Term
Disease(s) of the adrenal medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disease(s) of the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
Cushing's syndrome, Addison's (adrenal insufficiency), hyperaldosteronism |
|
|
Term
Which region of the adrenals produces aldosterone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which region of the adrenals produces epinephrine and norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 zones of the adrenal cortex and the hormones they secrete |
|
Definition
- Zona glomerulosa: outer, mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
-Zona fasciculata: middle, glucocorticoids (cortisol)
-Zona reticularis: inner, gonadocorticoids (estrogens/androgens) |
|
|
Term
Function of mineralcorticoids? |
|
Definition
Water and electrolyte homeostasis (Na+, K+) |
|
|
Term
95% of mineralcorticoid activity is due to _________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Role of aldosterone? What controls aldosterone secretion? |
|
Definition
Na+ resorption & K+ secretion
Controlled by the Renin-Angiotensin system |
|
|
Term
Function of glucocorticoids? Most abundant? |
|
Definition
Metabolism regulation and stress resistance
Cortisol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Normal metabolism
2. Stress resistance
3. Anti-inflammatory |
|
|
Term
Genetic disorder characterized by enlarged adrenal glands.
Cause?
Result? |
|
Definition
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Cause: deficiency in enzyme needed for cortisol synthesis
Results: Virulism & masculinization |
|
|
Term
Hormone-producing cells of the adrenal medulla that surround large blood vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The main hormone (80%) produced by the adrenal medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tumors of the chromaffin cells, 90% occurr in the adrenal medulla. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rare but dangerous cause of HTN. Why? |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma
hypersecretion of epi/norepi causes vasoconstriction = HTN |
|
|
Term
What does the "rule of 10s" refer to in pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
10% are:
bilateral
not in the adrenals
malignant
not assoc w/ HTN
in children |
|
|
Term
3 Most common characteristics of pheochromocytomas? |
|
Definition
most are benign, unilateral, adrenal tumors |
|
|
Term
5% of pheochromocytomas are assoc w/ ___ ________.
Triad? |
|
Definition
MEN syndrome
(type II multiple endocrine neoplasia)
Triad of hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma and medullary thyroid cancer |
|
|
Term
What other 3 diseases are associated with pheochromocytomas in 5% of cases? |
|
Definition
-Recklinghausen's disease (neurofibromatosis)
-Sturge-Weber (cerebellar ataxia)
- Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome |
|
|
Term
Sx: Transient attacks consisting of severe headache, HTN and palpitations |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma
(may also have sweating, angina, tachycardia, face flushing, hyperglycemia or tremor)
MUST DDX FROM ANXIETY ATTACK |
|
|
Term
4 lab tests for pheochromocytoma |
|
Definition
- 24hr urine for catecholamines
-Serum chromogranin A
-CT or MRI scan for tumor
-Plasma fractionation for metanephrines- most sensitive |
|
|
Term
Procedure of choice for the tx of pheochromocytoma |
|
Definition
Laproscopic tumor removal |
|
|
Term
Drug of choice for pheochromocytoma |
|
Definition
Phenoxybenzamine (a-receptor blocker) until tumor removal |
|
|
Term
Major contraindication in the treatment of pheochromocytoma-induced HTN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pathological elevation of cortisol (hypercortisolism) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 main causes of Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
-Iatrogenic: steroids
-Adrenal adenoma or carcinoma
-Pituitary tumor (Cushing's disease): usually anterior, ACTH hypersecretion (*women)
-Ectopic: non-pituitary tumors (*SCLC, men) |
|
|
Term
Non-physical S/Sx of Cushing's syndrome? (ie. non-visible) |
|
Definition
Muscle weakness, HTN, depression, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
What tests are used to confirm elevated cortisol levels? |
|
Definition
Dexamethasone suppression test (easiest, < 5 = exclusion)
24hr urine for free cortisol (confirmed if >125ug/dl) |
|
|
Term
Tx options for Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
-Tumor: surgical removal tx of choice
-Metyrapone
-Glucocorticoid taper |
|
|
Term
Primary adrenal insufficiency. |
|
Definition
Pathology of adrenal glands, ie. Addison's disease
(= little/no cortisol secretion) |
|
|
Term
Secondary adrenal insufficiency |
|
Definition
Lack of ACTH secretion from the pituitary
(= low cortisol) |
|
|
Term
Tertiary adrenal insufficiency |
|
Definition
Lack of CRH secretion from the hypothalamus
(= low ACTH = low cortisol) |
|
|
Term
Primary adrenal insufficiency results in the decreased secretion of which hormones? |
|
Definition
Cortisol AND Aldosterone
(Aldosterone normal in secondary & tertiary) |
|
|
Term
Most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency |
|
Definition
Autoimmune: Addison's disease
May occur with polyglandular autoimmune syndrome type 1 |
|
|
Term
Characterized by hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, & muscular weakness |
|
Definition
Addison's disease
(hyperkalemia in primary only) |
|
|
Term
What lab tests would you order to evaluate adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
- Plasma cortisol @ 8am
-ACTH elevation (primary)
-Cosyntropin stimulation test (synthetic ACTH to stimulate cortisol;
+ if cortisol fails to rise)
-Abdominal CT for tumors or calcified lesions |
|
|
Term
Drug of choice to replace cortisol? Aldosterone? |
|
Definition
Cortisol: hydrocortisone
Aldosterone: Fludrocortisone |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with nausea, vomiting, apathy, confusion, profound weakness, hypotension & shock. Dx? Tx? |
|
Definition
Dx: Acute Addisonian/adrenal crisis
Tx: Hydrocortisone immediately |
|
|
Term
Define: Schmidt's disease |
|
Definition
Addison's + hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
Excess aldosterone secretion from the adrenal zona glomerulosa, resulting from hyperactive adrenal glands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2 Most common types of adrenal growths resulting in hyperaldosteronism |
|
Definition
- Solitary (unilateral) aldosterone-producing adenoma (aka. Conn's syndrome, 70%)
- Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, and muscular weakness |
|
Definition
Primary hyperaldosteronism
(Conn's should always be considered in a pt w/ HTN + Hypokalemia) |
|
|
Term
Most common cause of hypokalemia in hypertensive patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lab test for Conn's syndrome |
|
Definition
High plasma aldosterone and low renin |
|
|
Term
Tx of: Conn's syndrome? Adrenal hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
Conn's: adrenalectomy
Hyperplasia: medically, spironolactone for HTN & K+ |
|
|
Term
Connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The anterior pituitary is controlled by... |
|
Definition
the hypothalamus & direct feedback mechanisms |
|
|
Term
The posterior pituitary is controlled by... |
|
Definition
the CNS. (Stores hypothalamus secretions until CNS initiates their release) |
|
|
Term
Hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary |
|
Definition
GH, FSH/LH, ACTH, TSH, PRL |
|
|
Term
Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary |
|
Definition
Oxytocin, ADH/AVP (Arginine, vasopressin)
(These hormones are produced by the hypothalamus but stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary) |
|
|
Term
Most common cause of anterior hypopituitarism |
|
Definition
Primary pituitary adenomas ( >1cm) |
|
|
Term
The absence of all anterior pituitary hormones, assoc with PROP1 gene mutations. Pt presents with short stature, delayed puberty, dry skin, and apathy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the action of TSH facilitates the production of T3/T4 |
|
Definition
TSH activates adenyl cyclase, which stimulates iodine uptake for T3/4 synthesis |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with cold intolerance, fatigue, braydcardia, weight gain, dry skin and hyperlipidemia |
|
Definition
TSH deficiency/hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
What TSH and T3/4 lab results would you expect in a pt with primary hypothyroidism? Secondary/Tertiary?
For each of these, where is the dysfunction located? |
|
Definition
Primary (thyroid dysfxn): Inc TSH, Low or N T3/4
Secondary(pituitary)/tertiary (hypothalamus): Low to N TSH, low T3/4 |
|
|
Term
This enzyme mediates growth hormone (GH) secretion. |
|
Definition
IGF-1: Insulin growth factor-1 |
|
|
Term
How would growth hormone deficiency present in an infant/child? In an adult? |
|
Definition
Child: growth retardation/short stature, late puberty, fasting hypoglycemia
Adult: Inc BP and LDL, central obesity, mm weakness, small heart |
|
|
Term
The "gold standard" test for evaluating growth hormone levels. |
|
Definition
Insulin hypoglycemia test
Contraindicated in the elderly & CV disease pts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Stimulation of cortisol synthesis at adrenals
-Maintain adernal size (so dec ACTH = atrophy w/in 2 wks) |
|
|
Term
ACTH levels are under _________ control and levels are highest in the _______. However, they can also be increased by ______ . |
|
Definition
Circadian, morning, stress |
|
|
Term
What labs tests are used to evaluate ACTH levels? |
|
Definition
-ACTH serum levels (morning)
-1-hour cortisol stimulation test (confirmatory)
|
|
|
Term
Primary vs. secondary cortisol deficiency |
|
Definition
Primary: adrenal defect, ACTH normal or elevated
Secondary: Decreased pituitary ACTH secretion |
|
|
Term
Onset of puberty and ovulation is determined by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common type of congenital gonadotropin deficiency. S/Sx? |
|
Definition
Kallman's
S/Sx: delayed puberty, micropenia, cryptordhidism, dec smell, ASD |
|
|
Term
Lab test results for gonadotropin deficiency |
|
Definition
- (+/-) Decreased FSH, LH, testosterone, or estradiol |
|
|
Term
Gold standard for evaluating pituitary mass lesions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Flattening (primary) or shrinking (secondary) of the pituitary gland
Primary: fluid compression from hole in pituitary membrane
Secondary: Trauma, tumor, surgery |
|
|
Term
Tx for anterior hypopituitarism caused by a mass lesion. What is a potential SE of this treatment? |
|
Definition
Transphenoidal lesion removal
SE: Post-operative hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
Mainstay of tx for anterior hypopituitarism?
More specifically, TSH, gonadotropin, GH or ACTH deficiency? |
|
Definition
Hormone replacement
TSH: levothyroxine
Gonadotropin: testosterone/estrogen
GH: somatotropin, rhGH
ACTH: prednisone |
|
|
Term
What 3 hormones drive lactation? |
|
Definition
Prolactin, estrogen, progesterone |
|
|
Term
What are some of the effects of hyperprolactinoma in women? In men? |
|
Definition
Women: a/oligo-menorrhea, infertility, galactorrhea
Men: ED, dec libido, gynecomastia
Both: Inc risk of osteoporosis
Tumors may also secrete GH => acromegaly |
|
|
Term
Causes of hyperprolactinoma |
|
Definition
-Prolactin-secreting tumor
-Excessive exercise
-Pregnancy
-Pueriperium
-Stress/trauma/surgery
-Breast suckling/surgery
-Medications |
|
|
Term
Common treatment for infertility resulting from hyperprolactinoma |
|
Definition
Dopamine agonists. Once in remission, HRT |
|
|
Term
Most common cause of acromegaly |
|
Definition
Pituitary adenomas (often w/ MEN-1) |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with large hands, moist skin, wide fingers, coarse facial features and a prominent mandible. Most likely dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland? What is it stimulated by? |
|
Definition
ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin
Stimulated by the hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) secretion
S/Sx? Dx requirements? |
|
Definition
-High ADH
S/Sx: hyponatremia, retaining H2O w/o edema
Dx: absence of hypervolemia, normal renal, thyroid, adrenal fxn |
|
|
Term
Intense thirst and urine output with a low specific gravity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 types of diabetes insipidus & their causes |
|
Definition
1. Primary central DI: hypothalamic
2. Secondary central DI: trauma to pituitary/hypothalamus stalk
3. Vasopressinase-induced: pregnancy
4. Nephrogenic DI: renal, vasopressin-resistant |
|
|
Term
1/3 of all diabetes insipidus cases. MRI findings? Causes? |
|
Definition
1/3 are Primary DI
MRI: no lesions
Causes: autoimmune, stalk thickening, genetic (dominant: presents at 2y, recessive:Wolfram syndrome) |
|
|
Term
Circulating enzyme in late pregnancy that destroys native vasopression, resulting in diabetes insipidus. Associations? |
|
Definition
Vasopressinase
Associated w/ oligohydramnios, preeclampsia, hepatic dysfxn |
|
|
Term
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Causes? |
|
Definition
-Defect in renal tubules, preventing water resorption
-Congenital: X-linked
Both are non-responsive to vasopressin |
|
|
Term
What labs/tests would you order on a pt with suspected diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
-24hr CrCl
-BMP: Na+, glucose, Ca, BUN/Cr, N
-Uric acid
-Vasopressin challenge test
-MRI |
|
|
Term
Treatment of choice for diabetes insipidus. Nephrogenic DI? |
|
Definition
Desmopressin acetate
Nephrogenic: HCTZ, indomethacin, desmopressin |
|
|
Term
T3/4 precursor protein produced by the thyroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is 80% of T3 is produced? |
|
Definition
Outside the thyroid (The majority of T3 is produced by peripheral conversion from T4 in a deiodination reaction involving removal of one iodine from the outer ring of T4) |
|
|
Term
What lab test would be ordered to measure biologically active T3/T4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most sensitive test for primary hypo-/hyper-thyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 4 major effects of thyroid hormones on the body? |
|
Definition
-Inc BMR
-Inc catecholamine sensitivity
-Protein synthesis
-Food & vitamin metabolism |
|
|
Term
Most common type of thyroid disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common type of primary hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
Hashimoto thyroiditis (autoimmune) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Weakness, cold intolerance, weight gain, dry skin, goiter, facial edema
"Things are slowed down" |
|
|
Term
Common complications associated with hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
-Cardiac in pts w/ CAD and CHF
-Miscarriage/developmental problems in newborn
-Organic psychoses |
|
|
Term
Life-threatening hypothyroidism characterized by convulsions, severe hypothermia, hyperventilation, hypo-natremia & glycemia, hypotension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common cause of hyperthyroidism |
|
Definition
Grave's disease (autoimmune) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Restlessness, heat intolerance, sweating, muscle cramps, weight loss, palpitations, exopthalamos, finger swelling, pretibial myxedema |
|
|
Term
Common complications of hyperthyroidism. Pregnancy complications? |
|
Definition
Addison's, alopecia, celiac disease, DM1, myasthenia gravis, hypokalemic paralysis
Pregnancy: spontaneous abortion, low birth weight, preeclampsia |
|
|
Term
What labs would you order on a pt with suspected hyperthyroidism (Grave's disease)? |
|
Definition
Serum TSH, T3 radioiodine, I123 uptake, Anti-TGB Ab |
|
|
Term
A commonly used method of treatment for hyperthyroidism that destroys the overactive thyroid tissue by damaging cells where this treatment is concentrated. |
|
Definition
Radioactive iodine I131 (RAI131) |
|
|
Term
This drug is used for the symptomatic treatment of hyperthyroidism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of hyperthyroidism? Preferred tx during pregnancy or breastfeeding? |
|
Definition
Tapazole
Pregnancy: PTU (Proplythiouracil), dose <200mg/d |
|
|
Term
An extreme form of thyrotoxicoses that may occur with stressful illness, thyroid surgery or RAI administration. Characterized by a very high fever, delerium, severe tachycardia, and/or dehydration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for thyroid crisis/storm? What drug should not be given? |
|
Definition
-Thioureas
-Ipodate sodium: begun 1hr post-thiourea
-Iodide: begun 1hr post-ipodate
-Propanolol: for cardiac sx
-Hydrocortisone
NO ASPIRIN: raises FT4 |
|
|
Term
Inflammation of the thyroid gland. |
|
Definition
Thyroiditis
Acute: May put pressure on the internal structures of the neck
Chronic: Painless enlargement, rubbery firmness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Drug-induced
Hashimoto
Postpartum
Reidel
Subacute (Quervain)
Suppurative |
|
|
Term
Most common cause of hypothyroidism, and most common thyroid disorder in the US. Treatment? |
|
Definition
Hashimoto thyrioditis
Tx: levothyroxine |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of post-partum thyroiditis |
|
Definition
1-6mo post-delivery: hyperthyroidism lasting 1-2mo
4-8mo post-delivery: hypothyroidism, 80% recover
70% recurrence w/ subsequent pregnancies |
|
|
Term
An acute, painful, enlargement of the thyroid with dysphagia, fever and fatigue. Often occurs after a URI and in the summer months. Lasts weeks to months. Treatment? |
|
Definition
Subacute/Quervain thyroiditis
Tx: Aspirin, propanolol for sx |
|
|
Term
Infection of the thyroid gland, usually bacterial. |
|
Definition
Suppurative thyroiditis
(suppurative means "pus/purulent") |
|
|
Term
This drug is most likely to cause both hyper- and hypo-thyroidism due its high iron content and structural similarity to T4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thyroid enlargement where the gland is "stony hard" and adherent to the neck. Tx? |
|
Definition
Reidel thyroiditis
Tx: Tamoxifen |
|
|
Term
Chronic enlargement of the thyroid, not due to neoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Compression symptoms often associated with goiters (6) |
|
Definition
-Respiratory distress/failure
-Dysphagia
-GI bleeding from esophageal varices
-Nerve palsies (phrenic & recurrent laryngeal)
-Cerebral ischemia/CVA
-Superior vena cava syndrome |
|
|
Term
Drug Tx for goiters? Whom should this drug not be given to? |
|
Definition
Tx: Levothyroxine
Do not give to pts with suppressed TSH levels (indicates elevated T4) |
|
|
Term
___% of palpable "solitary" thyroid nodules are found for be just one nodule in a multinodular goiter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
95% of thyroid nodules are _________ and present as a "____" nodule with I123 . |
|
Definition
Benign, hot
BUT, need to be followed up for function and malignancy |
|
|
Term
The best diagnostic method for thyroid cancer. |
|
Definition
Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy |
|
|
Term
What are 5 characteristics of nodules, identified by ultrasound, that increase the liklihood of malignancy? |
|
Definition
- Irregular margins/borders
- Hetergenous echogenicity
-Microcalcifications
-Complex cyst
- >1cm diameter |
|
|
Term
Describe what a "cold" lesion is on a radioactive thyroid scan and what it most likely indicates. |
|
Definition
Cold lesion: An area of the thyroid that fails to concentrate the tracer
- Often characteristic of a thyroid cyst or neoplastic growth |
|
|
Term
Describe what a "hot" lesion is on a radioactive thyroid scan and what it most likely indicates. |
|
Definition
-Hot lesion: An area of the thyroid that appears to concentrate the tracer
-Often characteristic of benign adenomatous growths |
|
|
Term
Which RAI tracer should be used in breastfeeding mothers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drug treatment for thyroid nodules >2cm? Contraindications? |
|
Definition
Levothyroxine (prevents enlargement, but does not shrink)
Contraindications: cardiac disease (angina/A-fib), osteoporotic pts
|
|
|
Term
Non-surgical treatment option to shrink the thyroid in hyperthyroid pts with a toxic thyroid adenoma, multinodular goiter or Graves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the required treatment for malignant thyroid nodules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
S/Sx: Palpable, firm, non-tender nodule in the thyroid, usually asymptomatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 types of thyroid cancers |
|
Definition
Papillary
Follicular
Medullary
Anaplastic |
|
|
Term
How are the imaging techniques of ultrasound, CT, and PET each used in the evaluation of thyroid carcinoma? |
|
Definition
US: intial Dx and followup
CT & PET: to identify metastases
|
|
|
Term
Most common thyroid malignancy |
|
Definition
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
However, slow-growing and not very aggressive |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with a mass in their neck that has been slowly getting larger over the past few years. The pt states that 15 years ago they were exposed to radiation. What type of thyroid carcinoma is this most likely to be? |
|
Definition
Papillary thyroid carcinoma |
|
|
Term
This type of thyroid carcinoma is a result of a gene mutation or translocation and is generally more aggressive. |
|
Definition
Follicular thyroid carcinoma |
|
|
Term
This type of thyroid carcinoma is familial and usually presents with early local metastases (muscle, trachea, and mediastinal lymph nodes). What lab value is usually elevated? |
|
Definition
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Calcitonin is usually elevated |
|
|
Term
This is the most aggressive thyroid carcinoma, it's usually found in the elderly and presents with early metastases. |
|
Definition
Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma |
|
|
Term
______ ____________ levels are high in most metastatic papillary and follicular tumors, making it a useful marker for recurrent or metastatic disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment of choice for thyroid carcinomas? |
|
Definition
Surgery
Total thyroidectomy: differentiated
Subtotal: <45yo w/ tumor <1cm |
|
|
Term
Low circulating serum calcium concentrations stimulate the parathyroid glands to secrete _____________. |
|
Definition
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Stimulates osteoclasts to mobilize calcium
2. Stimulates kidneys to resorb calcium
3. Stimulates kidneys to activate D3, resulting in increased absorption of Ca from the small intestine
4. Inhibits resorption of phosphate and bicarb by renal tubules |
|
|
Term
PTH is secreted by the __________ cells of the parathyroid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism |
|
Definition
Thyroidectomy (usually transient) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Accelerated bone remineralization post surgical removal of the parathyroid for primary hyperparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
Infant presents with hypocalcemic seizures. DDx? |
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant hypocalcemia w/ hypercalciuria (ADHH)
Hypocalcemia without elevations in serum PTH b/c of deficient secretion of PTH |
|
|
Term
Infant presents with high-frequency deafness and renal dysplasia. DDx? |
|
Definition
HDR/Barakat syndrome
(Hyperparathyroidism Deafness Renal dysplasia) |
|
|
Term
S/Sx: Congenital cardiac and facial abnormalities, tetany in infancy. |
|
Definition
DiGeorge syndrome (aplasia/hypoplasia of parathyroid) |
|
|
Term
Non-surgical and non-genetic causes of hypoparathyroidism. |
|
Definition
- Heavy metals: magnesium deficiency, copper or iron poisioning
-Tumors, granulomas or Reidel's thyroiditis
-Infection
-Radiation
-Autoimmune: PGA-1, APECED
-Fat malabsorption (VitD is fat soluble) |
|
|
Term
Group of disorders characterized by hypocalcemia due to renal resistance to PTH. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with short stature, round face, short 4th metacarpals, ectopic bone formation and mental retardation. Presumed Dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt c/o tingling in their hands, feet, and circumorally. Pt also presents with tetany, muscle cramps, carpopedal spasms, and irritability. Presumed Dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with ongoing lethargy, anxiety, cataracts, parkinsonism and mental retardation. Presumed Dx? |
|
Definition
Chronic hypoparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
What are some common PE findings of hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
Chvostek sign, Trousseau phenomenon, cataracts, thin & brittle nails, hyperactive DTRs, papilledema, inc CSF pressure, tetany, posterior lenticular cataracts, and increased lumbar mineral density |
|
|
Term
Expected lab findings of hypoparathyroidism |
|
Definition
Low serum Ca2+, urinary Ca2+, and PTH
High serum phosphate |
|
|
Term
How are parathyroid disorders diagnosed? |
|
Definition
With LAB TESTS, not imaging studies |
|
|
Term
Complications of untreated chronic hypoparathyroidism |
|
Definition
-Autoimmuity: sprue syndrome, pernicious anemia, Addison's
-Cataract formation
-Parkinsonian sx
-Paravertebral ligament ossification & nerve root compression
-Seizures
-Heart failure |
|
|
Term
Treatment of acute hypoparathyroid tetany |
|
Definition
Immediate Tx!
-Ensure adequate airway
-IV calcium gluconate given slowly
-Oral calcium/calcium salts
-Administer VitD or calcitriol
-Mg2+ replacement (sulfate for acute, oxide for chronic) |
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Term
3 Forms of VitD used for supplementation |
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Definition
-Calcitriol
-Ergocalciferol ergosterol (VitD2, calciferol)
-Cholecalciferol (VitD3) |
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Term
What is the target maintenance level of total serum calcium when treating hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
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Term
What drugs should be avoided in a patient being treated for hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
Phenothiazine & furosemide (Lasix) |
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Term
Chronic poorly regulated, excessive secretion of PTH by one or more parathyroid glands, resulting in hypercalcemia. |
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Definition
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Term
Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism
3 other possible etiologies? |
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Definition
Hypersecretion of PTH by a single parathyroid adenoma
-Hyperplasia of 2+ parathyroid glands
-Carcinoma
- < 30yo: multiglandular disease |
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Term
Physiology of hyperparathyroidism |
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Definition
-Increased excretion phosphate by the kidneys
-Increased osteoclast activity (cystic bone lesions)
- Increased excretion of calcium due to overwhelmed tubular resorption capacity
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Term
T or F
The serum PTH level often correlates with the size of the parathyroid adenoma |
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Definition
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Term
5 etiologies of hypercalcemia |
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Definition
1. Parathyroid-related*
2. Malignancy-related*
3. Vitamin D-related
4. High bone turnover
5. Renal failure
*Account for 90% of hypercalcemia |
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Term
3 possible genetic causes of hyperparathyroidism |
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Definition
1. MEN syndrome (esp MEN-1), 90%
2. Familial hypercalciuric hypercalcemia
3. Jaw tumor syndrome |
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Term
Features of MEN-1 syndrome |
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Definition
-Hyperparathyroidism, 90% (early onset, multiple glands)
-Gastrinoma, 45%
-Pituitary tumor, 25%
-Facial angiofibroma, 85%
-Collangenoma, 70% |
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Term
How does CRF cause secondary hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
Hyperphosphatemia and dec renal production of D3 results in an initial decrease in ionized calcium, which stimulates PTH secretion |
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Term
The bone disease seen in secondary hyperparathyroidism. |
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Definition
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Term
____% of parathyroid carcinomas are palpable |
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Definition
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Term
S/Sx: "bones, stones, abdominal groans, psychic moans, with fatigue overtones" |
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Definition
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Term
PE findings of hyperparathyroidism |
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Definition
-Loss of cortical bone, gain of trabecular bone
-Osteitis fibrosa cystica: "brown tumors"
-Diminished DTRs
-Kidney stones/nephrocalcinosis
-Calcium precipitation in the corneas of soft tissue
-CV effects: HTN, EKG effects, heart block, asystole |
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Term
Complications of hyperparathyroidism during pregnancy.
Fetal effects? |
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Definition
Nephrolithiasis, hyperemisis, pancreatitis, muscle weakness, hypercalcemic crisis
Fetus: fetal demise, prematurity, low birth weight, neonatal tetany, permanent hypoparathyroidism |
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Term
Lab tests and expected results in hyperparathyroidism |
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Definition
-Elevated PTH, serum calcium and/or ionized calcium
-Low-normal serum phosphate
-24h urine: r/o familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
-DEXA: wrist, hip, spine
-KUB, IVP or CT for kidney stones
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Term
How do calcium and phosphorus levels vary in primary, secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism |
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Definition
Primary: High calcium, low-normal phorphorus
Secondary: Low-normal calcium, high phosphorus
Tertiary: High calcium and phosphorus |
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Term
What is the most common cause of tertiary hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
long-standing secondary hyperparathyroidism which stimulates the growth of an autonomous adenoma |
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Term
What imaging studies are useful in in evaluation of hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
-Sestamibi scanning & neck ultrasonography to localize adenomas
-MRI for ectopic parathyroids |
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Term
What might appear on bone radiographs of a pt with long-standing hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
-Demineralization, cysts, mottling of the skull (salt & pepper), pathologic fractures, or articular cartilage calcification |
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Term
What are some indications for a parathyroidectomy to treat hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
-Symptomatic pt, kidney stones, or bone disease
-Asymptomatic:
-Serum Ca >1mg/dL above upper limit of normal w/ calciuria >50mg/24h
-cortical bone density 2 SD below normal
-Age < 50yo
-Pregnancy
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Term
What should not be done to treat familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalemia? |
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Definition
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Term
How should acute hyperparathyroidism be treated? |
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Definition
Hospitalization, FLUIDS, IV bisphosphonates |
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Term
What are some treatment options for non-acute hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
-Calcimemetics (cinacalcet hydrochloride)- increase sensitivity of the PT to calcium
-VitD
-High-dose estrogen
-SERMS: raloxifine
-Bisphosphonates
-Propanolol for cardiac effects
-Phosphate binders for secondary HPT
NO DIGOXIN |
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Term
Most cases of diabetes mellitus are type ___. |
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Definition
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Term
There is a direct correlation between type 2 DM and _________. |
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Definition
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Term
Physiological effects of insulin |
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Definition
-Lowers blood glucose
-Glycogen synthesis
-Glycolysis
-Fatty acid synthesis |
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Term
90% of type 1 diabetes mellitus is a result of: |
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Definition
Autoimmune destruction of islet cells |
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Term
2 main causes of type 2 diabetes mellitus |
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Definition
1. Insulin resistance (peripheral)
2. Relative insulin deficiency resulting from insulin resistance (pancreatic failure) |
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Term
Which type of diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA mutations? |
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Definition
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Term
There is a strong correlation between peripheral insulin resistance and ___________________. |
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Definition
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Term
Type 2 DM is a dual hormone disease, caused not only by insulin but also ________. |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the physiological basis of gestational diabetes. |
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Definition
-Placenta produces anti-insulin hormones which cause insulin resistance in the mother
-Pancreas compensates by producing more insulin, but it cannot overcome the resistance, leading to GD
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Term
Common causes of secondary diabetes |
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Definition
Steriods, cystic fibrosis, chronic pancreatitis (alcoholism), hemochromotosis, amyloidosis, Cushing's syndrome |
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Term
A condition characterized by abnormal plasma insulin/glucose levels, lipids, uric acid levels, coagulation factor imbalances (prothrombic state), and vascular physiology changes (atherogenic). These abnormalities are also associated with a high risk of ____________________________. |
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Definition
Dysmetabolic syndrome
Atherosclerotic disease |
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Term
Who should be screened for diabetes mellitus? How often? |
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Definition
-> 45yo: every 3 years (earlier if + risk factors)
-Children/adolescents: BMI in 85th percentile and 2+ risk factors, every 2 years
-If pt has s/sx: do a diagnostic test, not screening |
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Term
How does a symptomatic pt with undiagnosed DM usually present? |
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Definition
Polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, weight loss, vulvovaginitis, blurred vision, or diabetic ketoacidosis |
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Term
What is a normal fasting plasma glucose? Normal random plasma glucose? |
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Definition
Normal FPG <100 mg/dL
Normal RPG <125 mg/dL |
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Term
What fasting plasma glucose is required for diabetes to be diagnosed? Random plasma glucose? OGTT? |
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Definition
FPG >126 mg/dL
RPG: >200 mg/dL and symptomatic
OGTT >200
All must be confirmed on different day |
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Term
What A1C value indicates diabetes? What values indicate a high risk of developing diabetes? |
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Definition
Diabetes: > 6.5%
High risk: 6.0-6.5%
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Term
3 major microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus.
What effect does tight glycemic control have on these complications? |
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Definition
Retinopathy
Nephropathy
Neuropathy [autonomic and peripheral (bilateral peripheral polyneuropathy)]
-Tight glycemic control may reverse these complications in their early stages |
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Term
Earliest predictor of nephropathy in a pt with DM. What drugs can be used to protect the kidneys from nephropathy? |
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Definition
Microalbuminuria
ACEi & ARBs |
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Term
Pt presents with paresthesias, hyperesthesias, absent ankle jerks, and decreased vibratory, pain and temperature senses. |
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Definition
Distal symmetric polyneuropathy |
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Term
Macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus.
What effect does tight glycemic control have on these complications? |
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Definition
Coronary artery disease
Peripheral artery disease
Cerebral vascular disease
Improving glycemic control does not reduce the risk of macrovascular seqelae. |
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Term
What is the goal BP of a pt with diabetes mellitus? |
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Definition
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Term
What tests should be done at the initial visit on a pt to monitor diabetes mellitus? |
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Definition
FPG, HbA1C, fasting lipid profile, UA for protein & glucose, microalbumin:Cr, EKG, TSH |
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Term
What tests should be done on a regular basis to monitor diabetes mellitus? |
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Definition
BP & foot check- every visit
HbA1C- every 3mo
fasting lipid profile, microalbumin:Cr, and eye exam: yearly |
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Term
3 quality measures of DM control. |
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Definition
HbA1C: < 7
FLP < 100 (LDL)
BP <130/80 |
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Term
What is the primary method of assessing glycemic control over the last 3mo? |
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Definition
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C)
Goal: < 7% |
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Term
In long-standing diabetics, a HbA1C of 7.0-7.9% indicates a high risk for _________. |
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Definition
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Term
This test reflects glucose control over the past 2 weeks. Goal? False low? |
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Definition
Fructosamine test
Goal: 2
False low: low albumin (b/c fructosamine is produced by the glycosylation of albumin) |
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Term
What is the goal LDL in a pt with DM? |
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Definition
<100, with an optional goal of <70 |
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Term
What is the mainstay treatment of type 2 DM? |
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Definition
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Term
Monotherapy options for the treatment of Type 2 DM? |
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Definition
Metformin: initial drug treatment of choice
Secretagogues
Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)
DPP-IV inhibitors |
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Term
Initial treatment of choice for type 2 DM? MOA? |
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Definition
Metformin (Glucophage)
Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity in the muscles and liver. |
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Term
This DM drug may increase the risk of lactic acidosis or worsen contrast-induced nephropathy. |
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Definition
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Term
These DM drugs increase pancreatic secretion of insulin in response to glucose. |
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Definition
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Term
These DM drugs decrease post-prandial hyperglycemia by decreasing GI absorption of carbohydrates |
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Definition
Alpha- glucosidase inhibitors |
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Term
DM drugs that increase muscle sensitivity to insulin, but may cause fluid retention and an increased risk of fracture. |
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Definition
Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) |
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Term
DM drugs that prevent rapid degradation of incretin hormones |
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Definition
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Term
This DM drug that increases insulin and decreases inappropriately high glucagon secretion. It also slows gastric emptying, but one of the rare but major SE is acute pancreatitis. |
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Definition
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Term
2 long-acting insulins to maintain basal levels |
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Definition
Lantus and Levemir are Long-acting |
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Term
How long after eating should glucose be tested to check for drug efficacy? |
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Definition
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Term
How is blood glucose used to calculate optimal basal insulin dosing? Post-prandial insulin? |
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Definition
BG 140-200: 0.4 u/kg x 50%
BG 201-400: 0.5 u/kg x 50%
Post-prandial: then divide each by 3 |
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Term
How is weight used to calculate optimal basal insulin levels? |
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Definition
0.3 u/kg: elderly, CKD, hypoglycemia
0.5 u/kg: Normal
0.7 u/kg: Obese |
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Term
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Definition
The body is unable to use glucose, resulting in the breakdown of fatty acids into ketones |
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Term
Clinical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis |
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Definition
Kussmaul respirations, dehydration, altered mental status, abdominal pain |
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Term
Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis |
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Definition
Hydration
IV insulin until anion gap is corrected
IV dextrose to maintain blood sugar
Replace potassium and phosphate |
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Term
Hyperosmolar, very high glucose without acidosis. |
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Definition
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)
Serum glucose >600, osmolality >310 |
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Term
Triglycerides are responsible for _________ ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
The least dense lipoproteins, produced in the small intestine and transfer energy into muscle and fat cells. |
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Definition
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Term
The smallest and most dense lipoproteins. Made in the liver and intestine, they transfer apoproteins and reverse cholesterol transport. |
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Definition
High-density lipoproteins (HDL) |
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Term
These lipoproteins provide cholesterol for cellular needs but excess is taken up by the liver. |
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Definition
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) |
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Term
At what age should cholesterol screening begin? |
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Definition
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Term
How is total cholesterol calculated? Desirable level? High? |
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Definition
TC = LDL + HDL + VLDL
Normal: < 200 mg/dL
High: > 240mg/dL |
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Term
Goal HDL? At what point is a pt considered at risk for heart disease? |
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Definition
Goal: > 60 mg/dL
Risk: M < 45; W < 35 |
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Term
What is the optimal LDL level? High? |
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Definition
Optimal <100
High: 160-189 |
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Term
What is a normal triglyceride level? High? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Triglycerides / 5 (inaccurate if TG level is above 400) |
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Term
What should you do if your patient's total cholesterol is >300 mg/dL? |
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Definition
Consider a possible genetic cause and obtain cholesterol levels in their family members. |
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Term
What puts a pt in the CHD risk factor category? What should be their goal LDL? |
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Definition
Prior MI, ischemia, hx of angina, prior CABG or angioplasty/stent placement
Goal LDL: < 100 mg/dL |
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Term
What puts a pt in the CHD equivalent risk factor category? What should be their goal LDL? |
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Definition
PAD, carotid AD, atherosclerotic disease, diabetes, >2 major risk factors
Goal: < 100 mg/dL |
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Term
What are some major risk factors for heart disease? What should the goal LDL in these pts? |
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Definition
Smoking, HTN, low HDL (<40), FHx of CHD, age (M >45, W >55)
Goal: <130 mg/dL |
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Term
What is the goal LDL in a pt with 0-1 risk factor for heart disease? |
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Definition
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Term
What does a high total cholesterol to HDL ratio indicate? High LDL/HDL ratio? |
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Definition
Higher risk for CHD (for both) |
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Term
What is the primary goal of cholesterol-lowering therapy? |
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Definition
To achieve the LDL goal by way of therapeutic lifestyle changes or drug therapy |
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Term
What are the initial treatment regimens for high cholesterol? |
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Definition
-Therapeutic lifestyle changes (diet, exercise)
-Return visit in 6 wks |
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Term
What should be done on a pts second visit for cholesterol-lowering treatment? |
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Definition
-Evaluate LDL response
-Intensify LDL-lowering therapy if needed (reinforcement, stricter diet)
-Return in 6 weeks |
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Term
What should be done on a pts third visit for cholesterol-lowering treatment? |
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Definition
-Evaluate LDL response
-Continue lifestyle if goal achieved
-Consider LDL-lowering drug
-Dietitian referral |
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Term
What major effect does a statin have on cholesterol levels? |
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Definition
Reduces LDL 18-55% and TG 30% |
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Term
What are the therapeutic benefits of bile acid sequesterants? |
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Definition
-Reduce the liklihood of major coronary events
- Reduce CHD mortality |
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Term
Major actions of nicotinic acid (niacin)? |
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Definition
Lowers Tg 20-50% and LDL-C 5-25%, raises HDL 15-35% |
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Term
Major actions of fibric acid derivatives? |
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Definition
Lower TG 20-50%, raises HDL 10-20% |
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Term
Major effect of ezetimibe (Zetia) on cholesterol levels? |
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Definition
Lowers LDL 15-20%
Can be combined w/ a statin |
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Term
What is metabolic syndrome (syndrome X)? |
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Definition
A pt presenting with 3+ of the following factors:
-Central obesity: waist M >40", W >35"
-High BP
-High triglycerides >150
-Low HDL: M <40, W <50
-Insulin resistance: FBG >110 |
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Term
At what triglyceride level is a pt at risk for pancreatitis? |
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Definition
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Term
What should be considered if a pt has a LDL of >190 mg/dL? |
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Definition
A genetic disorder such as:
-Monogenic familial hypercholesterolemia
-Familial defective apolipoprotein B-100
-Polygenic hypercholesterolemia |
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