Term
| QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which squadrons form an MXG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You may attend ALS after having how many months in the Air Force? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all AF employees? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occupational Health is regulated by AF series... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which AFI defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed? |
|
Definition
| Check with other personnel working inside or outside of the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend? |
|
Definition
| 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear |
|
|
Term
| To avoid engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| FOD is normally caused by... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who has the overall responsibility for the FOD program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain PPE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HAZMAT waste storage area must prevent... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common method for disposing of HAZMAT waste is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For HAZMAT waste disposal, it is unlikely that the AF can justify... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A specialized function of the supply mission is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From what perspective does the RSS manage supply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Base Supply function manages the Repair Cycle System? |
|
Definition
| Repair Cycle Support System |
|
|
Term
| Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics, function or application, are predetermined to require... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS? |
|
Definition
| Daily Document Register (D04) |
|
|
Term
| Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which TO provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you need detailed information concerning AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The storage time period assigned to an item to ensure that the item performs satisfactorily is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Type I shelf-life? |
|
Definition
| The item has a definite, non-extendible period of shelf-life. |
|
|
Term
| What type of deficiency is a Category I DR used to report? |
|
Definition
| A deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. |
|
|
Term
| Within how many hours must a Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL? |
|
Definition
| Equipment Authorization Inventory Data |
|
|
Term
| Who appoints equipment custodians? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first part of a TO number identifies what? |
|
Definition
| Category and Type of equipment in the TO |
|
|
Term
| The second part of a TO number indicates what? |
|
Definition
| The model and series for equipment type in the TO. |
|
|
Term
| In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of additional data is not provided in IETMS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What section of the IPB contains and explanation of the coding used in the IPB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What category TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in fatality or serious injury to personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which TO covers information concerning the AF TO system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed? |
|
Definition
| A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. |
|
|
Term
| An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for what kind of TOs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two classifications of failures in RCM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by... |
|
Definition
| early detection of performance degradation and/or failures |
|
|
Term
| Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis? |
|
Definition
| Base engine maintenance shop |
|
|
Term
| Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drives the creation of a CRP? |
|
Definition
| Customer wait time and transportation constraints |
|
|
Term
| Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When CIRF ships a replacement asses to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depot maintenance supports base-level technicians by... |
|
Definition
| providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability |
|
|
Term
| Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to... |
|
Definition
| maintain accurate and timely engine inventories |
|
|
Term
| The key to making CEMS work is... |
|
Definition
| accurate and timely data at the lowest level |
|
|
Term
| For how many categories of reporting does CEMS establish and maintain records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which AFTO form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To document information concerning the status of an engine TCTO, use which AFTO Form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs? |
|
Definition
| To Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. |
|
|
Term
| Is reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets an objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many years ahead should participating unites accelerate engines, modules, and accessories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts, what must you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of rule should you use for measuring and inside diameter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of... |
|
Definition
| one ten-thousandth of an inch |
|
|
Term
| The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You adjust a micrometer by turning the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in... |
|
Definition
| ten-thousandths of an inch |
|
|
Term
| Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located? |
|
Definition
| At the end of the pivot lever. |
|
|
Term
| What feature is common to all dial indicators? |
|
Definition
| Ability to amplify movement greatly. |
|
|
Term
| To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you use for cleaning measuring tools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine? |
|
Definition
| visually inspect internal cavities |
|
|
Term
| Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates, the interior of the area you are inspecting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is age a factor when considering borescope qualification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The grip lenght of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F? |
|
Definition
| nonmetallic self-locking nuts |
|
|
Term
| How is screw length measured? |
|
Definition
| Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads |
|
|
Term
| When installing a self-tapping screw, the hole must be... |
|
Definition
| slightly smaller than the screw |
|
|
Term
| What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use? |
|
Definition
| A plain washer underneath the lock washer. |
|
|
Term
| What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce proper stiffness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Copper tubing is not to be used on jet engines because it... |
|
Definition
| has a high-fatigue factor. |
|
|
Term
| You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by... |
|
Definition
| the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses. |
|
|
Term
| What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them? |
|
Definition
| It avoids the possibility of leaving caps installed. |
|
|
Term
| For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of tubing diameter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you receive and engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then... |
|
Definition
| Check the compressor inlet |
|
|
Term
| Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how man layers of wrap? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which container does not require warehouse facilities? |
|
Definition
| Fiberglass reinforced plastic |
|
|
Term
| To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the... |
|
Definition
| filler valve on the front of the container. |
|
|
Term
| When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the... |
|
Definition
| top half of the right panel of the container. |
|
|
Term
| Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed? |
|
Definition
| Release all pressure before removing lid. |
|
|
Term
| How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Engines inactive for 180 days must have what accomplished? |
|
Definition
| Preservation run and fuel system preservation. |
|
|
Term
| To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start where? |
|
Definition
| on the surface of the metal. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to help remove moister from an area where engines are stored? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to do what? |
|
Definition
| Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. |
|
|
Term
| Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is found in part I of and AFTO Form 244? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Newton's second law of motion? |
|
Definition
| An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force and that acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body. "F=ma" |
|
|
Term
| Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passes through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bernoulli's Prinicple states what? |
|
Definition
| The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift. |
|
|
Term
| The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest and the tendency of an object in motion to continue its motion in a straight line at the same speed is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which section of the jet engine introduces and burns fuel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use? |
|
Definition
| Accelerating a large mass of air by a small amount. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of horsepower is delivered to the propeller for useful work? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The heat content per pound of kerosene is how many BTUs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you use to measure barometric pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is sea-level atmospheric pressure at "standard day" conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which engine component meters fuel for combustion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What directs gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel? |
|
Definition
| Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three major sections of all jet engines? |
|
Definition
| Compressor, Combustion, Turbine |
|
|
Term
| Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to... |
|
Definition
| sliding-vane air compressors |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor? |
|
Definition
| rotational and centrifugal |
|
|
Term
| A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to do what? |
|
Definition
| Provide a passage for the main fuel supply. |
|
|
Term
| Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to do what? |
|
Definition
| direct air and increase pressure |
|
|
Term
| In a dual-spool compressor, RPM of the N2 compressor is determined by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which facet of engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling? |
|
Definition
| Directing air around the plug |
|
|
Term
| The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to do what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is drained where? |
|
Definition
| overboard by a drain system |
|
|
Term
| The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the what? |
|
Definition
| combustion chamber crossover tubes |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common type of fuel nozzle system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Swirl-type fuel nozzles usually are used to provide what type of flame speed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines? |
|
Definition
| Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse |
|
|
Term
| What is placed in front of the rotating blades in an engine turbine section? |
|
Definition
| Turbine nozzle vane assembly |
|
|
Term
| Why is the "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc preferred? |
|
Definition
| There is a significant temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades. |
|
|
Term
| The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the exhaust duct is to do what? |
|
Definition
| straighten exhaust gas flow |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to do what? |
|
Definition
| augment basic engine thrust |
|
|
Term
| How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because... |
|
Definition
| they get soaked with sweat |
|
|
Term
| Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should do what? |
|
Definition
| remove the preservative coating |
|
|
Term
| The bearing removal tools that are most commonly used include... |
|
Definition
| arbor presses and bearing pullers |
|
|
Term
| Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material becoming lodged between the rollers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is a... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the RPM required for accessories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F108 engine, the radial drive shaft connects the core engine to what assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 turbroprop engine, how many stages of reduction are in the RGB's main reduction gear train? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 turboprop engine, what is the overall, reduction ratio of the RGB's main reduction gear train? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump, and what? |
|
Definition
| External scavenge oil pump |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the T56 engine, which RGB component rotates at the same speed as the power unit rotors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the total gear reduction ratio of the RGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is "engaged" a propeller brake position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The propeller brake is in which position when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which valve in the propeller control assembly is actuated by the NTS actuator rod to increase propeller blade angle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which components comprise the torquemeter assembly? |
|
Definition
| Two concentric shafts, torquemeter housing, and torquemeter pickup |
|
|
Term
| The amount of twisting deflection is determined by which shaft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The torquemeter exciter wheels are in phase when... |
|
Definition
| the rectangular teeth on the exciter wheels are aligned at zero torque. |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the T56 safety coupling is to do what? |
|
Definition
| disconnect the power station section from the RGB assembly |
|
|
Term
| For the safety coupling to disconnect the power unit from the RGB, torque must reach between which values? |
|
Definition
| -4,200 and -7,200 inch-pounds |
|
|
Term
| The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to do what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bearing support the T56 compressor rotor at the front and rear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which T56 compressor component supports the compressor rear bearing labyrinth seal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the T56 engine, turbine rotor torque is transferred to the compressor rotor by which shaft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the guide vane support is to direct airflow to where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are used to retain the turbine buckets in the first-stage wheel of the T56-A-15 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies are the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3, the forward engine mounts are located on the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What AE2100D3 nacelle door contains a fire access door? |
|
Definition
| Lower right turbine access door |
|
|
Term
| The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into how many major structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The T700 engine consists of what four modules? |
|
Definition
| Accessory, compressor, combustion, and power turbine section |
|
|
Term
| What routes oil and fuel through the T700 AGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What components mount on the front face of the AGB on the T700 engine? |
|
Definition
| Alternator and a fuel boost pump |
|
|
Term
| The T700 gas generator turbine rotor drives the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is made up of what two components? |
|
Definition
| Drive shaft and torque sensor tube |
|
|
Term
| Which F108 major engine module provides for mounting of the front of the engine to the airframe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does primary airflow through the F108 engine flow through the accessory gearbox? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The F108 engine can be broken down into how many individual modules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of the total engine thrust does the secondary airflow on the F108 engine produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F108 engine, the purpose of the HPT nozzle assembly is to accelerate the energy from the combustion gases to drive the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F108 engine, the LPT shaft assembly connects the fan shaft with what rotor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F108 engine, what connects the IGB to the TGB bevel gears? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On which module of the F100-PW-220 engine is the stator generator mounted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F100-PW-220 engine, the No. 1 bearing assembly is located where? |
|
Definition
| In the front compressor stator inlet shroud |
|
|
Term
| When blending fourth stage compressor blades on an F100-PW-220 engine, a maximum of how many blends are allowed on any single edge? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On and F100-PW-220 engine, the front compressor drive turbine shaft is connected to the front compressor by what? |
|
Definition
| The turbine drive shaft coupling |
|
|
Term
| Which bearing is located in the fan drive turbine module on an F100-PW-220 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Major components of the F100-PW-220 engine augmentor duct and nozzle module are nozzle actuators, nozzle assembly, and what? |
|
Definition
| combustion chamber liner and duct |
|
|
Term
| On an F100-PW-220, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many stages are in the inlet fan module of the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many hollow struts/inlet guide vanes are contained in the inlet fan case of the F119 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the Tt2 located on a F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
| In the fan inlet guide vane case at the 5:30 position |
|
|
Term
| Is the Low pressure compressor located on the core module of the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bearing compartment is contained in the intermediate case of the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F119-PW-100 engine, what function does the diffuser case serve other than housing the combustor? |
|
Definition
| Reduces the velocity of compressor discharge air |
|
|
Term
| What drives the IFM in the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bearing is located in the LPT of the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the Augmentor Fuel Control attached to the gearbox on the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nozzle module mounted to on the F119-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the composition of JP-8 fuel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At room temperature, how many times longer will is take water to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main fuel control allows the engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of what happening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the fuel/oil cooler in the fuel system is to do what? |
|
Definition
| heat the fuel and cool the oil |
|
|
Term
| What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On fuel controls that require setting during and engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws must be what? |
|
Definition
| safety sealed and/or lockwired |
|
|
Term
| When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine? |
|
Definition
| DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) |
|
|
Term
| On an F100-PW-220 engine, the MFC is capable of operating in how many modes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which F100-PW-220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of compressor drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F100-PW-220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW-220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the what? |
|
Definition
| main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles |
|
|
Term
| Operational control of the F108-CF-100 engine is achieved by the use of the power lever, fuel shut-off lever and what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The F108 engine fuel pump contains a low-pressure stage (centrifugal boost stage) and a high-pressure what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F108-CF-100 engine, the fuel injectors contain what kind of fuel flow passages? |
|
Definition
| both primary and secondary |
|
|
Term
| What supplies the AE2100D3 FADEC with power until engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control? |
|
Definition
| Airplane 28 VDC power supply |
|
|
Term
| What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown of by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What on T56 engine controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve? |
|
Definition
| compressor inlet pressure |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to the visual inspection, the T56 engine fuel nozzle also requires what type of inspection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon seal is provided by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature and what else? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On and F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted inside what component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F100-PW-220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted in the fan duct and use what as coolant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F100-PW-220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to check the oil level in an F108-CF-100 engine? |
|
Definition
| Filler cap with a graduated gauge |
|
|
Term
| Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the power unit oil system, the dual-port jet mounted on the front side of the compressor air inlet housing is used to lubricate the what? |
|
Definition
| mid and center sleeve bearings |
|
|
Term
| The power section and RGB oil system are joined together at what component? |
|
Definition
| external scavenge oil filter |
|
|
Term
| Which RGB component prevent oil in the tank from draining into the RGB rear case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many scavenge pumps are located in the RGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The journeyman must be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oil sampling intervals should not vary more than what percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in which major aspect? |
|
Definition
| SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place. |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when is passes through a magnetic field? |
|
Definition
| Electromagnetic induction |
|
|
Term
| On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to do what? |
|
Definition
| Calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station |
|
|
Term
| Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 Volts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A simple DC ignition system consists of what three components? |
|
Definition
| Vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer |
|
|
Term
| On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does not include a what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an ignition system? |
|
Definition
| To step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug |
|
|
Term
| The T56 engine speed-sensitive control lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system at what percentage of RPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An F100-PW-100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a minimum rate of how man sparks per second? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the output of the AE2100D3 alternator stator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The JFS is basically a what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which item initially rotates the JFS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What engine section houses the JFS combustion section? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component provides and electrical safety cutoff for the JFS inf the power turbine accelerates to a 110% overspeed condition? |
|
Definition
| Power Turbine overspeed switch |
|
|
Term
| Oil is supplied to the F-15 JFS through what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F-15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through the CGB to the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F-15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when the aircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed? |
|
Definition
| 50% engine cutout switch assembly |
|
|
Term
| When starting the F-16, which component drives the JFS geartrain, fuel control, and lube pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the AE2100D3 Starter control valve actuated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which T56 engine component functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discharge air used for aircraft anti-icing to heat critical areas is taken from which engine area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On and F108 engine, anti-ice air is ducted from which manifold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F110-GE-129 engine, the anti-icing system, prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and what else? |
|
Definition
| Fan inlet guide vane flaps |
|
|
Term
| On an F108-CF-100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of the air injector on the air regulator? |
|
Definition
| control air temperature and pressure |
|
|
Term
| The T56 engine anti-icing solenoid valve is normally in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a high-altitude stall sound like? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go? |
|
Definition
| into the gas stream to exit the engine |
|
|
Term
| On an F108-CF-100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air from which compressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F108-CF-100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlled by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F110-GE-129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the what? |
|
Definition
| fan discharge temperature and core engine speed |
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3 engine, what type of actuator is the CVG actuator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What AE2100D3 engine component continuously monitors the LVDT signal and controls the compressor IGV position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The T56 engine component that allows 14th-stage air to close the bleed air valves is the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the F117-PW-100 engine, what component controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The F117-PW-100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel or channels of the EEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A thrust reverser that uses vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases is an example of what kind of thrust reverser? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust reversers on the F117-PW-100 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems? |
|
Definition
| Torch igniter and pilot burner ring |
|
|
Term
| The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On an F110-GE-129 augmentor variable nozzle, uniform movement and geometric stability of the nozzle is provided by what? |
|
Definition
| Mechanical sychronization and nozzle actuators |
|
|
Term
| Which 54H60-91 propeller subassembly transmits engine torque to the propeller blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which component delivers the actual propeller blade angle from the blade to the control assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what is the function of the pitchlock regulator? |
|
Definition
| It prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost. |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which pitchlock component mechanically holds the stationary and rotating pitchlock ratchets apart during reversing and unfeathering operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which component is used in place of a shim on the No. 1 blade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which dome assembly part allows the rotating cam to turn while the stationary cam remains in a fixed position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly? |
|
Definition
| It prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in the alpha range. |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which component provides a means for balancing the propeller? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, hydraulic fluid is directed from the pump housing to the barrel assembly through what component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what is the function of the differential gear train assembly? |
|
Definition
| It transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used? |
|
Definition
| Main pressure and main scavenge |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which cam disarms the NTS system linkage when the throttle is positioned in the beta range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which valve, contained in the valve housing, controls the flow of hydraulic fluid to and from the dome assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 54H60-91 propeller governor speeder spring tension positions the pilot valve to maintain what percent RPM in the beta range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when the throttle is moved to the GROUND IDLE position, what degree setting does the coordinator pointer indicate on the protractor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What switch, located in the control quadrant, activates the 54H-60-91 propeller governor speed bias servo assembly as the throttle is moved into the flight idle gate? |
|
Definition
| synchrophaser disarming switch |
|
|
Term
| The condition lever GND STOP position is only effective on the ground because the circuits made in this position are completed through what switches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component in the T56 engine coordinator provides reference signals to the electronic TD amplifier that are proportional to the desired TIT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, the output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, if the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which valve sets and maintains a pressure differential of about 100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when the backup valve is opened, the hydraulic pressure routed to the governor pilot valve is used for which operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which pump is used to feather or unfeather the propeller during static propeller operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the 54H60-91 propeller pitchlock assembly is to prevent what? |
|
Definition
| and engine overspeed due to loss of hydraulic pressure |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what prevents engagement of the stationary and rotating ratchets at blade angles below 25 degrees and above 55 degrees? |
|
Definition
| The pitchlock control cam |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, between the blade angles of 25 degrees and 55 degrees, what will keep the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged? |
|
Definition
| increase- or decrease-pitch pressure |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, the function of the low pitch stop is to prevent what? |
|
Definition
| the dome piston from decreasing blade angle below 23.3 degrees plus/minus .5 degrees |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move outward? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when pressure builds to between 240 and 280 psi, which valve is unseated and allows the stop levers to retract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is coordinated by the throttle in the controllable pitch range? |
|
Definition
| blade pitch and engine fuel flow |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during beta range operation, what moves the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
| cams and mechanical linkage |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during beta range operation, the rotation of which cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during alpha range operation, which cam changes speeder spring tension so the governor pilot valve can maintain 100% RPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during an underspeed condition, what moves the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when feathering the propeller, what acts on the mechanical linkage to open the feather actuating valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during feathering operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to where? |
|
Definition
| the forward end of the dome piston |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As the 54H60-91 propeller feathers, the output of which pump decreases (drops off)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, during feather operation, between approximately what psi are the pressure cutout switch contacts opened? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, which component is the primary electrical ground for energizing the feather override holding coil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When attempting to unfeather the 54H60-91 propeller in flight, where must the throttle be positioned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two cams, on the alpha shaft, control the 54H60-91 propeller during unfeathering operation? |
|
Definition
| manual feather and beta set cams |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, what is the minimum psi required to release the feather latches and allow the piston to move forward? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, after the NTS system actuator rod positions the mechanical linkage in the valve housing when a negative torque condition occurs, what component is shifted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides maintaining the optimum blade phase angle relationship between all propellers, what else does synchrophasing do? |
|
Definition
| keeps the propellers rotating as the same speed |
|
|
Term
| The fuel governing check switches are used to reset the propeller governor to what percentage of RPM in the alpha range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the pickup portion of the pulse generator located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pulse generator inputs to the synchrophaser unit are used only when? |
|
Definition
| when a master propeller is seleced |
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller speed bias motor, when the control winding voltage is different from the reference-winding voltage, what results? |
|
Definition
| speed bias motor rotates and increases or decreases blade angle |
|
|
Term
| The master synchrophaser board located in the synchrophaser unit contains a master channel and a slave channel. These channels are used by which propellers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which board in the synchrophaser unit receives input signals that are compared together, modified, and used to control the speed bias motors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much change in RPM does the compensating network in the synchrophaser unit allow the speed bias motor to correct? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, in the mechanical governing mode, what causes the pilot valve to move and set propeller speed? |
|
Definition
| speeder spring and flyweights |
|
|
Term
| Mechanical governing provides the foundation for what other propeller governing modes? |
|
Definition
| Normal and synchrophasing |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of normal governing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For the 54H60-91 propeller to operate properly in the normal governing mode, the propeller governor control switch must be placed in the NORMAL position along with what other conditions? |
|
Definition
| Throttle at or above FLT IDLE and synchrophase master switch is OFF |
|
|
Term
| During normal governing operation, what stabilizes the propeller governor during rapid throttle movements? |
|
Definition
| Throttle anticipation circuit |
|
|
Term
| To reduce the noise and vibration levels, synchrophasing mode of governing maintains all the propellers at what? |
|
Definition
| identical speeds and optimum blade phase angles |
|
|
Term
| How many slave channels are contained on the master synchrophaser board in the synchrophaser unit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the master propeller fails during synchrophaser governing, the slave propellers follow the master to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of special inspection can be used to find minute cracks on a propeller blade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing a loose blade inspection on the 54H60-91 propeller, fore-and-aft play should not exceed what limit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing a blade tracking inspection on the 54H60-91 propeller, the calculated difference in blade tracks should not exceed what limit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you perform a static blade transition check and abnormal noises are detected, the 54H60-91 propeller must be returned to depot. What AFTO form must be documented and accompany the propeller back to depot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, if a nick if found on the metal portion of the blade when performing a blade inspection, which tool is used to measure the depth of the damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term "No. 320 grit" refers to which feature of sandpaper? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when performing blade repair if damage was due to propeller blade impact, you must remove all traces of the damage, and then, using emery cloth, remove and additional how many inches? |
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Definition
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Term
| When the ambient temperature is greater than 65 degrees F and a patch is bonded to the blade fairing, what is the recommended drying time before running the repaired propeller on the aircraft engine? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, when repairing a propeller blade heater, what is the maximum number of wires that can be spliced in any one heater? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, to avoid being crushed after romoving the dome shell during dome piston seal replacement, you should keep your fingers away from the what? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, after the new packings are in place during dome piston seal replacement, you need to turn them so what color faces outward? |
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Definition
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Term
| During 54H60-91 propeller dynamic balancing, the propeller analyzer receives its two inputs from what? |
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Definition
| a velocimeter and the NTS switch |
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Term
| To calculate the required weight change when you use the 192A spectrum analyzer, you will need to plot the data on a what? |
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Definition
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Term
| When balancing a 54H60-91 propeller, the velocimeter is secured to the forward side of the RGB at what position (as viewed from the rear)? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the 54H60-91 propeller, propeller balancing is not required if the propeller imbalance is at or below what level? |
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Definition
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Term
| What R391 Dowty propeller component translates piston and shaft movement to vary propeller blade angle? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which R391 Dowty Propeller component routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston? |
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Definition
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Term
| What R391 Dowty Propeller assembly part provides an aerodynamic faring over the aft section of the hub? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which component controls the R391 Dowty Propeller blade angle by directing engine oil flow through the beta tube to the clyinder and piston? |
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Definition
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Term
| For the R391 Dowty Propeller, what component(s) relay propeller blade angle to the FADEC units? |
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Definition
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Term
| For the R391 Dowty Propeller, the feather valve is located inside what component? |
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Definition
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Term
| For the R391 Dowty Propeller, what component provides blade angle feedback to the FADEC by Two RVDT? |
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Definition
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Term
| For the R391 Dowty Propeller, during flight operation, what directs the PCU to meter fine and coarse pitch oil to maintain 1020.7 RPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the R391 Dowty Propeller, what does the DITU use to monitor itself for malfunctions? |
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Definition
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Term
| The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to inflate what? |
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Definition
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Term
| When used for ground operation, the SGT engine can be installed on what? |
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Definition
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Term
| on and GTCP165 engine, air is compressed by a single-stage centrifugal compressor assembly, and then discharged into what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the GTCP165 engine are connected by what? |
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Definition
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Term
| On an GTCP165 engine, turbine discharge temperature is controlled by what? |
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Definition
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Term
| On an GTCP165 engine, the accessory drive section forward housing provides mounts for the components, which include fuel control unit, oil pump assembly, oil filter element, vane-axial fan assembly, and what else? |
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Definition
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Term
| On a GTCP165 engine, which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation? |
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Definition
| engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure |
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Term
| On GTCP165 engine shutdown, what valve closes to ensure fuel-flow is terminated? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of sump design is the oil system on a GTCP165 engine? |
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Definition
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Term
| On a GTCP165 engine, which component shuts the engine down if the oil pressure drops below the safe minimum operating limit? |
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Definition
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Term
| On an GTCP165 engine, air that leaks past various oil seals exits through the what? |
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Definition
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Term
| On a GTCP165 engine, the speed switch control does not control the engine during what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Durning normal GTCP165 engine shutdown, what circuit trips to stop the engine? |
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Definition
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Term
| The modulating and shutoff valve on a GTCP165 engine will be fully open at what percent RPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| After reviewing aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting? |
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Definition
| Observe gauge indications |
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Term
| Is inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between two points a good troubleshooting practice? |
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Definition
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Term
| Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in what form? |
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Definition
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Term
| To become an expert troubleshooter, you must do what? |
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Definition
| understand the function of each unit within each system |
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Term
| The F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the DEEC and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the what? |
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Definition
| Engine diagnostic unit (EDU) |
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Term
| An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide what? |
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Definition
| the meanings of the instrument readings |
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Term
| Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of what? |
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Definition
| transmitter and indicator |
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Term
| Which jet engine temperature is not measured? |
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Definition
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Term
| A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, and indicator, and what else? |
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Definition
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Term
| The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow what? |
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Definition
| transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator |
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Term
| The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow in what units? |
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Definition
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Term
| Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located where? |
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Definition
| On the engine accessory section |
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Term
| The tachometer indicator is what type of instrument? |
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Definition
| and electric-magnetic-drag-type indicator |
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Term
| on engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into and electrical signal by what? |
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Definition
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Term
| One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing? |
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Definition
| Engine pressure ratio (EPR) |
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Term
| The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are what? |
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Definition
| engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure |
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Term
| Inlet pressure (pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point through what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line. This configuration will indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator of what else? |
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Definition
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Term
| The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allow selection of what? |
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Definition
| individual thermocouple inputs of an average of all inputs |
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Term
| When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within what range? |
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Definition
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Term
| The test cell IC temperature indicator displays temperature in degrees fahrenheit, with a range of what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs? |
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Definition
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Term
| What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes? |
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Definition
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Term
| During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor functions as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor functions as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to measure all parameters to identify a vibration source? |
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Definition
| displacement may be the same in two completely different problems |
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Term
| The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are what? |
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Definition
| velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer |
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Term
| The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to do what? |
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Definition
| allow selection of the necessary filter |
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Term
| What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine? |
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Definition
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Term
| What procedure is used to ensure that the fan and the low pressure turbine are correctly balanced? |
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Definition
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Term
| The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of what? |
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Definition
| compressor airflow through the carbon seal |
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Term
| The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust what? |
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Definition
| fuel control without being under the engine |
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Term
| When connected to the engine, which piece of F100-PW-100 engine test equipment becomes an engine electronic control (EEC)? |
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Definition
| Supervisory control system (CSC) test set |
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Term
| Which piece of test equipment is used to troubleshoot a jet fuel starter (JFS) problem on an F-16 aircraft? |
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Definition
| Engine Start System (ESS) tester |
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Term
| You can find written instruction for safe flight line vehicle operations in what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The term "trim" means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the Technical Order (TO). What are the two methods used to trim an engine? |
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Definition
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Term
| The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected where? |
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Definition
| at the output side of the main oil pump and the vent system |
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Term
| When checking the turbine section, you do not measure what? |
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Definition
| Intake gas temperature (IGT) |
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Term
| Which F-16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine? |
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Definition
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Term
| Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operation check on an F-16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch in which position? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor? |
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Definition
| against the aircraft fuselage |
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Term
| How many minutes should engine operation in afterburner be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor? |
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Definition
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Term
| The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of what? |
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Definition
| panels and air cooling ports filled with nose reduction material |
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Term
| Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft and what else? |
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Definition
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Term
| After running an engine in augmentation in the hush house, the augmentor tube is cooled by running the engine at idle for a period of how many minutes? |
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Definition
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Term
| During an inspection of the hush house you are not required to check the what? |
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Definition
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Term
| In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test engines that have been what? |
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Definition
| involved in an incident or mishap |
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Term
| When testing a TF34 engine at test cell, which test is performed to ensure all operating limits and schedules from idle to maximum power are within limits? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which testing engine is equipped with a quick engine change (QEC) kit? |
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Definition
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Term
| The two types of test cells currently used in the Air Force are what? |
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Definition
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Term
| A portable test cell is not equipped with a what? |
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Definition
| hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle |
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Term
| Which test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases? |
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Definition
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Term
| Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended from what? |
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Definition
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Term
| In the fixed test cell, air for the engine intake comes through baffles located where? |
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Definition
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Term
| The vertical baffles in the exhaust stack of the fixed test cell are designed to remove what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The portable test cell is not equipped with what? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the portable test cell, do the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer support the thrust trailer as high as 80 inches? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The vibration pickups on the portable test cell are cooled by what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The nose suppressor at a portable test cell is not equipped with what? |
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Definition
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Term
| When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, is must be what? |
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Definition
| operable with all known discrepancies corrected |
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|
Term
| Is the failure of internal engine parts considered a consequence of FOD? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which engine area should be checked for FOD prior to operation on the test cell facility? |
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Definition
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Term
| When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the engine model and serial number? |
|
Definition
| verify these numbers on the engine data plate |
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Term
| To prevent damage to the load cells when you are transferring an engine to the test stand, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| secure the upper and lower rails |
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Term
| Where should you begin your investigation of an engine with a possible oil consumption problem? |
|
Definition
| Review AFTO Form 781H, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Status and Maintenance. |
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Term
| If an engine stalls of surges during a test cell run, you should investigate what? |
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Definition
| the variable stator vanes |
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Term
| You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Responsibility for the proper preventative maintenance of a test cell facility rests with who? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections? |
|
Definition
| Periodic inspection checklists |
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Term
| During an inspection, compressor blade defects that are within limits are what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Defects (such as cracks) that appear on the combustion chamber are aggravated by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Defects (such as cracks) found during combustion chamber borescope inspections are what? |
|
Definition
| continually monitored as long as they are within limits |
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Term
| On a disassembled engine, a visual inspection of the combustion chamber is preferred over a borescope inspection because why? |
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Definition
| you could spot defects that have been missed with the borescope |
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Term
| Through extensive testing, engine manufacturers determine how long a particular part should last. This time is known as what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part could do what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| To borescope the high-pressure turbine (HPT) rotor blades, rotate the rear compressor by using the core engine rotating device on the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the Home Station Check (HSC) an inspection phase? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| During what inspection phase are operational checks made according to the technical order? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A basic post-flight inspection (BPO) is done when? |
|
Definition
| after the last flight of the flying period |
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|
Term
| What inspection is done on aircraft parts that require infrequent inspections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The home station check (HSC) inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO) and what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute and is accompanied by a slight overtemperature is called what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause a compressor stall due to what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What section of a compressor blade is most likely to fail? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the probable cause of compressor rotor shift? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| If the turbine nozzles are burned out uniformly around the whole annulus from an overtemperature condition, this is known as a what? |
|
Definition
| severe stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow |
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|
Term
| Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near the what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Turbine blade fatigue failure does not result from what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is complete lost of lubrication the most common characteristic cause of bearing failure? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, or improper storage could cause what? |
|
Definition
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