Term
5.1
What are the two methods commonly used for identifying and agreeing to ground operations on an airport between the FAA and airport management? |
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Definition
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
or
Letter of Agreement (LOA) |
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Term
5.2
What six items are typically included in an MOU or LOA? |
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Definition
1. Hours of operation
2. Emergency notification responsibility
3. Authorized vehicles
4. Types of communication equipment
5. Call signs to be used
6. Areas where ATC clearance is required |
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Term
5.3
True or False
A light gun is used to communicate between the ATCT and aircraft without operational radios and ground vehicles without operational radios. |
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Definition
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Term
5.4
What does a steady green light mean to an aircraft in the air? |
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Definition
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Term
5.5
What does a steady green light mean to a vehicle on the ground? |
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Definition
Cleared to enter, cross or proceed |
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Term
5.6
What does a flashing green light mean to a vehicle on the ground? |
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Definition
Nothing. . .it does not apply! |
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Term
5.7
What does a steady red light mean to a vehicle on the ground? |
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Definition
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Term
5.8
What does a flashing red light mean to a vehicle on the ground? |
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Definition
Clear the runway or other surface the vehicle is on |
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Term
5.9
What does a flashing red light mean to an aircraft in the air? |
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Definition
Airport is unsafe, do not land. |
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Term
5.10
What does a flashing white light mean to a vehicle on the ground? |
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Definition
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Term
5.11
What does a vehicle driver do when they need light gun signals from the tower? |
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Definition
They flash their headlights |
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Term
5.12
What is the typical string of information that is conveyed in a typical communication with ATCT?
(4 items) |
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Definition
1. Who are you trying to contact THEN
2. Identify yourself THEN
3. Explain what you want THEN
4. Confirm you have received the message or compliance with instruction given. |
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Term
5.13
What two pieces of information can be found in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)? |
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Definition
1. Airport information
2. Preferential routes between two sectors |
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Term
5.14
True or False
FAA Order 7110.65 outlines standard communication procedures |
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Definition
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Term
5.15
What is another name for UTC (Universal Time Coordinated) Time? |
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Definition
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Term
5.16
How do you convert from Zulu time to the current time in your time zone? |
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Definition
Either add or subtract hours from the published Zulu time |
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Term
5.17
How is wind direction stated? |
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Definition
From the compass bearing it is coming FROM |
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Term
5.18
How are runways numbered? |
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Definition
The runway number represents the magnetic bearing of the runway rounded to the nearest 10 degrees |
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Term
5.19
What portion of the National Airspace System is located around the nation's major airports and extends from the surface to a specified altitude and encompasses an area 60 miles in diameter? |
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Definition
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Term
5.20
True or False
The terminal airspace portion of the National Airspace System is encompasses the largest amount of airspace. |
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Definition
FALSE
Enroute airspace is the largest as it exists from the surface up to the upper performance limits of aircraft (does not include the terminal airspace). |
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Term
5.21
What class of airspace extends from 18,000-feet to 60,000-feet? |
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Definition
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Term
5.22
What class of airspace surrounds the major airports in the US and subjects pilots to special operating rules and equipment? |
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Definition
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Term
5.23
What class of airspace has a radius of 5 statute miles from an airport? |
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Definition
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Term
5.24
What class of airspace exists beneath controlled airspace? |
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Definition
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Term
5.25
What class of airspace contains the corridors identified as federal airways? |
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Definition
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Term
5.26
What class of airspace surrounds an airport and where ATC provides 24-hour radar vectoring, sequencing and other services to VFR and IFR aircraft? |
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Definition
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Term
5.27
What is the difference between VFR and VMC? |
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Definition
VFR stands for visual flight rules when are the rules and procedures that pilots follow whereas VMC stands for visual meteorological conditions. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
5.29
What are the three types of approaches a pilot can make? |
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Definition
1. Visual
2. Instrument
3. Contact |
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Term
5.30
Under what conditions can a pilot make a visual approach? |
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Definition
1. When ATCT approves it
2. When visibility at the airport is 3 statute miles or greater AND ceiling is above 1,000 feet |
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Term
5.31
Instrument procedures are developed under what guidance? |
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Definition
TERminal Instrument Procedures (TERPs) |
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Term
5.32
True or False
Under a contact approach, a pilot is cleared for the approach using ground references and responsibility for "see and avoid" rests with the pilot. |
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Definition
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Term
5.33
What are the three different Air Traffic Control services available to pilots? |
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Definition
1. Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs)
2. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
3. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) |
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Term
5.34
The positions of approach control , departure control, clearance delivery and flight data are found in what Air Traffic Control facility? |
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Definition
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Term
5.35
The positions of local control, ground control, clearance delivery and flight data can be found in what Air Traffic Control facility? |
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Definition
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Term
5.36
What two factors define the terminal airspace? |
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Definition
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Term
5.37
A recorded message that continuously transmits airport information on a seperate assigned frequency and is updated hourly is known as what? |
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Definition
The Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) |
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Term
5.38
What is the purpose of a pattern leg near an airport? |
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Definition
To keep orderliness for aircraft using the airport and to maintain visual separation |
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Term
5.39
What is a standard traffic pattern at an airport? |
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Definition
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Term
5.40
What is a holding pattern and when would it be used? |
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Definition
A holding pattern is a racetrack shaped pattern near an airport.
They are used when capacity is maxed out or when weather conditions prohibit the use of any of the available approaches to the airport. |
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Term
5.41
What type of communication equipment is used to communicate with aircraft outside of an ARTCCs communcation range OR when there are frequent instrument operations at a non-towered airport OR when there are terrain issues causing loss of communication at lower altitudes? |
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Definition
Remote Communication Air/Ground (RCAG) |
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Term
5.42
What are the four general types of radar? |
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Definition
1. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
2. Airport Suveillance Radar (ASR)
3. Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
4. Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE) |
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Term
5.43
Which of the four radar types is generally used for the identification and separation of aircraft within 60 nautical miles of the airport? |
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Definition
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Term
5.44
Which of the four radar types is used for enroute flight separation and identification? |
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Definition
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Term
4.45
True or False
ARTS IIIE has the ability to provide altitude deviation and conflict alert prompts to the controller if the computer detects altitude changes or predicts flight paths that exceed the minimum separation standards. |
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Definition
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Term
4.46
The beacon device installed on an aircraft that transmits data on the aircraft position and altitude is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
4.47
What five elements compose Airport Surface Traffic Automation (ATSA)? |
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Definition
1. Runway status light system
2. Suveillance data link
3. Aural and visual warnings
4. Data tags
5. Traffic planner |
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Term
4.48
What do ATC controllers use ASDE for? |
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Definition
To augment and confirm information obtained from visual surveillance of the airport surface or verbal aircraft position reporting. |
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Term
4.49
What system works in conjunction with ASDE and ARTS to predict and help prevent runway incursions? |
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Definition
Airport Movement Area Safety System (AMASS) |
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Term
5.50
What does a PRM allow a controller to do? |
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Definition
Track two planes simultaneously approaching parallel runways under IMC to ensure they do not enter into a non-transgression zone between the two approaches. |
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Term
5.51
What type of navigation aide is typically used by general aviation pilots where bad terrain exists? |
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Definition
Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) |
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Term
5.52
What navigational aide transmists a VHF frequency and has a typical range of 200 miles? |
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Definition
Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range (VOR) |
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Term
5.53
What navigation aid determines the distance an aircraft is from the station? |
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Definition
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
5.55
What is the benefit of RNAV? |
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Definition
Allows for more direct routing to the destination by eliminating circuitous VOR routes |
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Term
5.56
What navigational aides are used for approach navigation?
(8 types) |
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Definition
1. Terminal VOR (TVOR)
2. Insttrument Landing System (ILS)
3. Localizer (LOC) and LDA
4. Simplified Directional Finder (SDF)
5. Microwave Landing System (MLS)
6. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
7. Airport Suveillance Radar (ASR)
8. Global Positioning System (GPS) |
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Term
5.57
What are the three Categories of ILSs? |
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Definition
1. Category I
2. Category II
3. Category III (IIIa, IIIb and IIIc) |
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Term
5.58
Which category of instrument approach requires an outer, middle and inner markers and a decision height less than 200-feet at the inner marker? |
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Definition
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Term
5.59
What category of ILS approach has a minimum RVR value of 1,200-feet? |
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Definition
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Term
5.60
What four requirements must exist for a navaid to be used for navigation purposes? |
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Definition
1. Integrity
2. Accuracy
3. Availability
4. Reliability |
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Term
5.61
What is the purpose of an Approach Lighting System (ALS)? |
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Definition
They are designed to facilitate the transition from instrument to visual flying by helping the pilot locate the runway |
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Term
5.62
What code of federal regulation established procedures for reporting proposed construction that may consitute potential obstructions or hazards to safe navigation? |
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Definition
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Term
5.63
Under 14 CFR Part 77, what constitutes an obstruction? |
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Definition
Any growth, terrain, permanent or temporary construction or alteration (including equipment and materials) and apperatus of a permanent or temporary character |
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Term
5.64
What are the five imaginary surfaces contained in FAR Part 77? |
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Definition
1. Primary
2. Transitional
3. Approach
4. Horizontal
5. Conical |
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Term
5.65
What does FAA Form 7460-1 do? |
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Definition
Notifies the FAA of any proposed construction or alteration |
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Term
5.66
What does FAA Form 7460-2 do? |
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Definition
Notifies the FAA of actual construction or alteration |
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Term
5.67
What does FAA Form 7480-1 do? |
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Definition
Notifies the FAA of the construction of a proposed landing facility |
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Term
6.68
What does FAA Order 6030.1 provide? |
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Definition
Guidance on eligible costs and design considerations |
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Term
6.69
What does FAR Part 171 provide? |
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Definition
Guidance on non-federally funded NAVAID installation |
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Term
6.70
What are the five categories that trigger the need for filing a 7460-1? |
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Definition
1. Object is greater than 200-feet in height
2. Object is NEAR a public use or military airport, heliport or seaplane base
3. Object is ON a public use or military airport, heliport or seaplane base
4. Object exceeds height standards
5. When required by the FAA |
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Term
6.71
When does an object constitute a hazard? |
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Definition
When it is greater 200-feet in height and within 5 statute miles of an airport. |
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Term
6.72
What six conclusions the FAA can make as a result of a Part 77 study? |
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Definition
1. Deem the obstruction a hazard
2. Deem the object as objectionable
3. Deem the object needs to be altered, removed, marked or lit
4. Deem the airport layout plan is approved
5. Deem teh propsoed construction, enlargement or modification would have an adverse impact on teh safe and efficient use of airspace
6. Change operational procedures if feasible |
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Term
6.73
What responses can airport management take in response to an FAR Part 77 study? |
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Definition
1. Relocate the threshold
2. Remove the object
3. Raise the approach minimums
4. Raise the aircraft Minimum Descent Altitude |
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Term
5.74
Can the FAA restrict the construction of an object that would penetrate a Part 77 Surface? |
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Definition
Negative ghostrider. That belongs with the local jurisdictions |
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Term
5.75
The Localizer Critical Area has a diameter of 250-feet and extends how many feet down the runway? |
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Definition
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Term
5.76
What type of approach lighting system is required for a Category II or a Category III approach? |
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Definition
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Term
5.77
What types of ALSs are used for CAT I ILS approaches? |
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Definition
1. SSALS
2. SSALS-R
3. MALS
4. MALSR |
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Term
5.78
VASIs and PAPIs are used for what purpose? |
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Definition
To provide visual glideslope information to pilots transitioning from IFR to VFR |
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Term
5.79
What are REILs used for? |
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Definition
Runway End Identification Lights are used to help a pilot identify the runway when competing with other light sources on the ground |
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