For each product that is being transferred at the facility, there are SEVEN (7) specific things that should be in the operations manual. 

How many days does a facility have to respond to a COTP written notice of inadequacies within the facilities Operations Manual?

45 Days 

How many days does the operator of a new facility have to submit an operations manual before a transfer can take place? 

60 Days. 

If a discrepancy is found in the operations manual while at a facility, where should the inspection team file the discrepancies found and the actions taken? 

Discrepancies will be entered into MISLE when the team returns to the unit. 

What are the (5) subsections of a response plan that need to be identified when reviewing the plan? 

1. Introduction Plan & Content

2. Emergency Response Action Plan (ERAP)

3. Training & Exercises

4. Plan review & Update Procedures

5. Appendices 

If an MTR facility is identified as a "significant and substantial harm facility", it will also be required to prepare a response plan under what regulation?     

40 CFR, Part 112 (EPA) 

What are response scenarios used for? 

To develop a planning document 

What should an FRP reflect?

(2 things) 

1. Corporate Structure

&

2. Existing Operating Procedures 

What factors are used on the targeting matrix to identify vessels that are at the greatest risk of being substandard?

(4 things) 

Classification societies are evaluated on their previous performance over how many years? 

TWO (2) Years. 

How many points does an owner, operator, or managing operator of a vessel receive that is included on a current targeted owners list provided by G-MOC? 

FIVE (5) Points 

What do you do in MISLE to find the history of a specific vessel? 

PSC Vessel History 

 Which CFR cite requires that there be an appropriate number of translations of the Operations Manual when conducting a transfer?

33 CFR 154.300(a)(3)

Each Operations Manual will need to contain both the geographic location of the facility and _______. 

Physical Description of the Facility. 

The Operations Manual must meet the requirements of _______. 

33 CFR 154 

Any facility Operations Manual that does not follow the format that is specified within _____ would need to contain a cross referenced index page. 

33 CFR 154.310(a) 

If a facility is removed from caretaker status, they must submit 2 copies of their Operations Manual no less than ___ days before a transfer operation takes place. 

30 Days 

Any FRP that does not follow the format that is specified within ____ would need to be supplemented with a detailed cross reference section to identify the location of the required sections. 

33 CFR 154.1030(b) 

Which law requires the preparation and submission of a response plan by certain types of facilities? 

Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90) 

Which part of 33 CFR 154 includes facility and response plan information, emergency response action plan information, training and exercise information? 

 33 CFR 154.1035

New facilities must submit a response plan to the COTP not less than ___ days prior to handling, storing, or transporting oil. 

60 Days 

If an MTR facility is identified as a significant and substantial harm facility, it will be required to prepare a response plan under ______. 

40 CFR, Part 112 (EPA) 

 For facilities identified as a "substantial harm", the validity period for the FRP begins the date ____

5 years from the date of submission to the COTP 

When reviewing a FRP, the reviewer should look at the plans overall ______. 

(3 things) 

Effectiveness, Workability, & Organization 

Response plans are written for the use of the ___.                 

Facility Owner / Operator 

FRP can be valid for a period up to ___ years. 

FIVE (5) 

Which Volume of the MSM contains examples of an FRP Approval Letter? 

MSM IX 

The Port State Control Program is to identify and eliminate _____ foreign merchant ships from U.S. waters. 

SUBSTANDARD 

Who develops and maintains the targeted owners list? 

G-MOC 

Flag states are evaluated on their detention ratio for the previous ___ months. 

12 months/year 

If a vessel was subject to an Operational Control within the past 12 months, it will be given ___ point(s) on the targeting matrix? 

ONE (1) 

If a vessel was subject to an intervention leading to a detention within the past 12 months, it will be given ____ point(s) on the targeting matrix. 

FIVE (5) 

Priority I vessels will be scheduled for examination __________. 

PRIOR TO ENTERING A U.S. PORT 

Priority III vessels will have a score of ____ points on the matrix. 

4 to 6 

Vessels that do not have, or are past due for, an annual freight examination are automatically considered priority _____ vessels. 

II 

Who may assign a boarding priority for reasons not captured in the targeting matrix? 

OCMI 

What are the THREE (3) most important positions within the Safety & Occupational Health Program? 

1. EXPOSED PERSONNEL

2. SECTOR CDR/COMMANDING OFFICER

3. SAFETY OFFICER 

List FOUR (4) different types of OMSEP medical examinations. 

1. Initial/Baseline

2. Periodic

3. Acute Exposure

4. Exit/Separation (Employment Exposure) 

What are the elements used to implement a unit respiratory program?

(5 things) 

1. The correct respirator is used to protect against the hazard.

2. All respirators are either National Institute for Occupational Safety & Health (NIOSH) or Mine Safety and Heal Administration (MSHA) approved for use.

3. Self-contained and supplied-ir systems deliver air that meets breathing air standards.

4. The actual use of respirators by personnel are periodically observed and evaluated.

5. All program elements are implemented 

List the FIVE (5) items that are found on the hazardous materials inventory list developed by the Hazardous Materials Coordinator. 

1. Coast Guard unit name

2. Product names

3. Manufacturers' names & addresses

4. Federal/national stock numbers

5. The use location for all hazardous materials used in the workplace. 

List FOUR (4) marine safety activities that present a risk of benzene exposure. 

1. Cargo Transfer Monitors

2. Tank Vessel Internal Exams

3. Pump Room Entry

4. Pollution Response involving products in the preceding table. 

At a minimum, the site safety and health plan should include the following TEN (10) elements 

1. Safety and health risk or hazard analysis for each   

    site task and operation found in the work plan

2. Employee training assignments

3. Personal protective equipment to be used by employees for each of the site tasks and operations being conducted. 

4. Medical Surveillance

5. Frequency and types of air monitoring, personnel

    monitoring, and enviromental sampling techniques and instrumentation to be used, including methods of maintenance and calibration of monitoring and sampling equipment to be used.

6. Site control measures IAW the site control program

7. Decontamintion procedures

8. When to have an emergency response planning meeting.

9. What are the confined space entry procedures to be used

10. When to have a spill containment program 

List the required EIGHT (8) pieces of information that an employer should obtain prior to allowing employees to enter a site. 

1. Location and approximate size of the site

2. Description of the response activity and/or the job task to be performed.

3. Duration of the planned employee activity

4. Site topography & accessibility by air and roads

5. Safety and Health hazards expected at the site.

6. Pathways for hazardous substance dispersion.

7. Present status and capabilities of emergency response teams that would provide assistance to hazardous waste clean up site employees at the time of an emergency.

8. Hazardous substances and health hazards involved or expected at the site, and their chemical and physical properties. 

An on-scene incident commander will recieve at least how many hours of training for his position? 

24 Hours 

What will ICS provide?

 ICS provides a means to coordinate the efforts of individual agencies as they work toward the common goal of stabilizing the incident, protecting life, property, and the environment.

What are the SEVEN (7) elements of the ICS briefing? 

1. Situation

2. Current Priorities

3. Strategy and tactics

4. Current Organization

5. Resource assignments

6. Resources en route and/or ordered

7. Facilities established 

What is the purpose of page 1 of the ICS 201 Incident Briefing Form? 

Completing the map/sketch 

What is the purpose of an IAP? 

The IAP is a plan that, when developed, contains objectives reflecting the overall strategy to be used for the incident. 

What criteria's (FOUR 4) will determine whether the IAP will be in a written or verbal format? 

1. Two or more jurisdictions are involved
2. A number of organizational elements have been activated.
3. The incident continues into another planning or operational period
4. It is required by agency policy. 

What general information is captured when preparing the IAP? 

IAPs capture the measureable tactical operations to be achieved and are always prepared around a time-frame called an operational period. 

What is the purpose of the ICS Form 202? 

Incident Objectives 

What is the purpose of the ICS Form 203? 

Organization Assignment List 

IAP Inputs 

Operations Section Chief 

Unit/Activity Log 

IAP Inputs

Planning Section Chief 

Incident Objectives 

IAP Input

Finance Administration Chief 

Operational period cost summary reports. 

 IAP Inputs

Logistic Section Chief 

Demobilization of all incident resources. 

List SIX (6) Actions that may be taken to prevent, minimize, or mitigate threats to the public health or environment in the event of a discharge of oil or release of hazardous materials. 

1. Analyzing water samples to determine source and

   spread of oil.

2. Controlling the source of the discharge.

3. Measuring and Sampling

4. Source and spread control/salvage ops.

5. Placement of physical barriers to deter the spread

    of oil and to protect the environment

6. The use of chemicals and other material to restrain

    the spread of oil and/or mitigate efforts. 

List TWO (2) actions that the on-scene coordinator will take when a responsible party for a discharge of oil or hazardous material is identified.

1. Make all reasonable efforts to have the responsible party voluntarily perform removal operations.

2. Deliver a Notice of Federal Interest (CG-5549) to the responsible party. 

List FOUR (4) criteria used to determine if removal operations for an oil discharge are complete. 

What series of forms are used to document federally-funded removal operations? 

CG-5136 

What do you call the process of mixing oiled sand with an inorganic substance, such as calcium oxide, to form an inert product? 

Stabilization 

List some examples of costs that are eligible for charge to the OSLTF fund for Phase III removal activities when the RP performs the cleanup

[THIRTEEN (13) Examples] 

If a CERCLA response requires less than $250,000 in funding, the OSC must document a finding of imminent and substantial endangerment. This finding may be included in the situation description section of POLREP ONE and, at a minimum, must include what?

[FOUR (4) Things] 

 1. The hazardous substance(s), pollutant(s), or contaminant(s) involved.

2. Description of what is affected or threatened (people, animals, crops, drinking water, etc.)

3. A statement indicating that this situation presents an imminent and substantial threat to public health, welfare, or the environment.

4. Description of the response action necessary to neutralize the threat. 

What form will summarize all personnel, equipment, and other resources that are used during the removal activities of each incident? 

CG-5136A

The CG-5136A will summarize all personnel, equipment, and other resources that are used during the removal activities of each incident.

What are the THREE (3) Components of the cradle-to-grave management system for hazardous waste? 

1. Hazardous Waste Generation

2. Hazardous Waste Transportation

3. Hazardous Waste Disposal 

The original copy of the hazardous waste must be dated and have the signature of the persons representing _____.

 [TWO (2) Things]

1. The shipper (generator) of the waste at the time it is offered for transportation. 

2. The initial carrier accepting the waste for transportation. 

How many years must the generator of the waste keep a copy of the signed manifest? 

For a period of THREE (3) Years or until the generator receives a signed copy from the designated facility which received the waste. 

When combating a problem, all members that are assigned to a marine safety field unit will need to develop ideas and behaviors that promote an outlook on the proper _____ protection. 

SAFETY & HEALTH 

Each unit, depending upon it's size, should have a safety committee IAW. 

29 CFR 1960.37 

The safety petty officer/safety equipment officer is required for units that have at least ___ personnel. 

FOURTY (40) 

Members enrolled in OMSEP that are being monitored under more than one exposure protocol will need to complete the form __________.

CG-5447A 

Which OMSEP form should be used to record results of a reference audiogram exam? 

DD Form 2215 

Who appoints the respiratory protection coordinator (RPC)? 

Sector Commander/Commanding Officer 

What is the preferred method for conducting a respirator fit test? 

Quantiative fit testing 

Hazard communications are required by the OSHA to protect workers from the hazardous properties of hazardous materials. The procedures for providing this protection are codified in ____. 

29 CFR 1910.1200 

The MSDS, which are required for all hazardous materials found at each CG Unit, will indicate whether _____ is present in these products.  

BENZENE 

Mostly safety & health programs that meet federal, state, or local regulations are considered acceptable if they are modified to cover the topis found within __. 

29 CFR 1910.120 

 What is part of a safety and health program?

An Organizational Structure 

The comprehensize work plan will provide for the implementation of the medical surveillance program described in _______. 

29 CFR 1910.120(f) 

All hazardous waste sites will need to be evaluated IAW. 

29 CFR 1910.120 

 An employer is exempt from the guidelines found in 29 CFR 1910.120 if they have an emergency action plan that is in compliance with ___.

29 CFR 1910.38 

Skilled support & specialist personnel will be given an initial briefing at the site prior to their participation. What information is required in the initial briefing. 

Instruction in the wearing of appropriate personnel protective equipment. 

First responders at the operations level will have at least ___ hours of training. 

EIGHT (8) 

Hazardous material technicians will have at least ___ hours of training. 

TWENTY-FOUR (24) 

Incident commanders will have at least ___ hours of training. 

TWENTY-FOUR (24) 

What form will the ICS Briefing include? 

ICS-201 

Which of the following would be an element of the ICS briefing? 

Current priorities 

The following is found within the ICS-201 Form: map/sketch, summary of current actions, current organization, and _____? 

RESOURCE SUMMARY 

For large incidents, the IAP format will be ___. 

Written 

What position will communicate incident status changes to the IC/UC and other sections? 

OPERATIONS 

What ICS Form will describe the basic incident strategy, the controlling objectives, and the safety considerations? 

ICS-202 

What ICS form will list the assignments fo the divisions and groups? 

ICS-204 

What ICS Form will provide information on incident medical aid stations, transportation services and hospitals? 

ICS-206 

What type of training should the operations section chief have attended prior to assuming the position? 

ICS 100-300 

 The logistics section chief should be able to effectively manage a range of functions that may include __________.

Ensuring appropriate logistics requirements of incident are identified and met. 

The OSC will need to take defensive actions as soon as possible to prevent, minimize, or mitigate any threat that an incident may pose to the environment or to the health and welfare of the United States. These defensive actions may include _____ 

CONTROLLING THE SOURCE OF THE DISCHARGE 

What form is used for a Notice of Federal Interest for an Oil Pollution Incident? 

CG-5549 

 The NOFI/CG-5549 will inform the suspected discharger(s) of a potential violation of the FWPCA, and of his or her possible liability to a civil penalty of up to _____ per day of violation or up to 3 times the cost incurred by the OSLTF.

$32,500 

 In managing a federally funded removal, the OSC must take every effort to ____.

Match equipment and personnel to spill characteristics. 

The OSC will need to make sure that proper documentation for managing a commercial contractor is kept IAW the instructions found within ____. 

MSM Vol. VI, 7. B. 6. c 

The mechanisms governing state reimbursements from the polllution fund for reimbursable activities are listed in 33 CFR ____ 

33 CFR 153.407 

The USCG can open FPNs up to __ and CPNs up to __

$500k & $249,999 

The OSC will need to submit a cost summary report that will document expenses that are recoverable from the polluter within ____ days. 

30 

The hazardous waste program within RCRA is found within ________ 

Subtitle C-Hazardous Waste Program 

Subtitle I of RCRA covers ______. 

Underground Storage Tanks 

What process will be used to burn oily debris? 

INCINERATION 

Which process will be used for land farming recovered product from small oil spills? 

BIODEGREDATION 

What fund does the predesignated OSCs within various districts have the authority to use? 

OSLTF

Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund 

The OSLTF is administered by the ____. 

NPFC

National Pollution Funds Center. 

There are specific costs that are eligible for charge to the OSLTF fund for Phase III removal activities when the RP performs the cleanup. One eligible cost is

RESERVIST ORDERS 

Initial CERCLA ceiling requests will not exceed 

$250,000 

What form will be completed for all government personnel costs that are incurred for each day of the removal activity? 

CG-5136B 

 What form will be completed for all government equipment costs that are incurred for each day of the removal activity?

CG-5136C 

What form will be completed for all government purchases, expendables, travel, etc for each day of the removal activity? 

CG-5136D 

What form will be used for contractor personnel? 

CG-5136 E-1 

Which form is the contractor short form? 

CG-5136 E-4 

The cradle-to-grave management system for hazardous waste establishes specific requirements for __________. 

Hazardous Waste Transporters 

When the hazardous waste manifest is completed, it will contain information on the type and quantity of the waste that is being transported, its instructions for handling the waste, and ____. 

Signature lines for all parties involved in the disposal process. 

The generator of the hazardous waste manifest will prepare the form IAW 

40 CFR 262 

How many years must a signed copy of a hazardous waste manifest be retained from the date the waste was accepted by the inital transporter? 

THREE (3) Years 

The authority to issue an order that would prohibit the operation of a vessel or tranfer of cargo would apply if the vessel _____. 

Does not comply with the applicable vessel traffic service requirements. 

List SIX (6) Acts and/or Orders that affect the legal authority of a COTP to issue an order. 

1. The Ports & Waterways Safety Act (PWSA) of 1972

2. Port & Tanker Safety Act (PTSA) of 1978

3. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90)

4. The Espionage Act of 1917

5. The Magnuson Act of 1950 (50 USC 191)

6. Executive Order (E.O.) 10173 

List the FOUR (4) examples of the correct use of a COTP Order. 

1. Restrict or stop vessel operations

2. Require specific actions to be taken

3. Deny a vessel further entry to port until a deficiency is corrected

4. Detain a vessel in port 

On the MISLE main screen, what button will you choose to begin entering a COTP Order? 

ACTIVITIES 

What is the purpose of an Administrative Order? 

An administrative order (for both FWPCA & CERCLA) is a specific directive from the FOSC requiring detailed actions or corrective measures to be taken by the responsible party to clean up a pollutant or threatened discharge/release of a pollutant. 

What are the THREE (3) types of response measures that may be required immediately by an administrative order? 

1. Cessation of activities which interfere with a Federal removal operation or with a private removal operation that the FOSC is monitoring

2. Corrective measures by the responsible party respecting facilities which are the source of a release or which present a substantial threat of a release

3. When the release or substantial threat of a release occurs on property owned or leased by the responsible party. 

An appeal to an administrative order must be made within how many hours after the issuance of an administrative order? 

48 HOURS 

The COTP may allow for a provisional entry into the navigable waters of the U.S. if the owner or operator of the vessel proves to the satisfaction of the COTP that _____________. 

The vessel in not unsafe. 

The legal authority for a COTP Order based upon a number of laws including. 

Ports and Waterways Safety Act (PWSA) 1972 

What act addresses the safety of all tank vessels which transport and transfer oil or other hazardous cargos in the U.S. ports? 

Port and Tanker Safety Act of 1978 

What amended the Espionage Act of 1917? 

Magnuson Act of 1950 

COTP Orders cannot be issued to a _____ 

class of vessels 

What must you do in MISLE once the conditions set forth in the COTP Order have been satisfied? 

Remove Operational Control 

What must an administrative order contain for both FWPCA & CERCLA? 

Detailed actions to be taken by the responsible party to clean up a pollutant. 

The FOSC may consider two basic fundamentals for Coast Guard action under CERCLA. This would include the prompt action to control a release or to diminish damages and the _____. 

possibility of significant harm to the environment 

The primary authority for issuing an administrative order under FWPCA will be based upon the Clean Water Act of 1977 which was amended by the ___     

OPA 90 

The Clean Water Act has identified what a harmful quantitiy of oil is in 40 CFR _____ 

40 CFR 110.3 

What reference gives the Commandant of the Coast Guard the ability to classify a spill of national significance? 

40 CFR ____ 

40 CFR 300.323 

The FOSC may assume total or partial control of a removal activity under what condition? 

Assuming control would prevent the discharge or alleviate the substantial threat of a discharge. 

The responsible party has the right to appeal an administrative order, but they must make this appeal within _____ hours. 

Within 48 hours