Term
What does the PACK OFF light and the associated EICAS message indicate?
A. Pack operating normally
B. Respective pack valve closed
C. Pack operating in high flow |
|
Definition
| B. Respective pack valve closed |
|
|
Term
During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output of the air conditioning packs?
A. The zone requiring the coolest air
B. The zone requiring the warmest air
C. The zone with the warmest selection |
|
Definition
| A. The zone requiring the coolest air |
|
|
Term
What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude Indicator during cockpit preparation?
A. 200 feet below takeoff airport elevation
B. Landing altitude in feet
C. Cabin altitude as determined from placard |
|
Definition
| B. Landing altitude in feet |
|
|
Term
What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set in AUTO 1 and it fails?
A. Nothing
B. Control is automatically switched to auto controller 2
C. Control must be manually switched to auto controller 2 |
|
Definition
| B. Control is automatically switched to auto controller 2 |
|
|
Term
What would cause all three of the Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?
A. One pack off
B. Trim Air switch OFF
C. Left pack in high flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Left Pack INOP light annunciates because the pack outlet temperature is too high. What occurs automatically?
A. The left pack is shut down
B. The left pack temperature control valve is driven closed
C. Right pack produces high flow |
|
Definition
| B. The left pack temperature control valve is driven closed |
|
|
Term
What does the Pack Reset switch do when pushed?
A. Resets temperature to 75 °F
B. Resets flight deck equipment smoke detection
C. Resets pack overheat detection system |
|
Definition
| C. Resets pack overheat detection system |
|
|
Term
When a Pack Control selector is positioned to STBY N, what is the outlet temperature of the pack in flight?
A. A constant, moderate temperature (40 °F in flight)
B. Variable, dependent upon zone requirements
C. Full warm setting |
|
Definition
| A. A constant, moderate temperature (40 °F in flight) |
|
|
Term
What can cause a PACK OFF light to illuminate when the Pack Control selector is in AUTO?
A. Pack valve is closed
B. Excessive airflow
C. Trim Air switch OFF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cabin temperature do the packs attempt to maintain if the Trim Air switch is selected OFF?
A. 50 °F (10 °C)
B. Maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 75 °F (24 °C)
C. Variable, depending upon zone requirement |
|
Definition
| B. Maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 75 °F (24 °C) |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of Trim Air?
A. Controls pack temperature
B. Hot trim air from the bleed air system is added to meet the zone temperature requirements
C. Cools conditioned air to meet the zone temperature requirements |
|
Definition
| B. Hot trim air from the bleed air system is added to meet the zone temperature requirements |
|
|
Term
What does the Trim Air OFF light indicate?
A. A pack has failed
B. An overheat of the pack
C. The trim air valve is commanded close |
|
Definition
| C. The trim air valve is commanded close |
|
|
Term
What can cause a Compartment Temperature INOP light to annunciate?
A. Excessive pack outlet temperature
B. Excessive internal pack temperature or loss of air pressure
C. Zone air overheat or fault in zone temperature controller |
|
Definition
| C. Zone air overheat or fault in zone temperature controller |
|
|
Term
What is the position of the outflow valve after failure of both pressurization controllers?
A. It drives full open
B. It remains in the last controlled position
C. It drives full closed |
|
Definition
| B. It remains in the last controlled position |
|
|
Term
What crew action illuminates the AUTO INOP light on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel?
A. Selecting MAN position on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel
B. Selecting AUTO
C. Selecting AUTO 1 |
|
Definition
| A. Selecting MAN position on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel |
|
|
Term
What cabin altitude extinguishes the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message?
A. Cabin altitude below 8,500 ft
B. Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft
C. Cabin altitude at 11,000 ft |
|
Definition
| A. Cabin altitude below 8,500 ft |
|
|
Term
What would cause the outflow valve to close automatically while AUTO 1 or 2 is selected?
A. If cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft but less than 11,000 ft
B. If cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 ft
C. If cabin altitude exceeds 8,500 ft |
|
Definition
| B. If cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 ft |
|
|
Term
What is the expected pressurization limits for climbs and descents with Auto Rate knob set at the index mark?
A. Climb - 500 fpm; descent - 300 fpm
B. Climb - 50 fpm; descent - 30 fpm
C. Climb - 1,200 fpm; descent - 1,200 fpm |
|
Definition
| A. Climb - 500 fpm; descent - 300 fpm |
|
|
Term
What does the Cabin Altitude AUTO INOP light indicate?
A. Auto 1 inoperative
B. Auto 2 inoperative
C. Both Auto 1 and 2 are inoperative or manual mode selected |
|
Definition
| C. Both Auto 1 and 2 are inoperative or manual mode selected |
|
|
Term
What condition(s) activate the ground call horn?
A. Outflow valve is open
B. Insufficient equipment cooling airflow is detected on the ground
C. Pushing the Pack Reset switch for 10 seconds |
|
Definition
| B. Insufficient equipment cooling airflow is detected on the ground |
|
|
Term
What is indicated by the Cabin Altitude AUTO INOP light and associated EICAS message?
A. APU operating above 17,000 ft
B. Both Auto 1 and Auto 2 pressurization controllers failed or manual has been selected
C. Autothrottles have disconnected |
|
Definition
| B. Both Auto 1 and Auto 2 pressurization controllers failed or manual has been selected |
|
|
Term
(757) Smoke has been detected in the forward equipment cooling system. How is the smoke removed?
A. Through the outflow valve only
B. Through a pneumatic recirculation air filter
C. Through the overboard exhaust valve |
|
Definition
| C. Through the overboard exhaust valve |
|
|
Term
(757) One forward equipment cooling supply fan operates at a time. What starts the alternate fan?
A. High temperature in the forward E/E compartment
B. Selecting the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch to ALTN
C. Low cooling air pressure |
|
Definition
| B. Selecting the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch to ALTN |
|
|
Term
(757) Which condition automatically opens the overboard exhaust valve?
A. One supply fan fails
B. The recirculation fan fails
C. A pressure differential greater than 3.25 psi |
|
Definition
| B. The recirculation fan fails |
|
|
Term
(757) What occurs if ALTN is selected on the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch?
A. Starts the alternate supply fan and sends a signal to open the overboard exhaust valve when the recirculation fan is not operating and the valve does not automatically open
B. Shuts down aft E/E fans
C. Inhibits FUEL CONFIG light for one minute |
|
Definition
| A. Starts the alternate supply fan and sends a signal to open the overboard exhaust valve when the recirculation fan is not operating and the valve does not automatically open |
|
|
Term
(RR) With the High Altitude Landing switch OFF, what cabin altitude annunciate the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message?
A. 8,500 ft
B. 10,000 ft
C. 14,650 ft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(RR) With the High Altitude Landing switch ON, what cabin altitude annunciate the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message?
A. Below 8,500 ft
B. 10,000 ft
C. 14,650 ft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) What condition annunciates the Equipment Cooling VALVE light?
A. No airflow in the E/E racks
B. Equipment cooling valve(s) are not in the commanded position(s)
C. An equipment cooling system test passed |
|
Definition
| B. Equipment cooling valve(s) are not in the commanded position(s) |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the NO COOLING light indicate with OVRD selected on the Equipment Cooling Panel?
A. No reverse airflow through E/E compartment
B. A supply fan is inoperative
C. The exhaust fan is inoperative |
|
Definition
| A. No reverse airflow through E/E compartment |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the Equipment Cooling OVHT light indicate?
A. Main Cargo Alert switch selected
B. Smoke detected in the lavatory
C. High temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system |
|
Definition
| C. High temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the Equipment Cooling SMOKE light indicate?
A. Smoke in the equipment cooling system
B. Smoke in the bulk cargo area
C. Smoke in the main cargo area |
|
Definition
| A. Smoke in the equipment cooling system |
|
|
Term
(767) Selecting the Equipment Cooling selector to OVRD results in what Equipment cooling actions?
A. Positions equipment cooling system for reverse airflow
B. The supply fan is signaled to operate and the manifold interconnect valve switches to recalculated fan air
C. The overboard exhaust valve opens and the recirculation fan shuts down |
|
Definition
| A. Positions equipment cooling system for reverse airflow and opens the smoke/override valve |
|
|
Term
What systems rely on pneumatics?
A. Air conditioning/pressurization and B757 thrust reversers
B. Air conditioning/pressurization and B767 thrust reversers
C. Tailskid, inboard ailerons and L3 window heat |
|
Definition
| B. Air conditioning/pressurization and B767 thrust reversers |
|
|
Term
What pneumatic sources are available on the ground?
A. Ground air source only
B. APU, ground air source, or engines
C. APU only |
|
Definition
| B. APU, ground air source, or engines |
|
|
Term
What pneumatic sources are available in flight?
A. Either operating engine and/or APU
B. Left operating engine only
C. Either operating engine |
|
Definition
| A. Either operating engine and/or APU |
|
|
Term
What does the Engine Bleed Air OFF light indicate?
A. Engine bleed air valve is open
B. Engine bleed air valve is closed
C. High stage valve open |
|
Definition
| B. Engine bleed air valve is closed |
|
|
Term
What could cause the Engine Bleed Air OFF light to illuminate?
A. Bleed air overheat, engine shut down, respective Engine Fire Switch PULLED OUT or Engine Bleed Air switch selected OFF
B. Bleed air normal, engine running, respective Engine Fire switch IN or Engine Bleed Air switch selected ON
C. Both air conditioning packs selected OFF |
|
Definition
| A. Bleed air overheat, engine shut down, respective Engine Fire Switch PULLED OUT or Engine Bleed Air switch selected OFF |
|
|
Term
How is the APU protected from reverse air flow?
A. System logic and check valve
B. Shuts down automatically
C. Closes engine bleed valves |
|
Definition
| A. System logic and check valve |
|
|
Term
What does the APU Bleed Air Valve light indicate?
A. (757) Right Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT
B. Cabin Altitude above 10,000 ft
C. APU bleed air valve position disagrees with signaled position or valve in transit |
|
Definition
| C. APU bleed air valve position disagrees with signaled position or valve in transit |
|
|
Term
What does the Isolation VALVE light indicate?
A. Isolation valve position disagrees with commanded position
B. Isolation valve position agrees with commanded position
C. (757) Left Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT |
|
Definition
| A. Isolation valve position disagrees with commanded position |
|
|
Term
(757) What does the HIGH STAGE light indicate?
A. Engine bleed system pressure is excessive
B. Engine bleed system temperature is excessive
C. Duct leak in pneumatic system |
|
Definition
| A. Engine bleed system pressure is excessive |
|
|
Term
(757) What does the BLEED light indicate?
A. Overpressure indication
B. Indicates bleed air temperature is excessive
C. Duct leak in pneumatic manifold |
|
Definition
| B. Indicates bleed air temperature is excessive |
|
|
Term
(757) What does the DUCT LEAK light indicate?
A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected
B. Overpressure
C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive |
|
Definition
| A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected |
|
|
Term
(757) What is indicated with an Engine Bleed Air OFF light and L and R ENG BLEED OFF EICAS message illuminated?
A. Engine bleed air valve is open
B. Engine bleed air valve is closed for a system fault
C. A left or right duct leak has been detected |
|
Definition
| B. Engine bleed air valve is closed for a system fault |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the OVHT light indicate?
A. Pneumatic leak in the crossover manifold
B. Overpressure condition
C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive |
|
Definition
| C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the BLEED light indicate?
A. Over-temperature condition
B. Engine HPSOV and/or PRV valves are open when they should be closed
C. Duct leak in the right manifold |
|
Definition
| B. Engine HPSOV and/or PRV valves are open when they should be closed |
|
|
Term
(767) What does a DUCT LEAK light and EICAS message indicate?
A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected
B. Overpressure condition
C. Hydraulic fluid leak |
|
Definition
| A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected |
|
|
Term
(767) What occurs automatically following a strut duct leak?
A. The respective engine bleed valves are closed automatically
B. The respective engine bleed valves are opened automatically
C. APU senses fault and shuts down automatically |
|
Definition
| A. The respective engine bleed valves are closed automatically |
|
|
Term
When does probe heat operate?
A. Anytime an engine is running, with exception of the TAT probe, which is heated in flight only
B. When engine anti-ice selected below 10 °C in visible moisture
C. When the APU is providing electrical power on the ground |
|
Definition
| A. Anytime an engine is running, with exception of the TAT probe, which is heated in flight only |
|
|
Term
How are the forward windows heated?
A. All flight deck windows are heated with conditioned air
B. All flight deck windows are electrically heated
C. Only the two forward windows are electrically heated |
|
Definition
| B. All flight deck windows are electrically heated |
|
|
Term
Side windows are heated electrically for anti-fogging only. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Corrections to reduce Max EPR or N1 (767) limits when using wing anti-ice are based on switch or valve position?
A. Switch position
B. (PW) switch position, (RR &767) Valve position
C. (PW) Valve position, (RR & 767) Switch position |
|
Definition
| C. (PW) Valve position, (RR & 767) Switch position |
|
|
Term
Corrections to reduce Max EPR or N1 (767) limits when using engine anti-ice are based on switch or valve position?
A. Switch position
B. (PW) switch position, (RR &767) Valve position
C. (PW) Valve position, (RR & 767) Switch position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does wing anti-ice operate on the ground?
A. No
B. Yes
C. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which aircraft displays a TAI bug on the N1 RPM display when engine anti-ice is on and only a single bleed source is available?
A. RR
B. PW
C. 767 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which slats are heated when wing anti-ice is selected on?
A. (757) Three slats outboard of engine on each wing, (767) Three most outboard slats on each wing.
B. Three slats outboard of engine on each wing
C. (757) Three slats inboard of engine on each wing, (767) Three most outboard slats on each wing. |
|
Definition
| A. (757) Three slats outboard of engine on each wing, (767) Three most outboard slats on each wing. |
|
|
Term
If wing anti-ice is on, what will the wing anti-ice valves do when the aircraft lands?
A. Close
B. Remain open until wing anti-ice is turned off
C. Close only if an overheat condition exists |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the Left Engine Anti-ice switch is selected OFF and its VALVE light is on, what is the condition of the left engine anti-ice valve?
A. Signaled open, and not open
B. Signaled closed, and not closed
C. Signaled open, and in transit |
|
Definition
| B. Signaled closed, and not closed |
|
|
Term
How many window(s) could have a fault or overheat if the R SIDE WINDOW EICAS message is displayed and Right Window Heat INOP light is illuminated?
A. Message and light only monitors the right side R2 window only
B. Both right side windows
C. Right FWD window |
|
Definition
| B. Both right side windows |
|
|
Term
What light illuminates the EICAS message(s) displays(s) to indicate one window is not being heated?
A. One INOP light illuminates and the WINDOW HEAT EICAS advisory message displays
B. One INOP light illuminates and L or R FWD WINDOW or the L or R SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays
C. One INOP light illuminates, the WINDOW HEAT and the L or R FWD/SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays |
|
Definition
| B. One INOP light illuminates and L or R FWD WINDOW or the L or R SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays |
|
|
Term
What is indicated with an Engine Anti-ice VALVE light
and L or R ENG ANTI-ICE EICAS message illuminated?
A. Engine anti-ice valve disagrees with switch position
B. Ice has been detected on engine cowling
C. Engine anti-ice system is no longer required |
|
Definition
| A. Engine anti-ice valve disagrees with switch position |
|
|
Term
If both Engine Anti-ice switches are ON and both VALVE lights are extinguished, what is the position of the engine anti-ice valves?
A. Closed
B. Open
C. In transit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(PW) What condition displays the TAI bug on the N1 RPM display (not to be confused with the thermal anti-ice TAI indication above the display)?
A. Engine anti-ice is selected on with two engine bleed sources available
B. When the APU bleed valve fails closed and engine anti-ice is selected off
C. When engine anti-ice is on and only a single engine bleed source is available |
|
Definition
| C. When engine anti-ice is on and only a single engine bleed source is available |
|
|
Term
(PW) When is adequate bleed air for engine ice protection provided when only a single engine bleed source is available?
A. N1 indication above TAI bug (green)
B. N1 indication below TAI bug (amber)
C. N2/N3 indication above Fuel On Command bug |
|
Definition
| A. N1 indication above TAI bug (green) |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the ICE DET ON EICAS message indicate?
A. Left air conditioning pack selected OFF
B. Engine and wing anti-ice selected ON
C. Ice detecting sensor detects ice |
|
Definition
| C. Ice detecting sensor detects ice |
|
|
Term
What does the Engine Generator OFF light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Valve is open
B. Generator control breaker is open
C. Ground handling bus is not powered |
|
Definition
| B. Generator control breaker is open |
|
|
Term
Cycling the Generator Control switch has what effect?
A. Audio Select Panel degrades
B. Ground handling bus powered in flight
C. Arms generator breaker to close automatically when generator power is available and resets fault trip circuitry |
|
Definition
| C. Arms generator breaker to close automatically when generator power is available and resets fault trip circuitry |
|
|
Term
What occurs if the Generator Drive Disconnect switch is pushed?
A. Approach mode is selected
B. Disconnects generator and drive from engine and requires maintenance to reset
C. Allows the bus tie system to power the left AC and DC, and the battery bus DC |
|
Definition
| B. Disconnects generator and drive from engine and requires maintenance to reset |
|
|
Term
What does the BUS OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?
A. Respective AC bus is unpowered
B. ADP and HDG are inoperative
C. Ground handling bus is unpowered |
|
Definition
| A. Respective AC bus is unpowered |
|
|
Term
What are the priorities for powering the main AC busses?
A. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), ground handling bus and ground service bus
B. Respective engine-driven generator, APU and opposite engine-driven generator
C. Respective engine-driven generator, ground handling bus and opposite engine driven generator |
|
Definition
| B. Respective engine-driven generator, APU and opposite engine-driven generator |
|
|
Term
What three conditions shed the utility busses on a 757?
A. Main Cargo Alert switch selected, power transfer and loss of the left engine-driven generator
B. Engine start, generator loss and standby AC loss
C. Engine start, generator loss and overload |
|
Definition
| C. Engine start, generator loss and overload |
|
|
Term
When does the generator load shed protection arm regarding a generator loss?
A. Aircraft in flight or both thrust levers moved into the takeoff range
B. Following a generator failure
C. Power transfer |
|
Definition
| A. Aircraft in flight or both thrust levers moved into the takeoff range |
|
|
Term
Is it possible to manually reset the utility bus following and engine-driven generator loss in flight?
A. No, utility busses require two operating generators to automatically reset
B. Yes, only one generator required for utility bus reset
C. No, utility busses require the ground handling bus for reset |
|
Definition
| A. No, utility busses require two operating generators to automatically reset |
|
|
Term
During a multi-autopilot approach, APU operating, what occurs above or below 200’ RA following a failure of one engine-driven generator?
A. Electrical system remains isolated and APU powers ground handling bus
B. APU automatically powers the bus associated with the generator failure and electrical system remains isolated
C. APU automatically powers the bus associated with the generator failure and ground handling bus remains powered |
|
Definition
| B. APU automatically powers the bus associated with the generator failure and electrical system remains isolated |
|
|
Term
What does the External Power AVAIL light indicate?
A. External power is plugged in and power is acceptable
B. External power is plugged in and power is not acceptable
C. External power is not plugged in and power is not acceptable |
|
Definition
| A. External power is plugged in and power is acceptable |
|
|
Term
What are the power sources for the ground handling bus?
A. Engine-driven generators, external power, and ground service bus
B. External power or APU
C. External power or right engine-driven generator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the normal power source for the ground service bus?
A. Right main AC
B. Left main AC
C. Ground handling bus in flight |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the Battery DISCH light and MAIN BAT DISCH EICAS message indicate?
A. Battery is discharging
B. Battery is being charged
C. Left AC bus failure |
|
Definition
| A. Battery is discharging |
|
|
Term
What does the Standby Power Bus OFF light and STANDBY BUS OFF EICAS message indicate?
A. HDG failed to operate
B. Standby AC and/or DC bus powered with Standby Power selector in AUTO
C. Standby AC and/or DC bus not powered with Standby Power selector in OFF |
|
Definition
| C. Standby AC and/or DC bus not powered with Standby Power selector in OFF |
|
|
Term
Which of the following will cause the Generator DRIVE light to illuminate?
A. Generator drive oil filter is clogged
B. Generator drive has overloaded
C. Generator drive oil temperature is high |
|
Definition
| C. Generator drive oil temperature is high |
|
|
Term
A Generator DRIVE light can indicate low generator drive oil pressure. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can power a utility bus?
A. Respective main AC bus only
B. Respective main AC or opposite utility bus only
C. Respective main AC, opposite utility or AC bus |
|
Definition
| A. Respective main AC bus only |
|
|
Term
In flight, the left engine is shut down. What electrical busses are lost?
A. Only the left utility bus
B. Both utility busses
C. Both utility busses and the left DC bus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the right IDG fails above 200’ with the APU operating, what occurs?
A. The right bus tie breaker closes, allowing the right AC bus to remain powered by the APU
B. Both BUS OFF lights and associated EICAS messages annunciate
C. HDG operates to protect the B757 main AC busses |
|
Definition
| A. The right bus tie breaker closes, allowing the right AC bus to remain powered by the APU |
|
|
Term
What busses power the autopilots during coupled ILS approach (autoland) after selecting APP (approach switch)?
A. Utility bus powers left and right autopilot and ground service bus powers the center autopilot
B. Left main AC powers left autopilot, right main AC powers right autopilot and standby/battery powers center autopilot
C. Left main AC powers left and center autopilot and standby/battery powers right autopilot |
|
Definition
| B. Left main AC powers left autopilot,right main AC powers right autopilot and standby/battery powers center autopilot |
|
|
Term
How are both standby busses powered when the Standby Power selector is positioned to BAT?
A. Standby busses are powered by the ground service bus
B. Standby busses are powered from the main battery
C. Standby busses remain unpowered |
|
Definition
| B. Standby busses are powered from the main battery |
|
|
Term
What occurs if Standby Power selector is positioned to BAT?
A. Disconnects main AC and DC power from the standby system
B. Disconnects hot battery bus and main AC/DC from the standby power system
C. Allows battery to power main AC busses |
|
Definition
| A. Disconnects main AC and DC power from the standby system |
|
|
Term
What does the AC bus ISLN light indicate?
A. Ground handling bus is unpowered
B. Indicates fault or Bus Tie switch is OFF
C. Commands bus tie system to power HDG |
|
Definition
| B. Indicates fault or Bus Tie switch is OFF |
|
|
Term
What does the Utility Bus OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?
A. Utility bus unpowered
B. Galley powered
C. Standby Power selector in BAT position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the bus tie system?
A. Allows the bus to be shorted
B. Allows ground handling bus to power ground service bus via P6 terminal
C. Allows the right and left main AC busses to be isolated or connected |
|
Definition
| C. Allows the right and left main AC busses to be isolated or connected |
|
|
Term
What does the Generator DRIVE light and L or R GEN DRIVE EICAS message indicate?
A. No maintenance required
B. The IDG has already disconnected from the drive
C. Low oil pressure or high oil temperature within the IDG |
|
Definition
| C. Low oil pressure or high oil temperature within the IDG |
|
|
Term
What components are powered from the ground handling bus?
A. Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus, left AC/DC and right DC through the inverter
B. Lower cargo lights, refueling features and cargo handling
C. Left FMC and both clocks on the ground with OVRD selected |
|
Definition
| B. Lower cargo lights, refueling features and cargo handling |
|
|
Term
When is the ground handling bus powered?
A. In flight
B. Only on the ground
C. Either on the ground or in flight |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the ground service bus powered?
A. In flight only
B. Only on the ground
C. Either on the ground or in flight |
|
Definition
| C. Either on the ground or in flight |
|
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Term
What occurs if a Bus Tie switch is manually opened?
A. Ground handling bus is powered
B. HDG automatically powers respective main AC/DC
C. Flight instrument switching will not occur |
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Definition
| C. Flight instrument switching will not occur |
|
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Term
What occurs if the Bus tie switch is manually opened?
A. Only flight instrument switching will not occur
B. Flight instrument switching and DC bus tie closure will not occur
C. Generator drive disconnects |
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Definition
| B. Flight instrument switching and DC bus tie closure will not occur |
|
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Term
What does APU Generator OFF light and APU GEN OFF EICAS message indicate?
A. APU drive disconnected manually
B. Ground handling bus powered
C. APU is running and the generator breaker is open because of a fault or APU Generator switch is selected OFF |
|
Definition
| C. APU is running and the generator breaker is open because of a fault or APU Generator switch is selected OFF |
|
|
Term
What items are powered by the ground service bus?
A. Two main battery chargers, aft #1 E/E cooling fan, left forward fuel pump and main deck cargo lighting
B. Two main battery chargers, aft #1 E/E cooling fan, right aft fuel pump and main deck cargo lighting.
C. Two main battery chargers, aft #2 E/E cooling fan, left forward fuel pump and lower forward and aft cargo lighting |
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Definition
| A. Two main battery chargers, aft #1 E/E cooling fan, left forward fuel pump and main deck cargo lighting |
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Term
Standby Power selector in AUTO, if left main DC is lost, what occurs?
A. Ground handling bus powers standby DC
B. HDG is powered automatically
C. The battery or battery charger immediately takes over powering the battery bus and standby DC |
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Definition
| C. The battery or battery charger immediately takes over powering the battery bus and standby DC |
|
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Term
Standby Power selector in AUTO, if left main AC is lost, what occurs?
A. The right main DC bus powers the left main DC bus, standby DC bus and standby AC bus through the static inverter
B. The right main DC bus powers the left main DC bus, standby AC bus and standby DC bus through the static inverter
C. The left transfer bus powers the left main DC bus, standby DC bus and standby AC bus through the ground handling bus |
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Definition
| A. The right main DC bus powers the left main DC bus, standby DC bus and standby AC bus through the static inverter |
|
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Term
What are the possible power sources to the center busses?
A. Left main AC/DC or standby/battery system
B. Ground handling bus
C. F/O’s flight instrument transfer bus |
|
Definition
| A. Left main AC/DC or standby/battery system |
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Term
(757) What busses are powered if both main AC busses fail?
A. Hot battery bus, battery bus DC and standby AC/DC busses
B. Left and right transfer busses, standby AC/DC busses and hot battery bus
C. Standby AC/DC busses, battery bus DC, hot battery bus and the essential bus |
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Definition
| A. Hot battery bus, battery bus DC and standby AC/DC busses |
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Term
(757) With the APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs as the second engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed?
A. Both utility busses shed
B. No utility bus sheds
C. Only the respective utility bus sheds |
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Definition
| C. Only the respective utility bus sheds |
|
|
Term
(757) With the APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs as the first engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed?
A. No load shedding occurs
B. Both utility busses shed
C. Only the respective utility bus sheds |
|
Definition
| B. Both utility busses shed |
|
|
Term
(757) What is the normal source of power to the Captain’s flight instruments?
A. Right main AC bus
B. Ground service bus
C. Left main AC bus |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(767) If both left and right AC busses are unpowered, what is the backup power source?
A. Air Demand Pump (ADP) only
B. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG)
C. Ground handling bus |
|
Definition
| B. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) |
|
|
Term
(767) Which busses are powered from the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG)?
A. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses, and Captain and First Officer’s flight instrument transfer busses
B. Standby AC bus, ground handling bus, hot battery bus, left and right transfer busses and Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus.
C. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses and Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus |
|
Definition
| C. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses and Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus |
|
|
Term
(767) What is the power source for the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG)?
A. Hot battery bus
B. Air Demand Pump (ADP)
C. Ground service bus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs when the second engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed?
A. Respective utility bus sheds
B. Both utility busses shed
C. There is no load shedding of utility busses during engine start |
|
Definition
| C. There is no load shedding of utility busses during engine start |
|
|
Term
(767) The loss of which bus or busses will cause the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) to operate?
A. Both left main AC bus
B. Both AC and DC standby busses
C. The left and right main AC busses |
|
Definition
| C. The left and right main AC busses |
|
|
Term
What occurs if the EGT exceeds the red line limit?
A. Pointer will change to amber
B. Pointer remains white for takeoff
C. Maximum exceedence value attained will be displayed |
|
Definition
| C. Maximum exceedence value attained will be displayed |
|
|
Term
What value is represented by the end of the command sector on the EPR (757) or N1 (767) indicator?
A. Actual thrust value
B. EPR (757) or N1 (767) commanded by thrust lever position
C. Maximum rated thrust for takeoff |
|
Definition
| B. EPR (757) or N1 (767) commanded by thrust lever position |
|
|
Term
What system is controlled by the thrust management computer?
A. Autothrottles
B. Actual N1 indication
C. Actual N3 indication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is calculated by the thrust management computer?
A. Maximum EPR (757) or N1 (767) reference
B. Fuel on command bug
C. In flight start envelope |
|
Definition
| A. Maximum EPR (757) or N1 (767) reference |
|
|
Term
What occurs if one EICAS CRT fails?
A. Engine parameters are displayed in Compacted mode
B. Status messages are viewable in flight
C. Only EPR/N1 (757) or N1 (767) and EGT indications are available for the duration of the flight |
|
Definition
| A. Engine parameters are displayed in Compacted mode |
|
|
Term
Do autothrottles respond to manually set EPR (757) or N1 (767) reference values by pulling the Manual Thrust Reference selectors?
A. Yes
B. No |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does D-TO indicate on EICAS?
A. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust
B. Derate 1
C. Max |
|
Definition
| A. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum Assumed Thrust reduction to takeoff thrust allowed by the thrust management computer?
A. 25% reduction from Max, Derate 1, and Derate 2, and cruise thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value
B. 25% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value
C. 12% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected continuous thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value |
|
Definition
| B. 25% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value |
|
|
Term
What does TO 1 indicate on EICAS?
A. Max
B. Takeoff thrust one, climb one preselected
C. Assume off Derate 1 |
|
Definition
| B. Takeoff thrust one, climb one preselected |
|
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Term
What doe TO 2 indicate on EICAS?
A. Max
B. Assumed off Derate 2
C. Takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected |
|
Definition
| C. Takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected |
|
|
Term
What does D-TO 2 indicate on EICAS?
A. Derate 2
B. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected
C. Climb 2 |
|
Definition
| B. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected |
|
|
Term
What does the L or R ENGINE STARTER EICAS message indicate?
A. Engine starter overheat
B. Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position
C. Engine starter low oil pressure and high oil temperature |
|
Definition
| B. Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position |
|
|
Term
What does the L or R STARTER CUTOUT EICAS message indicate?
A. Indicates start valve operates normally by automatically moving to AUTO at 50% N2 or N3 (RR)
B. No ignition during start
C. Engine start valve is open above engine RPM at which cutout should occur |
|
Definition
| C. Engine start valve is open above engine RPM at which cutout should occur |
|
|
Term
During engine start, the Maximum Start EGT limit radial remains in view __________?
A. during and after engine start
B. until the EGT reaches 900 degrees Kelvin
C. until the engine start is completed |
|
Definition
| C. until the engine start is completed |
|
|
Term
The assumed temperature can be entered manually on the ______________?
A. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC only
B. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC or selected with the Assumed Temperature selector on the TMSP
C. ACARS ASSUMED THRUST page |
|
Definition
| B. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC or selected with the Assumed Temperature selector on the TMSP |
|
|
Term
What color is the REV annunciation on EICAS when thrust reverser is unlocked and in transit?
A. Green
B. Amber
C. Magenta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What malfunction has occurred if the R ENG OIL PRESS light is illuminated, the R ENG OIL PRESS EICAS message is displayed, and oil pressure indicates normal for the right engine?
A. Low oil pressure
B. High oil pressure
C. Oil pressure switch fault |
|
Definition
| C. Oil pressure switch fault |
|
|
Term
Prior to engine start, the SPAR VALVE light for the left engine is illuminated. What is the system condition?
A. Fuel spar valve is not in commanded position
B. Engine fuel valve is not in commanded position
C. Fuel spar valve is in the commanded position |
|
Definition
| A. Fuel spar valve is not in commanded position |
|
|
Term
(PW) What does the green TAI bug on the N1 parameter indicate?
A. Wing anti-ice on
B. TAT probe heat inoperative
C. Engine anti-ice is on and only one bleed source is available |
|
Definition
| C. Engine anti-ice is on and only one bleed source is available |
|
|
Term
(PW) With only one engine bleed source available, what does the amber TAI above the N1 parameter indicate?
A. N1 is below the reference level
B. N1 is above the reference level
C. N2 is below the reference level |
|
Definition
| A. N1 is below the reference level |
|
|
Term
(PW) What does the ENG LIMIT PROT light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Overheat
B. EGT exceedence
C. EEC using N2 as control parameter |
|
Definition
| C. EEC using N2 as control parameter |
|
|
Term
(PW) What does the ENG LIMIT PROT light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Overheat
B. Automatic thrust limit protection is not available
C. EGT exceedence |
|
Definition
| B. Automatic thrust limit protection is not available |
|
|
Term
(PW) Which parameters are protected by the EEC?
A. EPR, N1, N2 and EGT
B. EPR, N1, and N2
C. EPR, N1, and EGT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(RR) What occurs if an EEC and ELC completely fail?
A. Engine shuts down
B. Engine continues to operate via hydro-mechanical controls with no overboost or overspeed protection
C. Engine ELC channel fails, but overboost protection continues via the EEC channel |
|
Definition
| B. Engine continues to operate via hydro-mechanical controls with no overboost or overspeed protection |
|
|
Term
(RR) What does the Fuel Control switch RICH position accomplish?
A. Initially schedules additional fuel for start
B. Closes engine and spar fuel valves
C. Terminates ignition |
|
Definition
| A. Initially schedules additional fuel for start |
|
|
Term
(767) When derate climb power (CLB 1 or CLB 2) is used, when does it return to maximum climb power (CLB)?
A. Gradually, starting at 10,000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at12,000 ft
B. Gradually, starting at 3,000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at 10,000 ft
C. Only when maximum climb power is selected |
|
Definition
| A. Gradually, starting at 10,000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at 12,000 ft |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the ENGINE CONTROLS EICAS message indicate on the B767?
A. Faults are detected in the engine control system
B. Thrust lever operation normal
C. HPSOV valve not in commanded position |
|
Definition
| A. Faults are detected in the engine control system |
|
|
Term
(767) When does the auto relight ignition feature operated?
A. When RICH position is selected on Fuel Control switches
B. When N2 drops below idle speed
C. When N2 is above idle speed |
|
Definition
| B. When N2 drops below idle speed |
|
|
Term
(767) What is the normal starter duty cycle?
A. 5 minutes on, followed by ½ minute off per minute on
B. 2 minutes continuous operation, then run down to zero N2
C. 5 minute on, followed by 10 minutes off per minute on |
|
Definition
| A. 5 minutes on, followed by ½ minute off per minute on |
|
|
Term
What does the APU RUN light indicate?
A. APU generator is running
B. APU selector is ON
C. APU is at operating speed |
|
Definition
| C. APU is at operating speed |
|
|
Term
What can cause the APU FUEL VAL light to illuminate?
A. One of the two APU fire loops failed
B. APU fuel valve NOT in commanded position
C. Aircraft above 17,000 feet pressure altitude |
|
Definition
| B. APU fuel valve NOT in commanded position |
|
|
Term
What is the minimum power required to start the APU?
A. APU battery only
B. APU battery and main battery
C. APU battery and ground handling busses |
|
Definition
| B. APU battery and main battery |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?
A. 20,000 ft
B. 17,000 ft
C. Service ceiling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs when the APU selector is moved to the ON position?
A. Opens the APU fuel valve and inlet door, activates AC or DC fuel pump
B. Initiates automatic start sequence
C. Run light and EICAS message illuminates to alert crew to select START position |
|
Definition
| A. Opens the APU fuel valve and inlet door, activates AC or DC fuel pump |
|
|
Term
What occurs when the APU selector is momentarily positioned to START?
A. Automatically opens isolation valve
B. Closes APU fuel valve
C. Initiates automatic start sequence |
|
Definition
| C. Initiates automatic start sequence |
|
|
Term
What does the APU FAULT light indicate?
A. APU automatic fault shutdown
B. APU shuts down after 5-minute cool down period
C. APU is running in degraded mode |
|
Definition
| A. APU automatic fault shutdown |
|
|
Term
Bleed air is available up to 17,000 ft? True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the APU selector is inadvertently moved to OFF and the RUN light is still illuminated, momentarily moving the APU selector to START cancels the shutdown signal. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What affect does the Battery switch selected OFF have on the APU if running?
A. None on the ground. In flight, the APU shuts down with a coo down if required
B. In flight, none. On the ground, causes the APU to shut down with a cool down if required
C. None, APU continues to operate on the ground or in flight |
|
Definition
| B. In flight, none. On the ground, causes the APU to shut down with a cool down if required |
|
|
Term
What are the electrical requirements for starting the APU?
A. APU battery
B. Both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery
C. Power to the left DC bus |
|
Definition
| B. Both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery |
|
|
Term
When does the APU shut down immediately?
A. When the APU FAULT light illuminates
B. DC fuel pump fails
C. Left FWD fuel boost pump fails |
|
Definition
| A. When the APU FAULT light illuminates |
|
|
Term
How can the APU shutdown be discontinued if the APU selector was inadvertently moved to OFF, but the RUN is still illuminated?
A. APU selector OFF, the back ON
B. APU selector to ON
C. Momentarily moving the selector to START cancels the shutdown signal |
|
Definition
| C. Momentarily moving the selector to START cancels the shutdown signal |
|
|
Term
What occurs if the APU FUEL VAL EICAS message is displayed?
A. APU fuel valve is not in the signaled position
B. APU fuel valve is in signaled position
C. APU FUEL VAL EICAS message only occurs in flight |
|
Definition
| A. APU fuel valve is not in the signaled position |
|
|
Term
How many APU start attempts are allowed in a 60-minute period?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following describes the START position of the APU selector?
A. Momentary, spring-loaded to ON
B. Latched, remains in start until moved
C. Magnetically held until starter cutout |
|
Definition
| A. Momentary, spring-loaded to ON |
|
|
Term
Fire detection is available in main gear wells. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In normal operation, both engine or APU fire detector loops must sense a fire to activate the respective fire warning. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs if a fault is detected in one of the engine or APU fire detector loops?
A. System does not re-configure for single loop operation
B. If one loop fails, the system will automatically re-configure to single loop operation
C. The fire warning annunciates |
|
Definition
| B. If one loop fails, the system will automatically re-configure to single loop operation |
|
|
Term
What occurs if both engine or APU fir detector loops fail?
A. Fire warning annunciates only
B. Overheat occurs
C. (PW and 767) FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message annunciates |
|
Definition
| C. (PW and 767) FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message annunciates |
|
|
Term
What occurs when an Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT (choose the best answer)?
A. Closes respective engine and spar fuel valves
B. Disables forward equipment cooling fans
C. Inhibits master warning system below 80 knots |
|
Definition
| A. Closes respective engine and spar fuel valves |
|
|
Term
When does automatic testing of the cargo compartment smoke detectors occur?
A. Cargo smoke detector loops are not tested automatically. They are tested manually only by pushing the Wheel Well Fire Test switch
B. Cargo smoke detector loops are tested continuously
C. When electrical power is initially applied or transferred |
|
Definition
| C. When electrical power is initially applied or transferred |
|
|
Term
What occurs after pushing the Cargo Fire switch?
A. Gradual aircraft depressurization occurs to approximate flight altitude
B. Chemical agent is discharged into all cargo compartments
C. Illuminates all cargo compartment lights |
|
Definition
| A. Gradual aircraft depressurization occurs to approximate flight altitude |
|
|
Term
How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the APU?
A. None. APU uses the engine fire bottles
B. 2
C. 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for engine fire control?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What action(s) silence the fire bell?
A. Selecting B on Audio Select Panel
B. Pushing either Master/Warning Reset switch on the glareshield
C. EICAS Control Panel CANCEL selected |
|
Definition
| B. Pushing either Master/Warning Reset switch on the glareshield |
|
|
Term
How many wheel well fire loops are installed for both the left and right main gear well?
A. Single fire detector loop is routed through both main gear wheel wells
B. Two wheel well fire detector loops installed for each main gear
C. Single fire detector loop installed for the nose gear only |
|
Definition
| A. Single fire detector loop is routed through both main gear wheel wells |
|
|
Term
What does the SYS FAIL P-RESET light and FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message indicate?
A. Indicates a failure of both wheel well fore detection loops
B. Indicates failure of both fire detectors in one of the engines or APU
C. Indicates failure of both overheat detectors in the APU |
|
Definition
| B. Indicates failure of both fire detectors in one of the engines or APU |
|
|
Term
What does the L or R ENG OVHT light and EICAS message indicate?
A. APU overheat detected
B. Overheat is detected in the engine nacelle
C. Bottle pressure low |
|
Definition
| B. Overheat is detected in the engine nacelle |
|
|
Term
When is the Engine or APU Fire Override switch required to be used?
A. When an engine or APU fire is indicated
B. When an engine or APU fire is not indicated
C. When an engine or APU overheat is indicated |
|
Definition
| B. When an engine or APU fire is not indicated |
|
|
Term
What occurs when an Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT (Choose the best answer)?
A. Closes associated engine bleed air valves
B. Illuminates warning in lavatory
C. Shuts down aft cargo heat fans |
|
Definition
| A. Closes associated engine bleed air valves |
|
|
Term
What occurs when an Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT (choose the best answer)?
A. Shuts down the recirculation fan
B. Arms engine extinguisher bottles
C. Discharges engine fire extinguisher into engine compartment |
|
Definition
| B. Arms engine extinguisher bottles |
|
|
Term
What occurs when an Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT (choose the best answer)?
A. Closes main deck zone trim air valves
B. Re-configures for single loop operation
C. Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the associated engine-driven hydraulic pump |
|
Definition
| C. Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the associated engine-driven hydraulic pump |
|
|
Term
(757) What motive force draws air through the main cargo smoke detectors?
A. Center pneumatic duct pressure
B. Each smoke detector is equipped with a static electric distribution alternate supply fan
C. Aft E/E cooling fans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) Cargo compartment fire protection exists of what systems?
A. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and automatic cargo compartment fire extinguishing
B. Cargo compartment smoke detection only
C. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and cargo compartment fire suppression |
|
Definition
| C. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and cargo compartment fire suppression |
|
|
Term
(RR) What occurs if both engine fire loops fail?
A. Fire indication occurs
B. Re-configures for opposite loop detection
C. Re-configures for single loop operation |
|
Definition
| A. Fire indication occurs |
|
|
Term
(767) What motive force draws air through the main cargo smoke detectors?
A. Recirculation fan
B. Center pneumatic duct pressure
C. Each smoke detector is equipped with a static electric distribution alternate supply fan |
|
Definition
| B. Center pneumatic duct pressure |
|
|
Term
(767) What occurs when the Cargo Fire switch is pushed (choose the best answer)?
A. Equipment cooling goes to override mode
B. Trips APU generator field
C. Shuts down recirculation fan |
|
Definition
| A. Equipment cooling goes to override mode |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the rudder ratio system?
A. System is designed to lockout the outboard ailerons at high speeds
B. It’s only associated with the rollout system during an autoland
C. As airspeed increases, the ratio changer desensitizes inputs from the pilot to reduce the rudder deflection |
|
Definition
| C. As airspeed increases, the ratio changer desensitizes inputs from the pilot to reduce the rudder deflection |
|
|
Term
Which hydraulic system powers the rudder ratio system?
A. Right
B. Center
C. Left |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the limitations if a RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated and a RUDDER RATIO EICAS message is displayed with normal left hydraulic system pressure?
A. None
B. Crosswind and autoland limitation must be observed―15 kts.
C. Alternate gear extension must be used |
|
Definition
| B. Crosswind and autoland limitation must be observed―15 kts. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the yaw damper system?
A. Improves directional stability
B. Limits rudder deflection during taxi
C. Modifies pilot aileron inputs above 240 knots |
|
Definition
| A. Improves directional stability |
|
|
Term
When is Mach speed trim inhibited from trimming?
A. When a fault exists in the rudder ratio system
B. When a yaw damper fault occurs
C. When electric, alternate, or autopilot trim is operating |
|
Definition
| C. When electric, alternate, or autopilot trim is operating |
|
|
Term
What does the STAB TRIM light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Fault in backup mechanical trim system
B. Stabilizer trimming is at half the rate
C. Fault in the Mach speed trim system |
|
Definition
| B. Stabilizer trimming is at half the rate |
|
|
Term
What does and UNSCHED STAB TRIM light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Uncommanded stabilizer movement
B. Stabilizer trimming at half the rate
C. Fault in the Mach speed trim system |
|
Definition
| A. Uncommanded stabilizer movement |
|
|
Term
An armed speedbrake lever moves to the UP position and the spoiler panels raise after landing when which of the following occurs?
A. ROLLOUT mode engaged at 5 feet RA
B. Both thrust levers are at idle
C. Calibrated airspeed (CAS) below 80 knots |
|
Definition
| B. Both thrust levers are at idle |
|
|
Term
Alternate flap/slat system is operated by?
A. Hydraulics
B. Bleed air
C. Electric motors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are the leading edge slats extended to the landing position during normal flap extension?
A. Flaps 1
B. Flaps 15
C. Flaps 25 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why should the speedbrake lever be moved from ARMED to the DOWN detent if the AUTO SPDBRK light illuminate?
A. To prevent inadvertent speedbrake extension in flight
B. To prevent asymmetric speedbrake deployment
C. To restore operation of roll spoilers |
|
Definition
| A. To prevent inadvertent speedbrake extension in flight |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true when the AUTO SPDBRK light is illuminated?
A. Auto brakes are inoperative
B. Speedbrakes can still be operated manually
C. Manual speedbrake deployment is inoperative |
|
Definition
| B. Speedbrakes can still be operated manually |
|
|
Term
Which is indicated by an illuminated SPOILERS light and SPOILERS EICAS message?
A. One or more spoiler pairs are inoperative
B. Spoilers operating normally
C. Automatic speedbrakes inoperative |
|
Definition
| A. One or more spoiler pairs are inoperative |
|
|
Term
(757) What does MACH SPD TRIM light indicate?
A. Mach speed trim system is inoperative
B. Mach speed trim system is trimming the stabilizer
C. Fault in backup mechanical trim system |
|
Definition
| A. Mach speed trim system is inoperative |
|
|
Term
(757) What occurs when either Alternate Flaps switch is pushed ON?
A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge drive systems
B. Hydraulic power is removed from the respective drive systems
C. Hydraulic drive systems operate at half the rate |
|
Definition
| A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge drive systems |
|
|
Term
(757) Slats move to the landing position when Flaps 20 is selected with the Alternate Flaps selector. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) What type of stall protection is installed?
A. EEC commands maximum thrust regardless of TMSP selected thrust reference
B. Control column nudger/pusher
C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates |
|
Definition
| C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates |
|
|
Term
(757) If Flaps 30 is selected, what occurs if the flap load relief system is activated above 162 knots?
A. Flaps retract to 20
B. Flaps retract to 25
C. Slats retract to the takeoff position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) During alternate flap operation, slats move to landing position when Flaps 20 is selected. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) When does the Pitch Enhancement System (PES) operate automatically?
A. Loss of right and center hydraulics
B. Loss of left and center hydraulics
C. Loss of left and right hydraulics |
|
Definition
| B. Loss of left and center hydraulics |
|
|
Term
(767) What is the stab trim rate when the Pitch Enhancement
System (PES) is operating?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 2/10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) How does the Pitch Enhancement System (PES) operate?
A. The PES uses the PTU driven by the right hydraulic system which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power stabilizer trim
B. The PES uses the HDG powered from center pneumatic pressure which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power the elevator
C. The PES uses a PTU driven by the left hydraulic system which uses trapped right trim system fluid to power the stabilizer |
|
Definition
| A. The PES uses the PTU driven by the right hydraulic system which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power stabilizer trim |
|
|
Term
(767) What occurs when either Alternate Flaps switch is pushed ON?
A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge Power Drive Units (PDUs)
B. Shuts off hydraulic power to selected flap or slat drive unit(s)
C. Hydraulic Power Drive Units (PDUs) operate at half the rate |
|
Definition
| B. Shuts off hydraulic power to selected flap or slat drive unit(s) |
|
|
Term
(767) Flap load relief and trailing edge flap asymmetry protection are not available in the alternate mode. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) What type of stall protection is installed?
A. Control column nudger/pusher
B. EEC commands maximum thrust regardless of TMSP selected thrust reference
C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates |
|
Definition
| A. Control column nudger/pusher |
|
|
Term
(767)If Flaps 30 is selected, what occurs if the flap load relief system is activated above 170 knots?
A. Inboard aileron droops
B. Flaps retract to 25
C. Flaps retract to 20 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) With Flaps 30 selected and airspeed increases above 170 knots, what action should occur?
A. The FLAP LD RELIEF EICAS message will display
B. TE flaps will retract to 25
C. TE flaps will retract to 20 |
|
Definition
| C. TE flaps will retract to 20 |
|
|
Term
(767) Shortly after selecting Flaps 1, a LE non-normal occurs, what automatic action will take place?
A. All three PDU hydraulic shut off valves close
B. Hydraulic power to only the slats is automatically shut off
C. Arms LE PDU alternate electric motor |
|
Definition
| B. Hydraulic power to only the slats is automatically shut off |
|
|
Term
(767) The Pitch Enhancement System (PES) will automatically activate with the loss of which hydraulic system?
A. Left and right
B. Center and right
C. Left and center |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of information is provided by the IRSs?
A. Heading, acceleration, altitude, cost index, winds, attitude and position
B. True and magnetic heading, acceleration, track, vertical speed, altitude, position, groundspeed, and wind speed and direction
C. Climb gradient, acceleration, track, speed, winds, attitude and FMC generated magenta line |
|
Definition
| B. True and magnetic heading, acceleration, track, vertical speed, altitude, position, groundspeed, and wind speed and direction |
|
|
Term
Why does the ON DC light illuminate when the IRS
mode selector is positioned to NAV?
A. Self-test for the DC backup power source
B. IRSs always operate on DC and use AC as backup power
C. IRSs require DC power during Standby Navigation System (SNS) operation |
|
Definition
| A. Self-test for the DC backup power source |
|
|
Term
Where can you input present position required for normal IRS alignment?
A. FMC HOLD page and IRS HDG mode selected
B. Progress page 2 and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard
C. CDU POS INT page and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard |
|
Definition
| C. CDU POS INT page and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard |
|
|
Term
What does an L, C or R IRS on DC EICAS message indicate?
A. Indicates IRS needs re-alignment
B. Indicates IRS AC normal power has failed and the IRS DC backup power is being used
C. Indicates ILS receiver has failed |
|
Definition
| B. Indicates IRS AC normal power has failed and the IRS DC backup power is being used |
|
|
Term
What does the IRS DC FAIL light indicate?
A. IRS DC voltage above normal and does not continue to operate normally if associated AC power is available
B. IRS DC voltage normal
C. IRS DC backup power for the related IRS has failed |
|
Definition
| C. IRS DC backup power for the related IRS has failed |
|
|
Term
What does the IRS FAULT light indicate?
A. IRS has detected a fault
B. HDG position selected by the IRS System Display selector
C. Associated FMC has failed |
|
Definition
| A. IRS has detected a fault |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a normal and fast alignment?
A. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 5-second re-alignment
B. All accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 15-second re-alignment
C. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 30-second realignment |
|
Definition
| C. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 30-second realignment |
|
|
Term
What does and FMC INSUFFICIENT FUEL message indicate?
A. Estimated fuel at destination will be 0 lbs
B. Estimated fuel at destination less than entered RESERVES value
C. Estimated fuel at destination will be 4,000 lbs |
|
Definition
| B. Estimated fuel at destination less than entered RESERVES value |
|
|
Term
(757) If both AC busses are lost, what is the expected IRS configuration?
A. Standby power to left and center IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power
B. Standby power to left and right IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power
C. Standby power to center IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power |
|
Definition
| A. Standby power to left and center IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power |
|
|
Term
(767) If both AC busses are lost, what is the expected
IRS configuration (HDG operating)?
A. Standby power to left IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power
B. Standby power to right IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power
C. Standby power to center IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power |
|
Definition
| B. Standby power to right IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power |
|
|
Term
What does a Main Tank Pump PRESS light and associated
EICAS message indicate?
A. Respective engine not above 50% N2 or N3 (RR), output pressure low, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF
B. Fuel output pressure low with the pump selected ON, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF
C. APU running |
|
Definition
| B. Fuel output pressure low with the pump selected ON, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF |
|
|
Term
What does a Center Pump PRESS light and associated
EICAS message indicate?
A. Center pneumatic pressure low
B. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure high or respective N2 above 50% with Center Pump switch ON
C. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure low with the pump selected ON or respective N2 or N3 (RR) below 50% with Center Pump switch ON |
|
Definition
| C. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure low with the pump selected ON or respective N2 or N3 (RR) below 50% with Center Pump switch ON |
|
|
Term
What does FMC INSUFFICIENT FUEL message indicate?
A. Predicted fuel at destination will b 0 lbs
B. Predicted fuel at destination will be 4,000 lbs
C. Predicted fuel at destination is less than the FMC reserves |
|
Definition
| C. Predicted fuel at destination is less than the FMC reserves |
|
|
Term
Which fuel tank provides the Fuel Temperature Indicator information?
A. Left
B. Center
C. Right |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the Crossfeed VALVE light and associated EICAS message indicate?
A. Crossfeed valve operating normally
B. Crossfeed valve not in selected position
C. Fuel jettison system activated |
|
Definition
| B. Crossfeed valve not in selected position |
|
|
Term
What condition causes the L FWD Pump PRESS light to
extinguish with the switch OFF?
A. APU running on the ground
B. Left engine running
C. Weather radar TEST mode selected |
|
Definition
| A. APU running on the ground |
|
|
Term
Which pump is signaled to operate with no main AC power
available for an APU start?
A. Center #2 electric AC fuel pump
B. DC pump located in the left main fuel tank
C. L AFT pump regardless of switch position with no AC power available |
|
Definition
| B. DC pump located in the left main fuel tank |
|
|
Term
Is it possible for the dedicated APU DC pump to pressurize the left main fuel manifold?
A. No, the DC pump has a check valve that prevents pressurizing the left fuel manifold
B. Yes, the DC pump has an override system in the event the main AC pumps fail
C. Yes, the DC pump has a check valve that allows pressurization of the left fuel manifold |
|
Definition
| A. No, the DC pump has a check valve that prevents pressurizing the left fuel manifold |
|
|
Term
What does the LOW FUEL EICAS message and FUEL CONFIG light indicate?
A. Crossfeed valve position disagrees with commanded position
B. Fuel quantity is low in either left or right main tank
C. Less than 2,200 lbs in the center tank |
|
Definition
| B. Fuel quantity is low in either left or right main tank |
|
|
Term
The center fuel pumps have approximately ___________ the output pressure of the main tank fuel pumps
A. three times
B. twice
C. four times |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fuel balancing is accomplished by ____________
A. closing the crossfeed valve(s) and turning on the fuel pump switches for the center fuel tank
B. turning off the left or right main fuel tank that has the highest quantity
C. opening the crossfeed valve(s) and turning off the fuel pump switches for the left or right main fuel tank that has the lowest quantity |
|
Definition
| C. opening the crossfeed valve(s) and turning off the fuel pump switches for the left or right main fuel tank that as the lowest quantity |
|
|
Term
Center tank fuel will feed first if all fuel pumps are on, because:
A. Main tank fuel feed valves close when the Center Pump switches are ON
B. The center tank fuel pump output pressure is greater than the main tank fuel pump output pressure
C. Automatic tank sequencing by the fuel quantity monitoring system is designed to keep the aircraft CG within limits |
|
Definition
| B. The center tank fuel pump output pressure is greater than the main tank fuel pump output pressure |
|
|
Term
What does the L and/or R FUEL SYS PRESS EICAS message indicate?
A. All fuel pumps have low output pressure or all fuel pumps on one side have low output pressure and the Crossfeed switch(es) are OFF
B. One or both Main Tank Pumps should be turned ON
C. The center tank fuel pump is supplying fuel pressure |
|
Definition
| A. All fuel pumps have low output pressure or all fuel pumps on one side have low output pressure and the Crossfeed switch(es) are OFF |
|
|
Term
What does INSUFFICIENT FUEL CDU message indicate?
A. Predicted fuel at alternate is greater than FMC reserves
B. Predicted fuel at destination is less than FMC reserves
C. Fuel quantity is low in the center fuel tank |
|
Definition
| B. Predicted fuel at destination is less than FMC reserves |
|
|
Term
(757) What are the usable fuel amounts?
A. 14,600 lbs for each main tank and 46,200 lbs for the center tank
B. 15,600 lbs for each main tank and 45,200 lbs for the center tank
C. 14,000 lbs for each main tank and 36,200 lbs for the center tank |
|
Definition
| A. 14,600 lbs for each main tank and 46,200 lbs for the center tank |
|
|
Term
(757) What causes the FUEL CONFIG light and associated
EICAS message to indicate?
A. Less than 1,800 lbs in either main tank, or more than 2,200 lbs in the center tank with Right Tank Pump switch OFF or fuel differs by 200 lbs between main tanks
B. Less than 5,000 lb in either main tank, or more than 1,200 lbs in the center tank with Center Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 2,200 lbs between main tanks
C. Less than 2,200 lbs in either main tank, or more than 1,200 lbs in the center tank with Center Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 1,800 lbs between main tanks |
|
Definition
| C. Less than 2,200 lbs in either main tank, or more than 1,200 lbs in the center tank with Center Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 1,800 lbs between main tanks |
|
|
Term
(767) What are the usable fuel amounts?
A. 49,650 lbs for each main tank and 72,855 lbs for the center tank
B. 40,267 lbs for each main tank and 80,132 lbs for the center tank
C. 14,650 lbs for each main tank and 36,400 lbs for the center tank |
|
Definition
| B. 40,267 lbs for each main tank and 80,132 lbs for the center tank |
|
|
Term
(767) How much of an imbalance annunciates the Fuel CONFIG
light and associated EICAS message?
A. 2,500 lbs(48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1,500 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1,500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs)
B. 2,200 lbs(48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1,200 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1,500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs)
C. 2,500 lbs(51,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1,500 lbs (36,400 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1,500 lbs (greater than 22,000 lbs) |
|
Definition
| A. 2,500 lbs(48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1,500 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1,500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs) |
|
|
Term
(767) What does the FUEL JET NOZ EICAS message and associated VALVE light indicate on the Fuel Jettison Panel?
A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative
B. Associated fuel transfer valve is not in commanded position
C. In flight, the nozzle valve position disagrees with the commanded position |
|
Definition
| C. In flight, the nozzle valve position disagrees with the commanded position |
|
|
Term
(767) Fuel is jettisoned at a rate of approximately ________ per minute
A. 2,600 lbs
B. 2,200 lbs
C. 1,200 lbs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) Why does a L or R FUEL JET PUMP EICAS message indicate?
A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative
B. Fuel jettison is not available
C. Main tank pump inoperative |
|
Definition
| A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative |
|
|
Term
What does RF indicate on the Status page adjacent to hydraulic quantity?
A. Reservoir requires refilling
B. Reservoir over filled and greater than 1.25
C. Reservoir doesn’t require refill |
|
Definition
| A. Reservoir requires refilling |
|
|
Term
What does the SYS PRESS light indicate?
A. Electric pump pressure low
B. Engine-driven pump pressure low
C. Low system pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does an Engine or Electric Hydraulic Pump PRESS light indicate?
A. Excessive system pressure
B. Push to activate PTU
C. Low pump pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is powered by the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)?
A. Reserve brakes
B. Alternate brakes
C. Flight controls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition automatically deploys the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)?
A. Both engines fail
B. Loss of center hydraulics
C. Loss of one engine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum airspeed required to maintain adequate
RAM Air Turbine (RAT)?
A. Airspeed above 140 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 130 knots |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cockpit indication assures adequate pressure of the center system when the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is deployed?
A. Green PRESS light
B. Amber PRESS light
C. RF on Status page |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is it possible to deploy the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) on the ground with no power connected to the aircraft?
A. No
B. Yes, RAT will deploy on the ground if RAT switch is pushed regardless of Battery switch position
C. Yes, every time both engines are shut down, the RAT deploys on the ground |
|
Definition
| B. Yes, RAT will deploy on the ground if RAT switch is pushed regardless of Battery switch position |
|
|
Term
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) can be retracted in flight. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does pulling the Engine Fire switch affect the hydraulic system?
A. Depressurizes the associated hydraulic system
B. Disconnects the engine hydraulic pump, requiring maintenance reset
C. Shuts off fluid to the engine pump and depressurizes the pump |
|
Definition
| C. Shuts off fluid to the engine pump and depressurizes the pump |
|
|
Term
(757) What does the RSVR light indicate?
A. Reserve brakes and steering active
B. Low reservoir hydraulic quantity and/or pressure
C. Automatic right system isolation has occurred |
|
Definition
| B. Low reservoir hydraulic quantity and/or pressure |
|
|
Term
(757) What does the OVHT light indicate?
A. Hydraulic system is overheated
B. Engine-driven pump pressure low
C. Respective pump temperature is high |
|
Definition
| C. Respective pump temperature is high |
|
|
Term
(757) What are the electrical inhibits associated with the hydraulic system?
A. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number two electric pump is inhibited
B. With two engine-driven generators operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number one electric pump is inhibited
C. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the left engine-driven pump is inhibited |
|
Definition
| A. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number two electric pump is inhibited |
|
|
Term
(757) Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system?
A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, right thrust reverser
B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering
C. Flight controls only |
|
Definition
| B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering |
|
|
Term
(757) Which components are powered by the center hydraulic system?
A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser
B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering
C. Flight controls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) Which components are powered by the right hydraulic system?
A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser
B. Flight controls
C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering |
|
Definition
| A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser |
|
|
Term
(757) What is the left hydraulic system standpipe fluid protected for?
A. Reserve brakes and steering
B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
C. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) |
|
Definition
| B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU) |
|
|
Term
(757) What condition(s) cause the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) to operate automatically?
A. Left engine failure and/or left engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure low
B. Left engine failure and/or left electric hydraulic pump pressure low
C. Left engine failure only |
|
Definition
| A. Left engine failure and/or left engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure low |
|
|
Term
(757) Which components are powered by the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?
A. Reserve brakes and steering
B. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and flight controls
C. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and main cargo door |
|
Definition
| C. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and main cargo door |
|
|
Term
What is the center hydraulic system standpipe fluid protected for?
A. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
B. Reserve brakes
C. Power Transfer Unit (PTU) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) What is the right hydraulic system standpipe fluid protected for?
A. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
C. Reserve brakes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) What does a QTY light indicate?
A. Low pump pressure
B. Low reservoir quantity only
C. Low reservoir quantity and/or pneumatic pressure |
|
Definition
| B. Low reservoir quantity only |
|
|
Term
(767) Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system?
A. Landing gear and flight controls
B. Normal brakes and flight controls
C. Flight controls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) Which hydraulic system has standby protected fluid?
A. Center hydraulic
B. All three
C. Left hydraulic system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) Which system(s) use standby protected fluid?
A. Nosewheel steering, landing gear, flaps and slats, and main cargo door
B. Reserve brakes and steering
C. Flight controls |
|
Definition
| B. Reserve brakes and steering |
|
|
Term
(767) Which components does the center hydraulic system power?
A. Flight controls
B. Normal brakes and flight controls
C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, tailskid, landing gear, nosewheel steering, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), and flaps and slats |
|
Definition
| C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, tailskid, landing gear, nosewheel steering, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), and flaps and slats |
|
|
Term
(767) Which components are powered by the right hydraulic system?
A. Flight controls and normal brakes
B. Flight controls, landing gear, alternate and reserve brakes, tailskid, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) and nosewheel steering
C. Flight controls only |
|
Definition
| A. Flight controls and normal brakes |
|
|
Term
(767) The left electric demand pump is inhibited during either engine start to reduce electrical loads. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(767) When does the left electrical demand pump operate in AUTO?
A. Flap lever in 1, 5, 15 or 20 positions
B. Left engine pump pressure low
C. When the landing gear and/or flaps/slats are operating, or low system pressure or high demand on the left hydraulic system |
|
Definition
| B. Left engine pump pressure low |
|
|
Term
(767) When does the right electric demand pump operate in AUTO?
A. Fuel control switch in RUN, or right hydraulic system pump pressure low or on the ground with Flaps 25 or 30 selected
B. Right hydraulic system pressure low, or in flight with Flaps 1,5, 15 or 20 selected
C. Right engine pump pressure low or flap lever in 1, 5, 15 or 20 to ensure pressure to normal brakes during takeoff |
|
Definition
| C. Right engine pump pressure low or flap lever in 1, 5, 15 or 20 to ensure pressure to normal brakes during takeoff |
|
|
Term
(767) When does the Air Demand Pump (ADP) operate automatically?
A. Loss of the right hydraulic system
B. Left engine below 50% N2
C. Low center hydraulic system pressure, heavy load items are selected or when the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) is signaled to operate |
|
Definition
| C. Low center hydraulic system pressure, heavy load items are selected or when the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) is signaled to operate |
|
|
Term
(767) What is the power source for the Air Demand Pump (ADP)?
A. Bleed air from the center pneumatic duct
B. Left AC bus
C. Right AC bus |
|
Definition
| A. Bleed air from the center pneumatic duct |
|
|
Term
What does the BRAKE SOURCE light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Normal and alternate brake system pressure low
B. Alternate brakes active
C. Reserve brakes active |
|
Definition
| A. Normal and alternate brake system pressure low |
|
|
Term
What does GEAR DISAGREE light and EICAS message indicate?
A. Gear is down and locked
B. Burned out bulbs
C. Gear disagrees with lever position |
|
Definition
| C. Gear disagrees with lever position |
|
|
Term
What type of braking is available if normal/reserve and alternate hydraulic power is lost?
A. Accumulator braking
B. Aerodynamic braking
C. Antiskid braking only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which brake system(s) is/are provided with antiskid protection?
A. Normal/reserve and alternate brake hydraulic systems
B. Normal brake hydraulic system only
C. Normal/reserve brake hydraulic system only |
|
Definition
| A. Normal/reserve and alternate brake hydraulic systems |
|
|
Term
What is accomplished by positioning the gear lever OFF?
A. Stops operation of the brake cooling fans
B. Depressurizes landing gear system
C. Extinguishes the logo light |
|
Definition
| B. Depressurizes landing gear system |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following indicates the auto brakes system is operative?
A. AUTO BRAKES light illuminated
B. AUTO SPEEDBRAKE message illuminated
C. AUTOBRAKES light extinguished |
|
Definition
| C. AUTOBRAKES light extinguished |
|
|
Term
Which of the following provides the maximum braking pressure?
A. Auto Brakes selector set to 4
B. Auto Brakes selector set to MAX AUTO
C. RTO initiated above 85 knots |
|
Definition
| C. RTO initiated above 85 knots |
|
|
Term
IF the auto brake system is not disarmed by the pilot, down to what speed will the system provide automatic braking?
A. Complete stop
B. Thirty knots
C. Sixty knots |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(757) What occurs if the Reserve Brakes switch is selected?
A. Allows use of reserve right hydraulic fluid, activates right electric hydraulic pump and isolates the right electric hydraulic pump power to the normal system
B. Fluid is isolated for alternate brakes, supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, and right electric pump is signaled to operated
C. Fluid is isolated for normal brakes, supply valve closes, isolation valve closes, and right engine-driven pump is signaled to operate |
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Definition
| A. Allows use of reserve right hydraulic fluid, activates right electric hydraulic pump and isolates the right electric hydraulic pump power to the normal system |
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Term
(757) Which hydraulic system powers normal brakes?
A. Left
B. Center
C. Right |
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Definition
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Term
(757) What is the active brake system following a SYS PRESS light and a R HYD SYS PRESS EICAS message?
A. Normal brakes
B. Reserve brakes
C. Alternate brakes |
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Definition
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Term
(757) What are the auto brake and antiskid differences as it relates to alternate brakes?
A. Full auto brake capability and normal antiskid
B. No auto brakes and laterally paired wheel antiskid
C. Separate antiskid system using its own IRS and center system trapped fluid |
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Definition
| B. No auto brakes and laterally paired wheel antiskid |
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Term
(757) How does the alternate gear extension system operated?
A. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped center hydraulic system fluid
B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid
C. Mechanically releases the main gear door locks and nose gear uplock using an electric motor |
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Definition
| B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid |
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Term
(757) The Alternate Gear Extend switch energizes:_______________
A. the right electric pump
B. the left electric pump
C. an electric hydraulic pump to release gear uplocks and door locks |
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Definition
| C. an electric hydraulic pump to release gear uplocks and door locks |
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Term
(767) What does a L or R DRAG BRACE EICAS message indicate?
A. The gear is not down
B. Alternate gear extension has occurred
C. Main gear drag brace is not locked down |
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Definition
| C. Main gear drag brace is not locked down |
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Term
(767) Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Center |
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Definition
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Term
(767) What occurs after selecting the Reserves Brakes and Steering switch?
A. Supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, No. 2 center electric pump is signaled to operate regardless of switch position
B. Provides reserve hydraulic fluid to center number one (1) electric hydraulic pump regardless of pump switch position and pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the alternate brake system and nosewheel steering system
C. Supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, and right hydraulic electric pump is signaled to operate regardless of switch position |
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Definition
| B. Provides reserve hydraulic fluid to center number one (1) electric hydraulic pump regardless of pump switch position and pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the alternate brake system and nosewheel steering system |
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Term
(767) Which hydraulic system powers normal brakes?
A. Left
B. Center
C. Right |
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Definition
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Term
(767) What is the active brake system following a SYS PRESS light and a R HYD SYS PRESS EICAS message?
A. Alternate brakes powered from the left hydraulic system
B. Alternate brakes powered from the center hydraulic system
C. Alternate brakes powered from the right hydraulic system |
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Definition
| B. Alternate brakes powered from the center hydraulic system |
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Term
(767) How does the alternate gear extension system operate?
A. An electric motor is used to trip the locking mechanism in each gear
B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid
C. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped center hydraulic system fluid |
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Definition
| A. An electric motor is used to trip the locking mechanism in each gear |
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Term
(767) What number activated the BRAKE TEM light?
A. 2-4
B. 0-2
C. 5 or greater |
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Definition
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Term
What occurs if the Master Warning/Caution Reset switch is pushed?
A. Both Master WARNING and CAUTION lights extinguish
B. Only the EICAS CAUTION message extinguishes
C. Both Master CAUTION lights extinguish and the EICAS CAUTION message extinguishes |
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Definition
| A. Both Master WARNING and CAUTION lights extinguish |
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Term
What switch silences the fire bell?
A. EICAS Cancel switch
B. Master Warning/Caution Reset switch
C. Maximum Indication Reset switch |
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Definition
| B. Master Warning/Caution Reset switch |
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Term
When are the fire bell and Master Warning lights inhibited during takeoff?
A. Begins at an airspeed of 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time since nose strut extension or first penetration of 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first
B. The fire bell and Master WARNING lights are never inhibited during takeoff to provide immediate crew awareness and corrective action
C. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first |
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Definition
| C. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first |
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Term
When are the beeper and Master Caution lights inhibited during takeoff?
A. At 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds since nose strut extension or 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first
B. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first
C. The beeper and Master CAUTION lights are never inhibited during takeoff to provide immediate crew awareness |
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Definition
| A. At 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds since nose strut extension or 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first |
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Term
Which system alert message requires immediate crew awareness and corrective action?
A. Warnings
B. Cautions
C. Status |
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Definition
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Term
Which system alert message requires immediate crew awareness and may require corrective action?
A. Warnings
B. Cautions
C. Status |
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Definition
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Term
If both EICAS computers fail, what occurs?
A. Standby Engine Indicator is automatically activated provided AUTO is selected
B. Standby Engine Indicator is automatically activated provided OFF is selected
C. The EICAS message BOTH EICAS COMPUTERS FAIL is displayed |
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Definition
| A. Standby Engine Indicator is automatically activated provided AUTO is selected |
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Term
If one EICAS screen is inoperative, what occurs if the Status Display switch is selected in flight?
A. The Status messages will display on the remaining screen replacing the engine instruments
B. Nothing, the Status page is inhibited until the aircraft is on the ground following a failure of one EICAS screen
C. FMC STATUS page 2 of 12 display Status messages |
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Definition
| B. Nothing, the Status page is inhibited until the aircraft is on the ground following a failure of one EICAS screen |
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Term
What occurs if the upper EICAS CRT fails?
A. Engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT
B. Engine indications appear on the Standby Engine Indicator
C. A DISPLAY INOP EICAS message appears on the upper EICAS CRT |
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Definition
| A. Engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT |
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Term
Should the FMC not detect any crew activity occurring over a set duration of time, a series of EICAS annunciations will begin. True or False?
A. True
B. False |
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Definition
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