotor |
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Term
1-17
Describe the function of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control. |
|
Definition
| The cyclic control tilts the main rotor disc by changing the pitch angle of each rotor blade during its cycle of rotation, which causes the helicopter to move in the direction the rotor tilts |
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Term
1-18
What mechanism is most commonly used to compensate for the torque produced by the main rotor of a helicopter? |
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Definition
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Term
1-19
How is the amount of thrust produced by the tail rotor controlled? |
|
Definition
| By moving the foot pedals |
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Term
1-20
Why should control surfaces be locked when an aircraft is parked? |
|
Definition
| To prevent damage from the wind |
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Term
2-1
What is the major type of damage to aluminum structures that is caused by exposure to the weather? |
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Definition
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Term
2-2
Name several methods for forming sheet metal. |
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Definition
| Bending, folding , stretching, shrinking, bumping, and crimping |
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Term
2-3
What are the dimensions of a properly formed rivet head? |
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Definition
| The width should be 1.5 times the shank diameter. The height should be 1/2 the shank diameter. |
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Term
2-4
Describe the markings found on the heads of A, B, D, AD, and DD rivets |
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Definition
| A rivets are plain, B rivets have a cross, D rivets have a dot, AD rivets have a dimple, and DD rivets have a double dash |
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Term
2-5
What happens to the stem of a self-plugging (friction lock) rivet when the rivet is installed? |
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Definition
| The stem is pulled until it snaps off and the remaining projecting part is trimmed flush with the head |
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Term
2-6
Name at least three types of self-plugging mechanical lock (lok) rivets |
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Definition
| OLYMPIC-LOK, HuckLok, CherryLOCK, and CherryMAX |
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Term
2-7
What is the difference between the tools required to pull a cherryLOCK rivet and a CherryMAX rivet? |
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Definition
| CherryLOCK rivets require a different tool for each rivet size. CherryMAX rivets only need one pulling tool regardless of rivet size. |
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Term
2-8
Which of the five stresses is the most common cause of rivet failure? |
|
Definition
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Term
2-9
If a 2024 rivet must be replaced with a 2117 rivet, how do you determine the size to be used? |
|
Definition
| For 5/32" or smaller diameter, use the next larger size, as long as edge distance and spacing meet minimums |
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Term
2-10
Describe the process for determining the total length of a solid rivet for a particular installation. |
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Definition
| Its the grip length plus 1.5 times the rivet diameter. |
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Term
2-11
What minimum edge distance and spacing should be used for a single row of protruding head rivets? |
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Definition
| The edge distance should be two rivet diameters. And the spacing should be three rivet diameters. |
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Term
2-12
How can a mechanic determine whether the countersink for a flush rivet should be dimpled or drilled? |
|
Definition
| By the thickness of the top sheet. Thin sheets are dimpled, thick sheets may be countersunk |
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Term
2-13
What action is taken to prevent cracks from forming while dimpling magnesium or some hard sheet metals? |
|
Definition
| Hot dimpling equipment is used to preheat and soften the metal before the dimple is formed |
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Term
2-14
What type of damage can occur when using a rivet set that does not properly fit the rivet? |
|
Definition
| The rivet head or sheet metal may be damaged. |
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Term
2-15
Why is it important to use the proper size and weight bucking bar when performing sheet metal riveting? |
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Definition
| If a bucking bar is too large it will be hard to control and cause damage. To light and it will not properly upset the rivet before work hardening occurs |
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Term
2-16
What procedures should be followed to properly remove a solid-shank rivet? |
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Definition
| Center punch the rivet. Drill to the base of the rivet head. Use pin punch to pry off the rivet head. Drive the remaining shank out of the hole. |
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Term
2-17
What two calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? |
|
Definition
| Bend allowance and Setback |
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Term
2-18
What factors must be considered to determine setback? |
|
Definition
| Bend radius and material thickness |
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Term
2-19
What is done to a corner where two bend intersect to prevent cracking? |
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Definition
| Relief holes are drilled in the corner |
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Term
2-20
What are the two reasons for installing a lightening hole in a sheet metal wing rib? |
|
Definition
| relief holes are drilled in the corner |
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Term
2-21
Describe a joggle and explain its function |
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Definition
| A joggle is an offset formed at an intersection of two or more sheets of metal to allow the multiple sheets to be tacked flat against each other |
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Term
2-22
When repairing an all-metal aircraft, how do you determine what metals should be used? |
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Definition
| Always use metal of the same type and thickness as the original |
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Term
3-1
What are three forms of wood commonly used in aircraft construction? |
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Definition
| Solid, laminated, and plywood |
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Term
3-2
What type of wood should be used when splicing or reinforcing plywood webs? |
|
Definition
| The same type of plywood as originally used |
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Term
3-3
Name at least four different types of defects found in wood |
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Definition
| Decay, dry rot, splits, knots, pitch pockets, checks, cross grain, curly grain |
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Term
3-4
Can a section of wood containing a hard knot be used? |
|
Definition
| Yes, within specified limits |
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Term
3-5
What type of glue may have been used in older wooden aircraft construction that requires careful inspection to detect deterioration? |
|
Definition
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Term
3-6
What are the three types of glues used in modern aircraft construction and repair? |
|
Definition
| Resorcinol glue, PF resin, and epoxy resin glue |
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Term
3-7
Is compression wood acceptable for structural repairs? |
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Definition
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Term
3-8
Why should the various pieces of wood being joined be kept in the same room for at least 24 hours prior to joining? |
|
Definition
| To allow the moisture content to equalize, minimizing dimensional changes |
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Term
3-9
Why is it important to consider the open-assembly time when gluing wooden structures? |
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Definition
| If the max. open-assembly time is exceeded, the glue may set before the joint is assembled. Causing the joint to fail |
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Term
3-10
Why is it important to apply the proper clamping pressure to a glue joint? |
|
Definition
| Clamping forces air out of the joint, brings the surfaces together evenly, and is responsible for the strength of the glue line |
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Term
3-11
Describe some of the methods used to apply pressure to glue joints |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3-12
What minimum curing temperature should be observed when joining wood with various adhesives? |
|
Definition
| 70 degrees F or as specified by the manufacturer |
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Term
3-13
When inspecting wood structures, why is it important to consider stains and discolored areas? |
|
Definition
| They usually accompany decay or rot |
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Term
3-14
Describe the acceptable methods used to repair elongated bolt holes found in a wooden wing spar |
|
Definition
| Remove the section with the elongated holes and splice in a new section of the spar. Or replace the entire spar |
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|
Term
3-15
What type of joint is used to splice a solid or rectangular wood spar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3-16
Where are splices to a wood spar prohibited? |
|
Definition
| Under the engine mount fittings, landing gear fittings, wing attach fittings, and inter-plane strut fittings |
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|
Term
3-17
What is the max number of splices for a single spar? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3-18
Describe the characteristics of a scarf joint |
|
Definition
| The pieces are beveled on a slope of 1to12, ideally. (1to10 is the min.) |
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|
Term
3-19
Why must the beveled cut be accurate on both pieces of wood with a scarf joint? |
|
Definition
| The pieces must match for a tight glue joint |
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|
Term
3-20
What are the two primary uses for plywood in aircraft construction? |
|
Definition
| Reinforcing (gusset) plates, and aircraft skin |
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|
Term
3-21
Give four examples of plywood skin repairs |
|
Definition
| Splayed patches, surface patches, scarfed patches, plug patches |
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Term
3-22
What type of patch should be used to repair small holes in thin plywood skin if the skin is less than 1/10th inch thick? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3-23
What should be done to prevent a plywood patch and the pressure plate from sticking together if glue is extruded from the joint? |
|
Definition
| Place wax paper between the patch and the plate |
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|
Term
3-24
Why are lightweight steel bushings sometimes used in wooden structures? |
|
Definition
| Bushings prevent the wood from being crushed when bolts are tightened |
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|
Term
3-25
What is the purpose of large surface area washers when used on wooden structures? |
|
Definition
| Large washers help prevent damage to wood by providing additional bearing area for the hardware when its being tightened. |
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|
Term
3-26
Name several facings and core materials used in bonded honeycomb structures intended for special applications |
|
Definition
| Stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, nylon, plywood, glass, cotton cloth |
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|
Term
3-27
Describe the construction of a bonded honeycomb structure |
|
Definition
| A laminated structure with a solid facing, bonded to either side of a core made of open six sided cells. |
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Term
3-28
What must be done with a damaged area in a bonded honeycomb structure before repairs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3-29
A drill bit used for drilling composites should have an included angle of how many degrees? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3-30
What are the most common causes for delamination of a composite structure? |
|
Definition
| manufacturing error, liquid leakage, and expansion of internal moisture. |
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Term
3-31
What type of defect in or damage to a bonded honeycomb structure can be repaired using the potted repair method? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3-32
Name some of the factors that cause crazing in transparent plastic windows and windshields |
|
Definition
| Stress, solvents, improper handling, UV light |
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Term
3-33
How should a hole be drilled in plexiglas to avoid damage to the hole when the drill breaks through? |
|
Definition
| Back up the plastic with a piece of wood and feed the drill slowly |
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|
Term
4-1
Name the three types of welding |
|
Definition
| Gas welding, electric arc welding, and electric resistance welding. |
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Term
4-2
What are some advantages of shielded gas arc welding? |
|
Definition
| The weld is stronger and more corrosion resistant |
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|
Term
4-3
Which method of welding is less likely to cause buckling or warping of thin metal sheets? |
|
Definition
| electric arc welding or TIG |
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|
Term
4-4
What is the purpose of shielding an arc weld with an inert gas? |
|
Definition
| The gas prevents oxygen from contaminating the weld |
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|
Term
4-5
What is a common method of controlling expansion when welding a joint? |
|
Definition
| Tack welding along the length of the joint |
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|
Term
4-6
What is the effect of inadequate penetration on a weld? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4-7
What is the purpose of the flux used with brazing and silver soldering? |
|
Definition
| The flux cleans the base metal by removing any oxide film |
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|
Term
4-8
What type of flame is used when torch brazing or silver soldering? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
4-9
What must be done to a soldering iron tip to increase the amount of heat transferred from the tip to the work? |
|
Definition
| Tip must be cleaned of contaminates and tinned |
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|
Term
4-10
What is the preferred method for welding aluminum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4-11
What is the preferred method of welding magnesium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4-12
What precautions must be observed in order to weld titanium? |
|
Definition
| Oxygen and nitrogen must be kept away from the weld area |
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|
Term
4-13
Describe one type of repair that could be made to a dented steel tube cluster joint |
|
Definition
| A formed steel patch plate could be welded over the damaged area |
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|
Term
4-14
How can a soft flame be obtained without reducing the heat output of the torch? |
|
Definition
| Change the tip and gas pressure accordingly |
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|
Term
4-15
What factors determine the amount of heat delivered by a gas welding torch? |
|
Definition
| The size of the torch tip and gas pressure |
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|
Term
4-16
When an oxyacetylene torch is extinguished, which valve is turned off first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4-17
When a gas welding project is completed, what safety precautions should be accomplished? |
|
Definition
| All valves turned off and pressures relieved |
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|
Term
4-18
What should be done to a heat treated aluminum part after welded repairs are completed? |
|
Definition
| The part must be re heat-treated |
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Term
4-19
Welding magnesium can create a serious safety hazard. What is the nature of this hazard? |
|
Definition
| Magnesium burns with a very hot flame that is very hard to extinguish. |
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Term
4-20
What technique might be used to enable a tight-fitting inner sleeve to be inserted into a tubular repair? |
|
Definition
| The inner tube could be chilled with dry ice or in a freezer while the outer tube could be heated slightly with a torch. |
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|
Term
5-1
Aircraft fabrics are made of materials from what two sources? |
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Definition
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Term
5-2
How would you determine the strength requirements for fabric used to re-cover an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The fabric must be the same quality and strength as the fabric from the original manufacturer, at minimum. |
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Term
5-3
What is meant by warp, weft, and bias? |
|
Definition
| Warp is the direction along the length of the fabric, weft is across the fabric at right angles, and bias is at a 45 degree angle to warp and weft |
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Term
5-4
What two types of organic fibers are used for covering aircraft? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
5-5
What is the purpose of the selvage edge on a roll of fabric? |
|
Definition
| It prevents the fabric from unravelling |
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Term
5-6
What identification marking is found on the selvage edge on a roll of fabric, and in what direction is the warp applied? |
|
Definition
| The FAA-PMA stamp. The warp is parallel to the line of flight |
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Term
5-7
How are the fabric type and strength requirements determined for fabric covered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The fabric type is determined by the original manufacturer. The strength requirements is determined by the never exceed speed and wing loading. |
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|
Term
5-8
What types of synthetic fibers are used for covering aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Fiberglass and heat shrinkable polyester fibers |
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|
Term
5-9
Which of the several types of fabric is unaffected by moisture and mildew? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
5-10
What is the function or purpose of reinforcing tape? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the lacing cord from cutting through the fabric. |
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|
Term
5-11
Where would you use surface tape? |
|
Definition
| Over rib stitching and sewed seams, over lapped edges, around corners, and along leading and trailing edges. |
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Term
5-12
How should the edges of drainage, inspection, and ventilation holes be reinforced? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
5-13
What are the principle methods used to test the condition of fabric? |
|
Definition
| Punch testers and pull-testing |
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|
Term
5-14
Fabric is considered unairworthy when it has deteriorated to what percentage of its original strength? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
5-15
How should a structure that will be covered with doped fabric be prepared following inspection and prior to covering? |
|
Definition
| Treat it with a protective paint or varnish. |
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|
Term
5-16
What is the principal advantage of the envelope method for covering wings? |
|
Definition
| The seams are machine-sewed by the envelope supplier |
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|
Term
5-17
What is a tie-off knot? |
|
Definition
| A modified-seine-knot used on all stitches except the starting stitch |
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|
Term
5-18
Name three common types of machine-sewed seams |
|
Definition
| French fell, folded fell, plain overlap |
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|
Term
5-19
Where are anti-tear strips used? |
|
Definition
| Under wing rib stitching, when the never exceed speed is greater than 250mph |
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Term
5-20
How would you determine the correct spacing for rib stitching if the original spacing was unknown? |
|
Definition
| Consult the chart in AC 43.13-1B |
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|
Term
6-1
Why is butyrate dope safer to use than nitrate dope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-2
What are the two types of dope used for fabric finishes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-3
What is the appearance of a blushing paint finish? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-4
What finishing defect is the result of a paint room temperature that is too warm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-5
What causes dope to blush? |
|
Definition
| High humidity, moisture in the spray system, or application over a damp surface |
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|
Term
6-6
What factors cause spray paint sags and runs? |
|
Definition
| Paint sprayed on too thickly |
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|
Term
6-7
What components or parts of the airframe must be protected from damage when using paint stripper? |
|
Definition
| Windshields and windows, plastics, synthetic rubber, composites, and fabrics |
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|
Term
6-8
What is the function of zinc-chromate or wash primers? |
|
Definition
| Primers inhibit corrosion. And are a good bond between metal and topcoats. |
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|
Term
6-9
Name several common types of paint used on aircraft |
|
Definition
| zinc-chromate primer, wash primer, polyurethane, synthetic enamels, and acrylic lacquer |
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|
Term
6-10
What is the proper thinner to use with zinc-chromate primer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-11
What health and safety precautions must be observed when using the toxic solvents and thinners that are part of modern finishing systems? |
|
Definition
| Respirators and or masks must be worn when spraying finishes |
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|
Term
6-12
If spray painting dust causes a surface to appear dry and rough, what are the most likely causes? |
|
Definition
| Too much air pressure or the spray gun is too far from the surface |
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|
Term
6-13
What causes "orange peel"? |
|
Definition
| To high spray pressure, cold temperatures, damp draft , thinner dries too quickly. |
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|
Term
6-14
What regulation governs the application of the registration numbers to aircraft registered in the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6-15
Other than appearance, what is another reason for touching up painted surfaces? |
|
Definition
| To help prevent corrosion |
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|
Term
6-16
What references should be used to determine if a control surface must be checked and/or rebalanced after painting? |
|
Definition
| The manufacturer's service manual |
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|
Term
6-17
What would be the effect if dope was used over paint or enamel? |
|
Definition
| The dope tends to dissolve these materials |
|
|
Term
6-18
What are the three most commonly used methods of applying paint? |
|
Definition
| Brushing, spraying, dipping |
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|
Term
6-19
What is the effect on paint finishes if too much drier is added to the paint? |
|
Definition
| The paint film will be brittle and tend to crack and peel |
|
|
Term
6-20
What paint systems may be used with epoxy topcoats? |
|
Definition
| Any paint system in good condition |
|
|
Term
7-1
What could cause an AC motor to run too fast? |
|
Definition
| To much applied voltage, or shorted field windings |
|
|
Term
7-2
What tool is used to check a motor or generator armature for shorts and opens under load conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-3
When using a growler, what indication will occur when a short exists between an armature segment? |
|
Definition
| When a metal blade is held over the armature and a short exists in a segment, the blade will begin to vibrate and "chatter". |
|
|
Term
7-4
How is the output voltage of an alternator controlled? |
|
Definition
| By varying the field current that excites the alternator |
|
|
Term
7-5
What instruments are used to monitor electrical system loads? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-6
How would you identify a specific wire in a wire bundle? |
|
Definition
| By the identification code marked on the wire |
|
|
Term
7-7
What tool would you use to determine the size of an unmarked wire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-8
What color are the navigation lights on the wingtips? |
|
Definition
| left is red, right is green |
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|
Term
7-9
Name several types of electrical devices that would be considered intermittent loads on an electrical system |
|
Definition
| Radio transmitters, landing gear, flap motors |
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|
Term
7-10
Why would it be necessary to analyze an electrical system before increasing the load on the system? |
|
Definition
To make sure that the system can handle the additional load. That you're not going outside any sub-system or device's capacity.
(To determine that the generator capacity, wire size, and protective device capacity will not be exceeded) |
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|
Term
7-11
What factors should be considered when determining the wire size for a particular application? |
|
Definition
| The system voltage, permissible voltage drop, current to be carried, wire length, and whether the load is continuous or intermittent |
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|
Term
7-12
What is the relationship between the inside diameter of a conduit and the outside diameter of the wire bundle inside it? |
|
Definition
| The conduit must be 25% larger than the wire bundle |
|
|
Term
7-13
What is the maximum number of terminal lugs that can be placed on a single terminal strip stud? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-14
What is the proper length for a bonding jumper? |
|
Definition
| As short as practical, but long enough to allow free movement of the component |
|
|
Term
7-15
Under what conditions must a switch be derated from its nominal rating? |
|
Definition
| When used with inductive circuits, circuits with high in-rush current, and with DC motors |
|
|
Term
7-16
At what point do electric motors draw the most current? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-17
Circuit breakers are designed to open before what condition occurs? |
|
Definition
| Before the wire emits smoke |
|
|
Term
7-18
At what point in a circuit should the protective device be located? |
|
Definition
| As close as possible to the power source |
|
|
Term
7-19
What type of circuit breaker may not be used in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-20
What part of an aircraft is identified by a white navigation light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7-21
What could cause an AC electric motor to run too slowly? |
|
Definition
| Low voltage, no lubrication, bad wiring. |
|
|
Term
7-22
What should be done when making bonding or grounding connections between dissimilar materials? |
|
Definition
| Use a suitable washer so that any corrosion will occur on the washer |
|
|
Term
7-23
Prior to making a continuity check, what must be done to an electrical circuit? |
|
Definition
| The power must be turned off |
|
|
Term
8-1
What materials form the bases of the three types of hydraulic fluids? |
|
Definition
| Vegetable, mineral, and phosphate-esters |
|
|
Term
8-2
What colors denote mineral-based and phosphate-ester based hydraulic fluids? |
|
Definition
| Mineral based fluids are red, phosphate-ester based fluids are light purple |
|
|
Term
8-3
What are the results of exposing lacquers, oil-based paint, plastic resins, and vinyl compounds to phosphate-ester based hydraulic fluid? |
|
Definition
| The materials will be damaged and/or softened, or the paint will peel |
|
|
Term
8-4
Name several sources used to develop hydraulic pressure |
|
Definition
| Hand pumps, engine driven pumps, and electrically driven pumps |
|
|
Term
8-5
What would cause the bypass valve in a hydraulic filter to open and allow unfiltered fluid to circulate in the system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8-6
Describe several methods of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir |
|
Definition
| Engine bleed air, system pressure acting on a small piston in the reservoir, variable-displacement hydraulic pumps |
|
|
Term
8-7
What feature prevents engine damage if an engine-driven hydraulic pump seizes or is overloaded? |
|
Definition
| A shear section in the pump driveshaft will break, disconnecting the pump from the engine |
|
|
Term
8-8
Describe the purpose of a pressure relief valve |
|
Definition
| Pressure relief valves limit the maximum pressure produced by the pump, preventing failures of the system components |
|
|
Term
8-9
Engine driven pumps deliver the output fluid flow in what two forms? |
|
Definition
| Constant or Variable volume |
|
|
Term
8-10
Describe the operation of a gear-type pump |
|
Definition
| Two meshed gears, driven by a power source, rotate in a housing. Inlet fluid is carried around the outside of the gears and delivered to the outlet side as the gears rotate |
|
|
Term
8-11
Describe the purpose of a pressure regulator |
|
Definition
| Pressure regulators manage the output of the pump to maintain system pressure. They allow the pump to be unloaded so it turns without significant resistance |
|
|
Term
8-12
What is the device that is used in some systems to supplement the pump output during periods of high demand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8-13
What are the three different types of accumulators? |
|
Definition
| Piston, diaphragm, and bladder |
|
|
Term
8-14
What safety precautions must be taken prior to disassembling an accumulator? |
|
Definition
| Release all of the air or preload |
|
|
Term
8-15
When a hydraulic unit is replaced, what precautions should be taken to avoid contamination of the system? |
|
Definition
| All lines should be capped or plugged immediately after they are disconnected |
|
|
Term
8-16
What types of components or systems are pneumatically operated in some aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Landing gear, brakes, flaps, and other mechanical actuators |
|
|
Term
8-17
Name several sources of pneumatic power. |
|
Definition
| Storage bottles, engine bleed air, engine-driven compressors, or vane-type pumps |
|
|
Term
8-18
What happens to excess pressure in a pneumatic system? |
|
Definition
| A relief valve vents it overboard |
|
|
Term
8-19
What is the function of a restrictor in a pneumatic system? |
|
Definition
| To control the rate of the airflow |
|
|
Term
8-20
What are the reasons for periodically purging a pneumatic system? |
|
Definition
| To remove moisture and contaminants |
|
|
Term
9-1
What is the purpose of a torque link on an oleo strut? |
|
Definition
| To keep the wheel in alignment and prevent the piston from coming out of the cylinder |
|
|
Term
9-2
A landing gear shock strut should be inflated with what gas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9-3
What conditions should a mechanic look for during a regular inspection of the exposed piston section of a landing gear? |
|
Definition
| Cleanliness, evidence of damage, and proper extension |
|
|
Term
9-4
What prevents air from leaking out between the two halves of a split wheel assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9-5
Why are fusible plugs installed on some aircraft wheels? |
|
Definition
| To release the pressure generated by heat build-up before a tire blows |
|
|
Term
9-6
What safety precaution must be taken when removing a wheel from an axle or when disassembling a wheel? |
|
Definition
| Verify that the tire is completely deflated before removing a wheel from an axle or disassembling |
|
|
Term
9-7
What are the visible signs of excessive heating on a wheel bearing? |
|
Definition
| discoloration on bearing surfaces |
|
|
Term
9-8
How are the pilot's nose wheel steering commands transmitted to the steering control unit of a large aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Mechanically, electrically, or hydraulically |
|
|
Term
9-9
How is the nose wheel steering mechanism usually actuated on a small aircraft? |
|
Definition
| By means of a mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals |
|
|
Term
9-10
What is the name of the unit that prevents a nose wheel from vibrating or oscillating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9-11
What are the most common sources of power used to extend and retract landing gear? |
|
Definition
| Hydraulic pressure and electric motors |
|
|
Term
9-12
At what times should a gear retraction check be performed? |
|
Definition
| During annual or other inspections, or following a hard landing |
|
|
Term
9-13
What mechanism ensures that a nosewheel is not turned as it retracts into its wheel well? |
|
Definition
| Internal centering cams in the strut or an external track |
|
|
Term
9-14
Name several types of brake actuating systems |
|
Definition
| Independent master cylinders, boosted brakes, power controlled brakes. |
|
|
Term
9-15
What is the function of an anti-skid system? |
|
Definition
| They allow large aircraft to achieve maximum braking effectiveness without allowing wheels to skid or lock |
|
|
Term
9-16
What is the purpose of a debooster? |
|
Definition
| To reduce hydraulic pressure to a lower value for more satisfactory brake action |
|
|
Term
9-17
Describe two methods of bleeding brakes |
|
Definition
| A pressure pot can be attached to the bleeder valve and force fluid back towards the master cylinder or reservoir, or the master cylinder can be used for forcing fluid from the reservoir to the brakes |
|
|
Term
9-18
Before a brake system can be inspected for leaks, what action must be accomplished? |
|
Definition
| Pressure must be applied to the system |
|
|
Term
9-19
What maintenance function has the greatest impact on tire service life? |
|
Definition
| Ensuring that the tires are properly inflated |
|
|
Term
9-20
What effect does under inflation have on aircraft tires? |
|
Definition
| Internal heat damage possibly leading to premature tire failure, amd more tread wear on the shoulders than in the center |
|
|
Term
10-1
What unit in an anti-skid system generates the anti-skid warning signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10-2
How is a pilot alerted that an anti-skid system has automatically returned to a manual brake system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10-3
What is the significance of an anti-skid warning? |
|
Definition
| The system is off or has failed |
|
|
Term
10-4
How does the stall warning system in a small aircraft alert the pilot of an impending stall? |
|
Definition
| By an audible alert and/or warning light |
|
|
Term
10-5
What devices are used to provide warnings for a retractable landing gear system? |
|
Definition
| A horn or other aural device, and a red warning light(s) |
|
|
Term
10-6
How can a pilot determine that the landing gear is down and locked? |
|
Definition
| A green light or other visual indicator |
|
|
Term
10-7
Name at least two conditions that would activate a takeoff configuration warning system in a jet transport aircraft |
|
Definition
| Incorrect leading or trailing edge flap position, stabilizer position, or speed brake not stowed |
|
|
Term
10-8
What landing gear positions must be indicated by regulations? |
|
Definition
| Down and locked, Up and locked |
|
|
Term
10-9
Under what conditions will a landing gear aural warning sound? |
|
Definition
| When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked |
|
|
Term
10-10
How does a takeoff configuration warning differ from a landing gear warning? |
|
Definition
| Takeoff warnings are usually intermittent horn, while landing gear are steady horn |
|
|
Term
10-11
What is the function of a mach airspeed warning system? |
|
Definition
| To alert the pilot that the never exceed air speed limit has been reached or exceeded |
|
|
Term
10-12
What systems are commonly used to activate the landing gear warning systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10-13
Why do airplanes with bleed air anti icing of the wing leading edge have an anti ice overheat light? |
|
Definition
| To indicate an over-temp condition, usually from a break in the bleed air ducts |
|
|
Term
10-14
What warning system may be required when a ni-cad battery is installed in the airplane? |
|
Definition
| A battery temp monitoring system |
|
|
Term
10-15
At what time would a check of landing gear warning system normally be made? |
|
Definition
| During a landing gear retraction test |
|
|
Term
10-16
What is the purpose of an annunciator system? |
|
Definition
| To show, with a warning light, that some system parameter requires attention from the flight crew |
|
|
Term
10-17
If an aircraft with retractable landing gear has only one green light to indicate the gear is down and locked, how will the switches be connected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10-18
Where would you locate the procedures for checking and adjusting the landing gear switches? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft manufacturer's manual |
|
|
Term
10-19
What is the usual means for alerting the crew of a jet transport that the cabin doors are not properly closed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10-20
Why are transport category aircraft equipped with a master caution and warning system? |
|
Definition
| To alert the crew that a malfunction has occurred and corrective action may be required |
|
|
Term
11-1
A static check may be performed on a manifold pressure gauge by using what piece of information? |
|
Definition
| Current atmospheric pressure |
|
|
Term
11-2
What aircraft instrument can be used to check a manifold pressure gauge for proper indication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11-3
Name several of the indication errors that may be found in altimeters |
|
Definition
| Scale errors, hysteresis, friction, installation |
|
|
Term
11-4
What is the signal source in an electrical resistance type temperature indicating system? |
|
Definition
| A temperature bulb or sensing element |
|
|
Term
11-5
What type of temperature sensing system is normally used to measure a turbine engine exhaust gas temperature? |
|
Definition
| A thermocouple type system |
|
|
Term
11-6
What operating parameter is indicated by a tachometer? |
|
Definition
| Engine RPM (crankshaft or turbine rotor speed) |
|
|
Term
11-7
What is the name of the effect that causes a gyro to respond to an applied force at a point 90 degrees further in the direction of rotation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11-8
What aircraft instruments are connected to the pitot-static system? |
|
Definition
| The altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed, and mach meter in high performance jets |
|
|
Term
11-9
What are the three sources of power used to drive a gyroscopic turn indicator? |
|
Definition
| Air from a vacuum source, from a pressure source, or an electric motor |
|
|
Term
11-10
What are two items that should be considered during inspection of a magnetic compass? |
|
Definition
| 1. The fluid must be clear 2. The housing must be full with no bubbles 3. The card must be legible and the lubber line intact 4. The compass should be properly calibrated |
|
|
Term
11-11
In what way do magnetic fields generated by electrical equipment and steel parts in the airplane affect a magnetic compass? |
|
Definition
| Stray magnetic fields deflect the compass from the correct alignment with the earth's magnetic field |
|
|
Term
11-12
Describe the basic operating concept of a synchro-type remote indicating system |
|
Definition
| A remote transmitter electrically signals a receiver inside the instrument |
|
|
Term
11-13
Why should you avoid cleaning obstructions from the sensing holes in a pitot-static system with a tool? |
|
Definition
| The holes are aerodynamically critical |
|
|
Term
11-14
After components in a pitot-static system have been replaced, what tests or inspections are required? |
|
Definition
| The static system leak test specified in FAR 91.411 |
|
|
Term
11-15
What quantity is measured by a capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11-16
Who is authorized to apply the range markings to an instrument dial face? |
|
Definition
| The manufacturer or a certificated instrument repair station |
|
|
Term
11-17
What is the purpose of a slippage mark on an instrument glass? |
|
Definition
| To indicate if the glass has moved, which could cause incorrect range markings when they are painted on the glass |
|
|
Term
11-18
What references should be consulted to determine the proper range markings for aircraft instruments? |
|
Definition
| The aircraft maintenance manual, flight manual, TCDS, or Aircraft specifications |
|
|
Term
11-19
What is the meaning of a yellow arc on an aircraft instrument? |
|
Definition
| A caution or limited flight operations range |
|
|
Term
11-20
What is the reason for swinging a compass and how is it accomplished? |
|
Definition
| To compensate for deviations caused by magnetic fields in the aircraft, by adjusting the compensating magnets |
|
|
Term
12-1
What are the basic components of a radio communication system? |
|
Definition
| A microphone, transmitter, transmitting and receiving antennas, receiver, and speaker or headphones |
|
|
Term
12-2
What frequency range is used by most modern voice communications systems? |
|
Definition
| VHF band, 118.0 to 136.975 |
|
|
Term
12-3
What does the term ADF stand for |
|
Definition
| Automatic Direction Finder |
|
|
Term
12-4
What is the function of VOR equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12-5
Name the components of a typical airborne VOR system |
|
Definition
| Receiver, antennas, frequency selector and a visual display indicator |
|
|
Term
12-7
At what interval must an ATC transponder system be certified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12-8
Why are two antennas usually required for an ILS system? |
|
Definition
| The localizer and glideslope signals are transmitted on different frequencies |
|
|
Term
12-9
What information does the glideslope beam provide? |
|
Definition
| Vertical guidance to enable the aircraft to maintain the correct descent angle |
|
|
Term
12-10
What is the power source for an ELT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12-11
Describe one method of monitoring the signal output during an ELT test |
|
Definition
| Tune a comm receiver to 121.5 |
|
|
Term
12-12
How would you determine if the batteries in an ELT are due for recharge or replacement? |
|
Definition
| By looking for an expiration date for recharge or replacement on the battery and/or in the aircraft maintenance records |
|
|
Term
12-13
At what times is a test of an installed ELT permitted? |
|
Definition
| During the first 5 minutes after the hour and for no more than 3 sweeps. |
|
|
Term
12-14
Where on the aircraft would you expect to find a DME antenna? |
|
Definition
| Usually on the bottom of the fuselage so that it isn't blocked by the wing during turns |
|
|
Term
12-15
Describe the shape and location of a transponder antenna |
|
Definition
| Either a short blade or a short wire with a ball end located on the bottom of the fuselage |
|
|
Term
12-16
Name the basic components of an autopilot system |
|
Definition
| Gyros, servos, a controller, and an amplifier or computer |
|
|
Term
12-17
What are the sensing elements of an autopilot system? |
|
Definition
| Attitude, directional, and turning gyros, and an altitude sensor |
|
|
Term
12-18
What is the function of the servos in the autopilot system? |
|
Definition
| The servos actuate the flight controls |
|
|
Term
12-19
What is the purpose of a bonding jumper from a radio shock mount to the airframe? |
|
Definition
| To provide a low impedance ground return |
|
|
Term
12-20
Describe the procedure used to route coaxial cable from an antenna to a receiver |
|
Definition
| The cable should be supported every 2 feet, bends should be 10 times the cable diameter, and it should be routed separately (directly if possible) |
|
|
Term
12-6
What does DME stand for? |
|
Definition
| Distance measuring equipment |
|
|
Term
13-1
What controls the temperature in a thermal anti-icing system? |
|
Definition
| Hot and cold air are mixed |
|
|
Term
13-2
What are the sources of heat for thermal anti-icing systems? |
|
Definition
| Bleed air from the compressor section of a turbine engine, engine exhaust heat exchangers, and combustion heaters |
|
|
Term
13-3
What prevents overheating of the leading edges of a thermal anti-ice system operated by engine bleed air? |
|
Definition
| Overheat sensors close anti-icing valves and shut off the hot air |
|
|
Term
13-4
What happens to the hot air used by a thermal anti-ice system after it has heated the surface? |
|
Definition
| The air is dumped (exhausted) overboard |
|
|
Term
13-5
Why is it necessary to provide overheat protection for anti-icing systems that use turbine engine bleed air? |
|
Definition
| The air is hot enough to cause damage to the aircraft structure |
|
|
Term
13-6
What are the effects of arcing on an electrically heated windshield? |
|
Definition
| Localized overheating and damage to the windshield |
|
|
Term
13-7
Can the operation of an electrically heated pitot-tube be checked with the aircraft's ammeter, and if so, how? |
|
Definition
| Yes, turn on the pitot heater and watch the deflection of the ammeter needle |
|
|
Term
13-8
Describe several potential problems associated with electrically heated windshields |
|
Definition
| Arcing, delamination, scratches, discoloration |
|
|
Term
13-9
Why do some pneumatic deicer boot systems have and electrically operated timer? |
|
Definition
| To automatically cycle the boots, provide the proper rest time, then recycle the boots |
|
|
Term
13-10
What are the two common methods of inflating deicer boots? |
|
Definition
| Bleed air from a turbine engine, and exhaust from an engine driven vacuum pump. |
|
|
Term
13-11
What procedure is used to hold deicer boots flat with the airfoil surface during flight? |
|
Definition
| Suction is applied to the boots |
|
|
Term
13-12
Why do some deicer boot systems incorporate an oil separator? |
|
Definition
| If a wet pump system is used, the oil must be removed before it reaches the boots because it would damage the rubber |
|
|
Term
13-13
What methods are used to attach a deicer boot to the leading edges of the wing and tail surfaces? |
|
Definition
| Adhesives, fairing strips and screws, or a combination |
|
|
Term
13-14
What important step should be taken prior to making a cold-patch repair to a deicer boot? |
|
Definition
| Consult the service manual and follow instructions |
|
|
Term
13-15
Describe the methods commonly used to remove rain from a windshield |
|
Definition
| Windshield wipers, a blast of air, or chemical rain repellant |
|
|
Term
13-16
What power sources are used to operate windshield wipers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13-17
Name two problems associated with in-flight operation of aircraft windshield wipers |
|
Definition
| Insufficient blade pressure caused by aerodynamic forces and failure to oscillate fast enough |
|
|
Term
13-18
Describe the operation of a pneumatic rain removal system |
|
Definition
| A high velocity air blast prevents the rain from reaching the windshield |
|
|
Term
13-19
What are the effects of spraying rain repellant on a dry windshield? |
|
Definition
| It smears and streaks, reducing visibility, and is hard to remove when dry |
|
|
Term
13-20
Where would you find information on the acceptable limits of windshield delamination? |
|
Definition
| In reference material provided by the manufacturer |
|
|
Term
14-1
Is there any special requirement as to the type of oxygen used in an aircraft system, and if so, what is it? |
|
Definition
| Only aviators breathing oxygen should be used |
|
|
Term
14-2
Describe the operating principle of a continuous-flow oxygen system |
|
Definition
| High-pressure Oxygen flows from the storage cylinder to a pressure regulator where its pressure is reduced and then to the mask outlets when the system is turned on |
|
|
Term
14-3
Describe the operating principle of a pressure-demand oxygen system |
|
Definition
| Demand systems allow oxygen to flow from the cylinder to the regulator and then to the mask only when the user inhales. Pressure-demand systems provide O2 to the user at higher than atmospheric pressure when used at extremely high altitudes, forcing oxygen into users lungs |
|
|
Term
14-4
What should be used to purge an oxygen system of moisture? |
|
Definition
| Oxygen, dry air, or nitrogen |
|
|
Term
14-5
What action must be taken when an oxygen system has been open to the atmosphere? |
|
Definition
| The system must be purged of any moisture |
|
|
Term
14-6
Describe the safety precautions that should be observed when servicing oxygen systems |
|
Definition
| Avoid all contact with petroleum-based oil or grease, don't smoke, keep everything very clean, service systems outdoors if possible, keep caps on bottles to protect valves |
|
|
Term
14-7
What is a Roots blower? |
|
Definition
| A type of engine driven compressor |
|
|
Term
14-8
Name two different types of independent cabin air compressors |
|
Definition
| Positive displacement and centrifugal |
|
|
Term
14-9
What is the source of pressurization air in most jet aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14-10
What device provides the principle means of controlling cabin pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14-11
What unit regulates the position of an outflow valve |
|
Definition
| The cabin pressure controller |
|
|
Term
14-12
Name several methods used on reciprocating-engine aircraft for providing heated cabin air |
|
Definition
| Exhaust shroud heat exchangers, combustion heaters, electric heaters |
|
|
Term
14-13
What is the function of the ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
|
Definition
| Ventilating air transports the heat from the heater into the cabin and prevents combustion gases from entering the cabin if the combustion chamber develops a crack |
|
|
Term
14-14
What are the sources of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
|
Definition
| Ram air in flight, a blower on the ground, or possibly a compressor if the airplane is pressurized |
|
|
Term
14-15
Name the basic components of an air cycle cooling system |
|
Definition
| Compressor, heat exchangers, expansion turbine, valves |
|
|
Term
14-16
Describe the basic operation of an air-cycle system |
|
Definition
| Hot engine bleed air is cooled in the primary heat exchanger, compressed, then cooled again in the secondary heat exchanger. This air is expanded across the expansion turbine, where energy is extracted and pressure reduced- this creates a drop in temperature. |
|
|
Term
14-17
Describe the basic operating principles of a water separator |
|
Definition
| Cool, moist air is swirled so that water droplets are separated by centrifugal force, captured by a sock, and drained |
|
|
Term
14-18
Name the principle components of a vapor cycle system |
|
Definition
| A compressor, condenser, expansion valve, and an evaporator |
|
|
Term
14-19
In what significant way is a vapor cycle cooling system different from air cycle? |
|
Definition
| Vapor cycle uses a refrigerant liquid, usually Freon |
|
|
Term
14-20
Why is oil added to the refrigerant in a vapor cycle system? |
|
Definition
| To lubricate the compressor |
|
|
Term
15-1
Why do some aircraft have fuel jettison systems? |
|
Definition
| To allow the crew to reduce the weight of the aircraft down to or below the max allowable landing weight |
|
|
Term
15-2
Is there any reason why a fuel jettison system might be required on a small aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Yes, if the max takeoff weight is greater than max allowable landing weight |
|
|
Term
15-3
What are some other names for a single-point fueling system? |
|
Definition
| Underwing or pressure fueling system |
|
|
Term
15-4
Why do multi-engine airplanes have fuel crossfeed systems? |
|
Definition
| To allow any engine to draw fuel from any tank |
|
|
Term
15-5
The fuel selector valve for a multi-engine aircraft must have at least 3 positions, what are they? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15-6
Why do some tanks have internal baffles? |
|
Definition
| To resist fuel surging or sloshing caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft |
|
|
Term
15-7
What are the two types of fuel cells? |
|
Definition
| Integral (wet wing) and bladder |
|
|
Term
15-8
What does "wet-wing" mean? |
|
Definition
| Sealed portions of the aircraft wing structure form the fuel tanks |
|
|
Term
15-9
How is the weight of the fuel supported when the bladder type fuel cells are used? |
|
Definition
| Bladder is supported by the aircraft structure that supports it |
|
|
Term
15-10
Why do turbine engine aircraft have fuel temp indicating systems? |
|
Definition
| To allow the crew to determine if the fuel is cold enough to form ice crystals |
|
|
Term
15-11
Name four types of fuel quantity gauges currently in use |
|
Definition
| Sight gauges, mechanical, electric, and electronic |
|
|
Term
15-12
Why are electronic (capacitance type) fuel quantity indicating systems more accurate than other types? |
|
Definition
| They measure the mass of the fuel instead of the volume |
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Term
15-13
What are drip gauges and sight gauges? |
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Definition
| Underwing, bayonet-type fuel gauges |
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Term
15-14
What is the purpose of an in-transit light associated with an electrically operated fuel tank shutoff valve? |
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Definition
| To indicate that the valve is in motion |
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Term
15-15
For what reason is a fuel jettison system usually divided into two separate, independent systems? |
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Definition
| To help maintain lateral stability by jettisoning fuel from a heavy wing if necessary |
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Term
15-16
What procedures should be followed regarding gaskets and seals when replacing fuel system components? |
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Definition
| All old gaskets should be replaced with new ones |
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Term
15-17
Is it possible for a fuel system to develop a leak that has no visible evidence such as a stain or spot, and if so, how? |
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Definition
| Yes, an internal component such as a valve could develop a leak |
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Term
15-18
How is a fuel tank checked for leaks following a patch or welded repair? |
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Definition
| The tank is slightly pressurized with air and the repaired area is leak checked with a soap and water solution |
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Term
15-19
Name some advantages of a single point fueling system |
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Definition
| It reduces fueling time, reduces chances for contamination and fire, and eliminates damage to the aircraft skin |
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Term
15-20
Why should you wait for a period of time after fueling an aircraft before checking the fuel sumps? |
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Definition
| To allow time for water and contaminants to settle to the drain point |
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Term
16-1
Briefly describe the components of a thermal switch fire detection system |
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Definition
| Temperature sensitive switches that complete a circuit at a specific temperature and trigger a warning |
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Term
16-2
Are thermal switches wired in series or in parallel with each other? |
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Definition
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Term
16-3
How are the detector units in a double loop Fenwal system wired? |
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Definition
| In parallel between two complete loops of wiring |
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Term
16-4
In what way is a thermocouple fire warning system different from a thermal switch system? |
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Definition
| Thermocouple systems measure rate of temp change, thermal switches respond to a specific temp |
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Term
16-5
Briefly describe the components of a Kidde continuous loop fire detection system |
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Definition
| An Inconel tube containing one or more wires embedded in a ceramic core whose resistance changes with temperature |
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Term
16-6
Describe the components and operation of a Lindberg fire detection system |
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Definition
| A stainless steel tube contains an inert gas and a discrete material that absorbs some of the gas. When the tube heats up, gas is released raising pressure inside the tube activating a pressure switch |
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Term
16-7
How does a photoelectric smoke detector generate a warning of possible fire? |
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Definition
| Smoke particles refract light in the unit, causing the photoelectric cell to produce electricity and cause an alarm signal |
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Term
16-8
How can the operation of a photoelectric smoke detector be tested? |
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Definition
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Term
16-9
Name two types of smoke detection systems used in aircraft |
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Definition
| Photoelectric and Ionization |
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Term
16-10
What are the usual locations where a carbon monoxide detector would be installed? |
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Definition
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Term
16-11
How does a CO detector indicate? |
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Definition
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Term
16-12
What are the possible effects of kinks and sharp bends in the sensing element of a fire warning system? |
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Definition
| False fire warnings caused by short circuits |
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Term
16-13
How is a Freon container checked for proper pressure? |
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Definition
| A chart must be used to determine the max and min gauge pressure readings based on ambient temperature |
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Term
16-14
Name the two basic types of fire extinguishing systems |
|
Definition
| The conventional system and High-rate discharge |
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Term
16-15
Name the agent most commonly used by conventional fire extinguishing systems |
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Definition
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Term
16-16
Name the agent most commonly used by high-rate discharge fire systems |
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Definition
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Term
16-17
How are Halon bottles protected from excessively high temperatures and how can you tell that this has occurred? |
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Definition
| A thermal fuse will release the agent if the bottle temp exceeds a certain limit- this blows out a red indicator disk |
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Term
16-18
What condition is indicated if the yellow disk is missing in a fire ext. system? |
|
Definition
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Term
16-19
How is a Halon bottle discharged? |
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Definition
| An electrical signal fires an explosive squib, which ruptures a frangible disk |
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Term
16-20
How is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated? |
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Definition
| From the date stamped on the cartridge by the manufacturer |
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Term
17-1
What regulation specifies operating conditions that make 100 hour inspections mandatory? |
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Definition
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Term
17-2
An A&P may sign off and approve the return to service following what type of inspection? |
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Definition
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Term
17-3
When may a mechanic perform an annual and return aircraft to service? |
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Definition
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Term
17-4
What is the time frame for annual inspections? |
|
Definition
| Within the preceding 12 calendar months |
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Term
17-5
When can any checklist be used as a guide for a 100 hour? |
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Definition
| The checklist must meet the minimum standards in FAR part 43 appendix D |
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Term
17-6
May an aircraft that is overdue on an annual be flown to the inspection place? |
|
Definition
| Yes, with a special flight permit (ferry permit) |
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Term
17-7
In order for an individual to conduct a 100 hour inspection and approve for return to service, what certificate must they have? |
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Definition
| A mechanic's cert. with both A&P ratings |
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Term
17-8
FAR 91.409 requires a 100 hour inspection. Is it legal to fly beyond the requirement, and for how long? |
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Definition
| Yes, for up to 10 hours. If flown over the 100, the amount are included in the next 100 hour service period. |
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Term
17-10
What operations require aircraft operating under part 91 to undergo a 100 hour? |
|
Definition
| operating for compensation or hire, or for flight instruction when provided by the instructor |
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Term
17-11
An aircraft under a progressive inspection program is operated for compensation or hire. Does it need a 100 hour inspection? |
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Definition
| No, progressive replaces 100 hours |
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Term
17-12
Who is authorized to supervise a progressive? |
|
Definition
| A&P with an IA, certified repair stations, or the manufacturer |
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Term
17-13
When a progressive is discontinued, at what time is the next 100 hour due? |
|
Definition
| 100 hours after the last complete inspection under the progressive program |
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Term
17-14
An owner desires to use a progressive inspection program. To whom does the owner apply? |
|
Definition
| To the FAA FSDO with jurisdiction over the area where the owner is located |
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Term
17-15
Is an engine run-up required as part of a 100-hour on a turbine aircraft? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
17-16
Where might you locate a sample of the recommended statement for recording the approval for return to service following an annual or 100 hour? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
17-18
Where would you look to find approved info for work on an aircraft electrical system? |
|
Definition
| In the manufacturer's maintenance manual or other instructions for continued airworthiness |
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|
Term
17-19
What are the limitations on mechanics regarding propellers? |
|
Definition
| Mechanics may not perform major repairs or alterations to props |
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|
Term
17-20
After equipment is installed in accordance with an STC, who must approve the return to service? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
17-9
An aircraft is flown 4 hours over the 100-hour inspection limit to reach you maintenance facility. How do you account for those 4 hours? |
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Definition
| The 4 hours are included in the next 100 hours time-in-service period. |
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Term
17-17
Where might you locate a sample of the recommended statement for recording the approval for return to service of an aircraft following completion of an annual or 100-hour inspection? |
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Definition
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