Term
Give examples of immunoassays involving antibody excess?
Antigen-antibody equivalence?
Antigen-excess? |
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Definition
Immunoblotting (western blot), ELISA
Radial immunodiffusion (RID), double immunodiffusion, nephelometer
Radioimmunoassay, ELISA |
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Term
| What lymphocytes are stimulated by pokeweed, phytohemagglutins, concanavalin A and LPS? |
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Definition
pokeweed - T and B lymphocytes
Phytohemagglutins - CD4
Concanavalin A - CD8
LPS - B lymphocytes |
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Term
Give examples of protein, conjugated polysaccharide and unconjugated polysaccharide immunizations used for B cell function testing?
Are these T cell dependent or independent? |
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Definition
Protein - diphtheria, tetanus
Conjugated polysaccharide - H. Influenza, prevnar
Unconjugated polysaccharide (also involves T cells) - N. meningitides, pneumovax
Protein and conjugated are T cell dependent.
Unconjugated polysaccharide are T cell independent. |
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Term
| What is tested to evaluate NK cells and CD8 T cells in HLH? |
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Definition
| Perforin and granzyme B expression |
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Term
What screens for alternative and classic complement pathways?
Terminal pathway? |
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Definition
AH50 (rabbit RBC) then Bb
CH50 (sheep RBC) then C4a and C4d
C3a, iC3b, C5a and soluble C5b-9 |
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Term
| What distinguishes acquired from hereditary complement deficiency? |
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Definition
Acquired - CH50 and/or AH50 low, multiple low complement components
Hereditary - CH50 and/or AH50 absent, only one low complement component |
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Term
In healthy people what happens to TRECs over time?
What can be tested? |
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Definition
Decrease
SCID, 22q11, HIV (decrease with disease, increase with HAART) |
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Term
| What disease are associated with high total IgE? |
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Definition
| Atopy, infections (parasites, HIV, TB, EBV, CMV), oncologic (myeloma, lymphoma), Kimura's disease, CHurg-Strauss, WAS, HyperIgE, Ommen, DiGeorge, Netherton, Nezelof |
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Term
What factors affect skin prick tests?
What is sensitivity and specificity?
What is 95% PPV for skin test to peanut, milk and egg? |
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Definition
skin reactivity (mid/upper back>lower back>antecubital fossa>wrist), age (Infants have flare but smaller wheal, elderly with small wheal and flare), race (wheal greater in nontoxic AA), season
Inhalant 80-85%, foods 85% sen and 50% spe, fresh fruits 90% sen
peanut/milk >8mm wheal
egg >7mm wheal |
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Term
What is the IDEAL50 for intradermal tests?
Venom IT is performed using what dilution? |
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Definition
ID causing 50mm erythema
Venom IT up to 1ug/ml |
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Term
| What are the false negative rates for IgE testing for food, venom and latex? |
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Definition
| 20% in egg or peanut (most positive skin test), 15-20% of venom, 25% of latex |
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Term
| What extract should be used in provocation testing? |
|
Definition
| Aqueous (glycerinated causes irritant effects) |
|
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Term
What is good PFT test?
What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio for 8-19y, 20-39y, 40-59y and 60-80y? |
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Definition
exhaled 6sec (3sec for child), plateau 1sec, reproducibility (2 largest FEV1 and FVC within 150ml)
85%, 80%, 75% and 70% |
|
|
Term
What are direct and indirect bronchial provocation testing?
Which is more sensitive?
Which is better for EIB? |
|
Definition
Direct - mehacholine, histamine
Indirect - exercise, hyperventilation, hypertonic saline, cold air, mannitol, adenosine, allergen
Direct is highly sensitive (excludes asthma unless pollen-induced and test is in winter)
Indirect better for EIB |
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Term
| What is considered a positive test for indirect testing? |
|
Definition
Exercise - 15% fall in FEV1
Hyperventilation - 10% fall in FEV1
Mannitol - 15% fall in FEV1 (PD15) |
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Term
| What is the wash-out period for drugs prior to provocation testing? |
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Definition
| B2 agonist 6-8hr, LABA 24hr, Anticholinergic 8-48h, antihistamine 48h, inhaled corticosteroid 7 hr, leukotriene antagonist 7h |
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Term
| What should be considered for eosinophils or neutrophils in the nasal smear? |
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Definition
Eosinophils - allergic (>10%), ASA-induced, nonallergic eosinophilic rhinitis (>5%)
Neutrophils - irritant/nasopharyngitis/sinusitis |
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Term
What are measured by nephlometry?
ELISA? |
|
Definition
IgG, IgA, IgM, CRP, C3, C4
IgE, IgD, HIV ab, C1q, C1 inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| What fraction of SPEP is affected by multiple myeloma, waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, amyloidosis? |
|
Definition
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Term
What is associated with pANCA (myeloperoxidase)?
with cANCA (proteinase 3)? |
|
Definition
-autoimmune hepatitis-1, primary sclerosing cholangitis, wegener's, Churg-Strauss, Microscopic polyangiitis
-Wegener's, microscopic polyangiitis |
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|
Term
What autoantibodies are associated with Crohn's?
Autoimmune hepatitis-2?
GBS?
Myasthenia gravis?
Addison's? |
|
Definition
-Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae
-Anti-LMK-1
-Anti-ganglioside
-Anti-acetylcholine
-Anti-adrenal cytoplasmic (CYP21) |
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Term
| What pathogens are detected by PCR? |
|
Definition
| HIV, HCV, CMV, GAS, GBS, TB, chlamydia trachomatis, gonorrhea |
|
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Term
| What disease can be diagnosed with FISH? |
|
Definition
| Prader-Willi, angelman, 22q13, Cri-du-chat, down's, ALL |
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Term
What HLA's are used for matching stem cell transplants?
solid organ grafts? |
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Definition
A, B, C, DRB1, DQB1
A, B, C, DRB1 |
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Term
| What test is used to predict T-lymphoctye-mediated graft rejection? |
|
Definition
| mixed-lymphocyte reaction |
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|
Term
Forward scatter detects?
Side scatter detects? |
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Definition
-Size
-Granularity and complexity |
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Term
What are the CD markers for stem cells?
Treg cells?
NK cells?
platelets? |
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Definition
-CD34
-CD25
-CD16 or CD56
-CD61 |
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|
Term
| What constitutes a postive DTH test? |
|
Definition
| Induration of 5mm or greater after 48-72 hours |
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|
Term
| What percentage of people with negative serum-specific IgE may have clinical reaction? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What allergen is used for standardization of honeybee and vespula venom?
What causes the sterile pustule in fire ant venom?
What is unique to honeybee? |
|
Definition
-Phospholipid A and Hyaluronidase
-Alkaloids (no allergic potential)
-Melitin |
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