Term
The Air Force Portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following except?
a) The Air Force's vision of how we elminate duplication
b) Integrate Air Force systems
c) Provide easy access to information
d) Provide faster, reliable service |
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Definition
d. Provide faster, reliable service |
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Term
Who is the approval authority for the public web pages?
a. Web master
b. Unit commander
c. Informant provider
d. Web oage maintainer |
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Definition
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Term
What information is required for all top-level private web pages?
a. Commander's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail
b. Information provider's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail
c. Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail
d. Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers |
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Definition
c. Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail |
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Term
Who is the approval authority for the private web pages?
a. Web master
b. Unit commander
c. Information provider
d. Web page maintainer |
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Definition
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Term
What is the primary purpose of managing AF information?
a. Document past actions of historical value
b. Provide effective control of Privacy Act (PA) material
c. Comply with AF horizon vision documents
d. Effectively and efficiently enhance the AF mission |
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Definition
d. Effectively and efficiently enhance the AF mission |
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Term
Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?
a) Storage and privacy
b) Security and privacy
c) Storage and disposition
d) Security and disposition |
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Definition
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Term
What stage of the life cycle management provides preservation?
a) Use
b) Storage
c) Disposition
d) Dissemination |
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Definition
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Term
What is the objective of the electronic communications program?
a) Create clear, efficient and effective communication
b) Keep formats up-to-date with changing technologies
c) Use standard Air Force formats for all communications
d) Prepare correspondence consistent with day-to-day requirements |
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Definition
a) Create clear, efficient and effective communication |
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Term
Which plain language element reinforces the message that the document is intended for the reader?
a) Pronouns
b) Active voice
c) Short sentences
d) Common words |
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Definition
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Term
Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?
a) Active voice
b) Short sentences
c) Common words
d) Logical organization
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Definition
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Term
On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in active voice to communicate effectively?
a) 15.
b) 25.
c) 50.
d) 75. |
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Definition
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Term
Which is not a Form Memorandum?
a) Fill-in
b) Fill-out
c) Prewritten
d) Optional statement |
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Definition
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Term
What type of AF correspondence receives the most endorsements?
a) Messages
b) Memorandums
c) Personal letters
d) Staff summaries |
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Definition
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Term
What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
a) Brief
b) Official
c) Explanatory
d) Separate page |
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Definition
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Term
Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are
a) Briefings
b) Position papers
c) Bullet background papers
d) Memorandums for record |
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Definition
c) Bullet background papers |
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Term
Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Supervisor
d) Commander
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Definition
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Term
When an Auto Archive storage process is used, what type of folder is created?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Shared
d) Personal |
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Definition
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Term
Once an item is archived, how is it deleted?
a) Manually
b) Automatically
c) Deleted permanently
d) Moved to another archived location |
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Definition
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Term
What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed “DO NOT FORWARD” that remain in action offices at the close of business?
a) Place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home.
b) Inspect to determine classification of contents and then return to sender
c) Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding
d) Store in a classified storage container |
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Definition
d) Store in a classified storage container |
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Term
Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?
a) Priority
b) First class
c) Periodicals
d) Standard mail |
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Definition
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Term
When should you use certified mail?
a) When using consolidated mail
b) When required by law or DoD or Air Force directives
c) When contents are valuable and a receipt is needed
d) When you need to trace communications sent between Air Force activities
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|
Definition
b) When required by law or DoD or Air Force directives |
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Term
What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?
a) DD Form 2825, Internal receipt and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction
b) AF Form 74, Communications Status Notice/Request an DD Form 2825
c) Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate
d) Container numbers and DD Form 2825 |
|
Definition
d) Container numbers and DD Form 2825 |
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Term
Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?
a) 2008-UUB-058
b) UUB-2008-58
c) UUB-08-058
d) 58-008-UUB |
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Definition
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Term
The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them
a) Insured
b) Express
c) Certified
d) Registered |
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Definition
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Term
What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occurred?
a) Grave
b) Serious
c) Extremely serious
d) Exceptionally grave |
|
Definition
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Term
What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?
a) Original
b) Compiled
c) Derivative
d) Consolidated |
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Definition
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Term
What is any knowing, willful or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive Order 12958 that is not security violation?
a) Sanction
b) Violation
c) Infraction
d) Compromise |
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Definition
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Term
What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?
a) Inventory material and destroy
b) Take custody of the material and safeguard it
c) Leave it where it is and contact security forces to investigate
d) Determine who has responsibility for the material and return it
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|
Definition
b) Take custody of the material and safeguard it |
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|
Term
What is not a factor in releasing classified material?
a) Rank
b) Need to know
c) Security clearance
d) Original classifier |
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Definition
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Term
Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
a) Possessor
b) Commander
c) Security manager
d) Original classifier |
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Definition
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Term
Top Secret material should never be sent
a) Between appropriately cleared and designated persons
b) Through the base information transfer system
c) Over a cryptographic system
d) By defense courier service |
|
Definition
b) Through the base information transfer system |
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Term
When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified material?
a) Secret and below being entered onto the base information transfer system
b) Confidential material being sent to or from Army Post Office (APO) addresses
c) Transmitting to DoD contractors or Non-DoD agencies
d) Secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service
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|
Definition
a) Secret and below being entered onto the base information transfer system |
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Term
What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?
a) Separate each classification with a receipt
b) Place all material in a single inner container
c) Place each classification in a separate inner container
d) Do not mail different classifications of material in one package |
|
Definition
b) Place all material in a single inner container |
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Term
When you mail classified material, address containers to the
a) Unit Top Secret control officer
b) Office that is to take action on it
c) Base information security program manager
d) Specific person indentified as the point of contact |
|
Definition
b) Office that is to take action on it |
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Term
Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities and preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their areas of responsibility?
a) Every
b) Group
c) Wing
d) Major command (MAJCOM) |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?
a) Magnetic tapes
b) Motion pictures
c) Museum material
d) Machine readable material |
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Definition
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Term
What type of record is created when the Air National Guard (ANG) is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?
a) Sate only
b) Federal only
c) Personal only
d) State and federal only |
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Definition
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Term
Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 4 months
d) 6 months |
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Definition
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Term
Who appoints a record custodian?
a) Base record manager (BRM)
b) Command record manager (CRM)
c) Chief of the office of record (COR)
d) Functional area records manager (FARM) |
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Definition
c) Chief of the office of record (COR) |
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Term
Who should know and implement the records maintenance, use and disposition policies and procedures for records maintained?
a) Records custodian (RC)
b) Base records manager (BRM)
c) Chief of office of record (COR)
d) Functional area records manager (FARM) |
|
Definition
a) Records custodian (RC) |
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Term
By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be
a) Easier to manage and retrieve
b) Harder to manage and retrieve
c) Somewhat complex and hard to retrieve
d) Somewhat complex and easier to retrieve |
|
Definition
a) Easier to manage and retrieve |
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Term
How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?
a) Using a standard format for all AF file plans
b) Centralizing all records management functions AF-wide
c) Controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the AF
d) Ensuring offices AF-wide use the same disposition instructions for records |
|
Definition
d) Ensuring offices AF-wide use the same disposition instructions for records |
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Term
What type of labels does the AFRIMS print?
a) File drawer
b) Subdivision
c) Locater guide card
d) Decision logic table |
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Definition
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Term
AFRIMS generates a file disposition control label for
a) Each item listed on the file plan
b) Each subdivision identified on the file plan
c) Only the local record series on the file plan
d) Only the permanent record series on the file plan |
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Definition
a) Each item listed on the file plan |
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Term
How many disposition authorities (table and rule) are allowed per records series?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four |
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Definition
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|
Term
What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
a) File folders
b) Subdivision labels
c) Locator guide cards
d) Disposition guide cards |
|
Definition
d) Disposition guide cards |
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Term
Where are labels placed on the file folders?
a) On the left
b) On the right
c) In the center
d) Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent |
|
Definition
d) Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent |
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Term
What information does not appear on a subdivision label?
a) Title
b) Cutoff
c) Item number
d) Office of record |
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Definition
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Term
What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?
a) File plan
b) Decision logic table
c) Disposition control label
d) Records disposition schedule (RDS) |
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Definition
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|
Term
What should you remove from a document prior to filing?
a) Envelopes
b) Attachments
c) Staples and fasteners
d) Destruction certificate |
|
Definition
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Term
Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
a) The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 101
b) To help retrieve filed documents efficiently
c) It’s the table of contents for the filing system
d) The filing system doesn’t identify the file plan |
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Definition
b) To help retrieve filed documents efficiently |
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Term
What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
a) File plan
b) Directory
c) Memo for record
d) Cross-reference sheet |
|
Definition
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Term
When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference location identified?
a) Attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record
b) Write “cross-referenced” across the top of each copy of the record
c) Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed
d) Annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for the additional copies |
|
Definition
c) Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed |
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Term
Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as
a) Excessive cross-referencing is avoided
b) Written instructions are filed with each record
c) All records are given a cross-reference location
d) Cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive |
|
Definition
a) Excessive cross-referencing is avoided |
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Term
What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
a) Period of time the record is needed
b) Number of copies the individual will make
c) Frequency of reference to the requested material
d) How many people will have access to the records |
|
Definition
a) Period of time the record is needed |
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Term
What is “disposition,” when dealing with AF records?
a) Destruction of active records
b) Actions taken with inactive records
c) Time when you stop filing in the active records
d) Eradication process used for the records staging area |
|
Definition
b) Actions taken with inactive records |
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Term
What is disposition based when dealing with AF records?
a) Time period or event
b) Specific action or disposition
c) Disposal method or time period
d) Retention period or specific action |
|
Definition
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Term
How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of AF records?
a) Preservation of classified records
b) Economic and efficient management
c) Enduring value for temporary records
d) Reference tools for commander’s decisions
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Definition
b) Economic and efficient management |
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Term
How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?
a) Kept in the active file until destroyed
b) Place in the inactive file until destroyed
c) Retired to authorized federal records centers
d) Disposed through the functional area records manager |
|
Definition
c) Retired to authorized federal records centers |
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Term
Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
a) AF records manager
b) Archivist of the United States
c) United States record manager
d) National archives and records administration |
|
Definition
b) Archivist of the United States |
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Term
When units change status but does not change function or mission, files are
a) Sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period
b) Cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity
c) Cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual
d) Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred |
|
Definition
d) Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred |
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Term
The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the records
a) Destruction by hostile or potentially hostile action is an ever-present danger
b) Do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force
c) Are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation
d) Are a menace to health, life, or property |
|
Definition
d) Are a menace to health, life, or property |
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Term
What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?
a) Identify the records
b) Description of the records
c) Specific measures for storing copies
d) Determine the most critical function |
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Definition
b) Description of the records |
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Term
Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
a) Physically stop adding records to a series
b) Separating active records from inactive records
c) Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area
d) Point in time when records are no longer place in the active file |
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Definition
c) Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area |
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Term
Which of the following is not a cutoff period?
a) Monthly
b) Quarterly
c) Fiscal year
d) Calendar year |
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Definition
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Term
At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Eight
d) Nine |
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Definition
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Term
What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?
a) Records for transfer to another organization only
b) Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only
c) Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging area
d) Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization |
|
Definition
d) Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization |
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Term
What type of records does the staging area store?
a) Perpetual and temporary
b) Perpetual and transitory
c) Permanent and temporary
d) Permanent and transitory |
|
Definition
c) Permanent and temporary |
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Term
Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2-to-8 year retention records in the current files area?
a) Base records manager (BRM)
b) Command records manager (CRM)
c) Chief of the office of record (COR)
d) Functional area records manager (FARM) |
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Definition
a) Base records manager (BRM) |
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Term
What does the staging area review to determine what records are eligible for disposal and when?
a) Disposition control label
b) Disposition control label, before the end of each calendar or fiscal year
c) SF Form 135 before the end of each calendar or fiscal year
d) SF Form 135 |
|
Definition
c) SF Form 135 before the end of each calendar or fiscal year |
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Term
To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?
a) Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction
b) Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials
c) Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination
d) Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials |
|
Definition
a) Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction |
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Term
Who does the OPR submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?
a) Records manager (RM)
b) Records custodian (RC)
c) Command records manager (CRM)
d) Functional area records manager (FARM) |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?
a) Whether the retention period can be increased
b) How much AF documentation is really essential
c) How many records designated as “temporary” are of real enduring value
d) Whether the records efficiently document individual activities and transactions |
|
Definition
b) How much AF documentation is really essential |
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Term
What are the official daily publications for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?
a) The federal register
b) The federal requirements
c) The product announcement
d) The information collection report
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|
Definition
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Term
What is one of the duties of the Air Force Federal Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?
a) Act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar
b) Provide advice/guidance to AF personnel on publishing rules and notices
c) Describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public
d) Maintain copies of certificates of determination |
|
Definition
b) Provide advice/guidance to AF personnel on publishing rules and notices |
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Term
The DoD’s policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide
a) All information concerning its activities
b) Only unclassified information concerning its activities
c) Accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis
d) A maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities |
|
Definition
d) A maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities |
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Term
Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all purposed replies to a FOIA requestor?
a) Office of primary responsibility (OPR)
b) Initial denial authority
c) Disclosure authority
d) FOIA manager |
|
Definition
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Term
Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?
a) FOIA manager
b) System manager
c) Installation commander
d) Director, communication and information |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?
a) Office of primary records (OPR)
b) Disclosure authority
c) FOIA manager
d) Requestor |
|
Definition
a) Office of primary records (OPR) |
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Term
Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinate the release or denial of records?
a) FOIA manager
b) OPR
c) Information security program manager
d) Disclosure authority |
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Definition
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Term
FOIA requests categorized as simple involved records that
a) Privileged
b) Easy to read
c) Small in volume
d) Highly accessible |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Who does a requestor submit an appeal to, when a FOIA office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?
a) PA officer
b) Defense privacy office
c) Secretary of the Air Force
d) Director, communications and information |
|
Definition
c) Secretary of the Air Force |
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Term
An official system of records must be
a) Authorized by law or executive order
b) Used to retrieve information on individuals
c) Controlled by a DoD directive
d) Organized in accordance with the federal register |
|
Definition
a) Authorized by law or executive order |
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Term
Who is the functional point in a functional area for general PA questions?
a) System manager
b) PA officer
c) PA monitor
d) Air Force employees |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of request allows other AF directives to give individuals access to PA records?
a) Official
b) Directed
c) Functional
d) Informational |
|
Definition
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|
Term
To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is
a) Personnel roster
b) The subject of the record
c) Close friends of the member
d) Other data systems holding the information |
|
Definition
b) The subject of the record |
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Term
When working with PA information, if more protection in needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the
a) Acceptable losses with the system expenses
b) Additional protection measures against risk and cost
c) Quantity of information stored against the security measures required
d) Organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies |
|
Definition
b) Additional protection measures against risk and cost |
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|
Term
What is used to determine the disposal of PA records?
a) FOUO register
b) Squadron policy
c) Records retention schedule
d) PA disposition list |
|
Definition
c) Records retention schedule |
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|
Term
Which element of a PA statement shows the reason you are collecting the information?
a) Authority
b) Purpose
c) Routine uses
d) Disclosure |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of information should be considered and protected as FOUO?
a) Information that has been given a security classification
b) Unclassified information that is being processed in a foreign country
c) Classified information that contains FOUO information
d) Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of information act |
|
Definition
d) Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of information act |
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Term
What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occurs?
a) Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization
b) Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization
c) Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence and notify the originating organization
d) Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence |
|
Definition
b) Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization |
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Term
When should FOUO markings on a file or document be terminated?
a) When placed in the inactive file
b) Only when documents have been marked for destruction
c) When a request for the records has been made under the FOIA
d) When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires the protection from public disclosure |
|
Definition
d) When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires the protection from public disclosure |
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|
Term
Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?
a) Producing
b) Formatting
c) Posting
d) Storing |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official AF publications and forms?
a) Any civilian employee
b) Any contractor employee
c) Any foreign national employee
d) Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force |
|
Definition
d) Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force |
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|
Term
A special review of a publication or form is conducted when the
a) POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its one year review
b) POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its two year review
c) OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its one year review
d) OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two year review |
|
Definition
d) OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two year review |
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Term
When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?
a) Mission-related need only
b) Access to an official electronic source of publications
c) Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications
d) Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications |
|
Definition
a) Mission-related need only |
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|
Term
Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter
a) Content only
b) Authority only
c) Purpose only
d) Content, authority, purpose and application |
|
Definition
d) Content, authority, purpose and application |
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Term
Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a PA record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
a) $5,000.00
b) $10,000.00
c) $15,000.00
d) $20,000.00 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs’
a) Goal
b) Mission
c) Purpose
d) Objective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?
a) Reports control symbol
b) Unit reporting document
c) Information collection and reports
d) Records information management system
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|
Definition
a) Reports control symbol |
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