6.1

True or False

Airport management must extend environmental procedures to all tenants at the airport.

TRUE

6.2

What four steps can airport management take to limit their exposure to environmental liability?

1.  Employee/tenant training

2.  Develop and use a systematic program of regulatory compliance

3.  Assess current regulatory compliance

4.  Sound record keeping

6.3

What is the difference between civil and criminal activities?

1.  Outcome.  Civil is adjudicated through fines and criminal through fines and/or prison

2.   Standing.  Any citizen can bring a civil suite, but only gov't can bring criminal suite

6.4

What is meant by "strict liability?"

There does not need to be an intent to commit a crime in order to be found liable.

6.5

What three things can cause an airport employee to be personal liable?

1.  Their ability to make timely discovery of the problem

2.  Their power to direct the activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem

3.  Their ability to prevent and abate damage

6.6

What are the five steps an airport can take to ensure environmental compliance?

1.  Establish philosophy of environmental compliance

2.  Communicate compliance goal to all employees

3.  Identify and assess current level of compliance

4.  Establish programs to attain compliance

5.  Create processes and procedures to maintain compliance

6.7

What are the two best methods for ensuring tenant and contractor compliance with airport environmental regulations?

1.  Place specific criteria into any initial bid specification or RFP

2.  Inspect tenant spaces and records

6.8

What are the four reasons why an airport would want to conduct an environmental audit?

1.  Determine the environmental condition baseline

2.  Determine potential environmental liabilities prior to acquiring property interest

3.  Identifying potential problems that could impact construction schedules

4.  Identifying tenant problems and correcting any non-compliance issues

6.9

What are the five elements that comprise and environmental audit?

1.  Determination of various compliance categories that need to be addressed

2.  Review of applicable environmental regulations

3.  Questionnaire to determine level of compliance of airport and tenants

4.  Auditing the facility

5.  Final Report

6.10

What is NEPA?

The National Evironmental Policy Act of 1969

6.11

What are the three environmental action determinations that can be taken under NEPA?

1.  Categorical exclusion (Cat Ex)

2.  Environmental Assessment (EA)

3.  Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)

6.12

What type of study results from the professional opinion that a project could have varying environmental impacts and determines if the impacts are significant or not?

Environmental Assessment

6.13

What type of study examines the impact a proposed project would have on surrounding locations?

Environmental Impact Study

6.14

What was the focus of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA) of 1972?

Restoration of the nation's rivers and lakes to safe conditions for wildlife and humans

6.15

How did the FWPCA accomplish the goal of restoring the nation's rivers and lakes to safe conditions?

By controlling POINT SOURCE discarge into navigable waterways.

6.16

What piece of federal legislation authorized the President to issue executive orders outlining procedures, methods, equipment and other requirements for the prevention of pollutants into navigable waterways from vessels and facilities and to contain such discharges if they occur?

The 1977 Clean Water Act (CWA)?

6.17

How did the CWA control direct discharges of pollutants into navigable waters?

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)

6.18

True or False

An executive order is a policy statement that has the impact of law provided that Congress does not contest the order within 30 days of the date of issuance.

TRUE

6.19

What are the two most important features of the Oil Pollution Act of 1990?

1.  The airport must develop and Oil Response Plan

2.  SPCC Plans must be signed by a PE

6.20

Maximum contaminent limits (MCLs) were first identified in what piece of federal legislation?

The 1974 Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)

6.21

What was the focus of the 1994 Federal Water Pollution, Prevention and Control Act (FWPPCA)?

The control of non-point source discharge

6.22

What is a PRP?

Potentially Responsible Party

6.23

According to CERCLA, who can be a PRP?

1.  The owner/operator of a facility

2.  Any person, who at the time of disposal, owned or operated any facility where the waste was disposed

3.  Any person who arranged for hazardous substance treatment or disposal

4.  Any person who arranged for the transport of hazardous substance

5.  Any person who accepts hazardous substance for transport or disposal

6.24

What was teh purposes of CERCLA?

To provide authorities with the means to respond to uncontrolled releases of hazardous substances from inactive sites that endanger public health and/or the environment.

6.25

How did CERCLA accomplish its goal?

1.  Funded national toxic waste cleanup

2. Established requirements for closed/abandoned hazardous waste sites

3.  Responded to releases of hazardous substances from inactive sites

4.  Provided for liability

6.26

What were the six most significant results of SARA?

1.  Development of emergency response plans that addressed fuel spills and hazardous waste exposure

2.  Provided for public participation in the selection of appropriate remedies for site contamination problems

3.  Expanded EPA's response authority

4.  Strengthened enforcement activities

5.  Increased trust fund reserve

6.  Increased scope to included federal facilities

6.27

True or False

The community-right-to-know provision of EPCRA requires only those who manufacture hazardous chemicals to dissiminate and report information to state and local officials. 

FALSE

It includes anybody who manufactures, processes, stores or uses hazardous chemicals!

6.28

What are the four elements in a Hazard Communication Standard?

1.  Written guidelines

2.  Warning labels

3.  Employee safety training

4.  Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)

6.29

If an airport is covered under EPCRA, what three things must the airport do?

1.  Participate in efforts to plan a coordinated response to a serious environmental emergency

2.  Disclose to the public any potential hazardous chemicals in use at the airport

3.  Report to authorities any emergency spills greater than the MCL.

6.30

When is an airport covered under EPCRA?

1.  Does it have any of the chemicals listed in the EPA's extremely hazardous material substance list?

2.  Do any chemicals exceed the designated quantities that appear on the EPA list?

6.31

What four categories exist for the classification of hazardous substances?

1.  Toxic

2. Corrosive

3.  Flammable

4.  Environmentally harmful

6.32

True or False

Visiting a facility and observing its operational and safety procedures is a method that airport management can reduce their environmental liability.

TRUE

6.33

Any release of CERCLA hazardous substances in quantities equal to or greater than their reportable quantity is reported to whom?

National Response Center

6.34

What thee circumstances require the notification of the NRC?

1.  Whenever a serious environmental emergency exists and the fire department is called

2.  When a spill exceeds outside the airport environs

3.  When a spill could reach surface waters

6.35

What is the fine for not contacting the NRC?

$10,000/day until the situation is rectified AND/OR jail.

6.36

True or False

Under CERCLA/SARA, airport management is responsible for hazardous waste only when it is on their property.

FALSE

Airport management is responsible for as long as the substance remains hazardous.

6.37

True or False

Airport management is responsible for any hazardous waste on their property regardless of how, when or who put the waste there.

TRUE

(life ain't fair is it?)

6.38

What was the purpose of RCRA?

Authorized the EPA to regulate hazardous substances once they are generated until their ultimate disposal.

"cradle to grave"

6.39

What six steps are required of airport management to comply with RCRA?

1.  Record keeping

2.  Placing waste into warning label marked containers

3.  Take precautions to prevent releases

4.   Generate a preparedness and prevention plan and incorporate into Part 139

5.  Appoint an emergency coordinator

6.  Creation of transport manifest for disposal

6.40

What four characteristics distinguish hazardous waste from waste?

1.  Ignitability

2.  Corrosiveness

3.  Reactivity

4.  Toxicity

6.41

A waste generator that generates less than 100kg/month is considered what?

A conditionally exempt small quatity generator (CESQG)

6.42

A hazardous waste generator who generates between 100 kg/month and 1,000 kg/month is called a what?

Small Quantity Generators (SQGs)

6.43

A hazardous waste generate that generates more than 1,000 kg/month is called a what?

Large Quantity Generator (LQG)

6.44

What piece of federal legislation addressed the issue of underground storage tanks?

The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments to RCRA

6.45

Under RCRA, what do new underground storage tanks must have?

1.  Corrosion protection

2.  Spill and overfill prevention

3.  Leak detection devices

6.46

If a UST has not been used in the last 12 months, what must happen to the tank?

It must be permanently closed

6.47

What three steps must be followed in order to permanently close an UST?

1. Notification of EPA

2.  Determination if any leak has occurred

3.  Removal of the tank

6.48

What six steps must be taken if a leak has resulted in environmental damage?

1.  Stop and contain the leak

2.  Contact state regulatory agencies and the NRC

3.  Remove or nullify explosive vapors and/or fire hazards

4.  Investigate possible environmental damage

5.  Direct correction action plan

6.  Make progress reports

6.49

What was the purpose of FIFRA?

The control of agricultural and pesticide operations to protect ground water by regulating accidental leaks, spills, misuse and disposal of fungicides and rodenticides

6.50

What were the two outcomes for airport management that resulted from the passag of the TSCA?

1.  Identified the removal of PCBs from the market place

2.  Required airport managers to identify all PCB equipment having concentrations greater than 500 ppm.

6.51

The creation of State Implementation Plans resulted from what piece of federal legislation?

The Clean Air Act of 1970

6.52

What are the five major pollutants controlled under the CAA?

1.  Sulfur Dioxide

2.  Suspended particulate matter

3.  Nitrogen Oxides

4.  Carbon Monoxide

5.  Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

6.53

The implementation of single engine taxiing, streamlining of taxi routes, modernization of aircraft fleets and providing central ground or auxiliary power are examples of actions that airport managers can take to accomplish what?

Reduction of air emmissions

6.54

What does an NPDES permit do?

Identifies the type and amount of allowable pollutants that can be discharged

6.55

What is required for airports over 50,000 operations under an NPDES?

1.  Must have a SWMP

2.  Must implement BMPs

3.  Must monitor runoff of oil/grease, BODs, CODs and TSSs

6.56

What are the four types of stormwater permits under NPDES?

1.  General

2.  Individual

3.  Multi-sector general

4.  Construction

6.57

Of the four types of stormwater permits under NPDES, which ones are NOT eligible for AIP funding?

1.  General

2. Individual

3.  Multi-sector general

6.58

What four specific airport activities require an NPDES permit?

1.  De-icing of acft or AMA

2.  Fueling

3.  Maintenance

4.  Refinishing activities

6.59

What is the aim of environmental enforcement?

Tis better to fall on your sword earlier than later bucko

6.60

What are the four methods the EPA might use to respond to violations of environmental regulations?

1.  Informal response

2.  Formal administrative response

3.  Civil judicial response

4.  Criminal judicial response

6.61

What four methods of penalties exist for violation of EPA regulations?

1.  Negligent violation ($2.5k-$25k and/or 1 year)

2.  Knowing violation ($5k-$10k and/or 3 years)

3.  Knowing endangerment  ($250k and/or 15 years)

4.  False statements ($10k and/or 2 years)