Term
Esophageal obstruction is aka ____. It is usually caused by what? |
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Definition
choke; grain, hay, pelleted feeds, shavings, FB |
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Term
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Definition
frequent attemps to swallow, ptaslism, retching, feed/saliva draining, stretching of neck |
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Term
Common locations for choke: |
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Definition
cranial esophagus, thoracic inlet, heart base |
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Term
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Definition
sedation, mm relaxtion, NT tube/lavage, IV fluids, NSAIDs |
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Term
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Definition
Equine gastric ulcer syndrome |
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Term
Where are gastric ulcers located in the adult horse and in foals? |
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Definition
Adults: Non-glandular (along margo plicatus) Foals: glandular, duodenum |
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Term
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Definition
Acid reducers (H2 antag, PPI, Antacids), Mucosal protectants (Sucralfate), Management (reduce stress, pasture/frequent feeding) |
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Term
____ is the most frequent cause of infectious colitis in the horse. |
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Definition
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Term
How is Salmonella diagnosed in the horse? |
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Definition
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Term
____ is associated with acute colitis in the horse following AB treatment. It is a Gram ____. |
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Definition
Clostridium difficile Gram + rod |
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Term
____causes peracute bloody diarrhea in foals and profuse dark and foul smelling diarrhea in adults. It is gram ___. |
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Definition
Clostridium perfringes Exotoxin A and C Gram + |
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Term
How is Clostridium perfringes diagnosed? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the etiology of Potomac Horse Fever? |
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Definition
Equine monocytic erhlichiosis, Neorickettsi risticci |
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Term
Where/when is Potomac horse fever seen? |
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Definition
NE and mid altantic in July-Sept |
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Term
How is Potomac horse fever diagnosed? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the etiology of canthardin toxicosis? |
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Definition
blister beetles in alfalfa hay in late summer/early fall |
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Term
What does cathanrdin do to the horse? |
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Definition
sloughing of all mucosa, diarrhea, hemorrhagic cystitis/nephritis, oral ulcer |
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Term
What would be some clinical signs of canthardin toxicosis? |
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Definition
abdominal pain, oral ulceration, rapid death, DECREASE ALB/Ca |
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Term
What does NSAID toxicity cause? |
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Definition
gastric/oral ulceration, renal papillary necrosis, RDC |
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Term
What is the order of NSAID toxicity in horses? |
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Definition
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Term
What makes NSAID toxicity worse? |
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Definition
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Term
What does Lawsonia intracellularis do? |
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Definition
proliferative enteropathy (also in horses); profound hyperplasia of the intestinal mucosa |
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Term
What age of horses are affected by Lawsonia? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Fluids, anti-diarrheas (biosponge, bismuth), anti-inflammatory/analgesia, AB controversial |
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Term
The use of AB in colitis is controversial, what are the different AB for them: |
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Definition
C. difficle: Metronidazole, PHF: Oxytetra, Lawsonia: Erythromycin/Rifampin |
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Term
What should not be felt on rectal exam: |
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Definition
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Term
Clinical signs of liver disease: |
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Definition
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Term
Lab signs of liver disease: |
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Definition
increased GGT, SDH, AST, ALP, Direct BIL, Bile acids |
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Term
Treatment of liver disease: |
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Definition
low protein diet, reduce ammonia producing bacteria in the gut (metronidazole, neomycin), anti-inflammatories, IV fluids |
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Term
What's Theiler's disease? |
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Definition
serum sickness; acute hepatic necrosis, occurs 4-10 wks after recieveing equine origin biologics (vx, antisera); poor prognosis |
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Term
What does the biopsy show in the case of Theiller's disease? |
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Definition
mid-zonal hepatic necrosis |
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Term
What is Tyzzler's disease? |
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Definition
Clostridium pilliformis (acute hepatic necorsis) seen in newborn foals (7-42 days old), |
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Term
What are clinical signs of Tyzzler's disease? |
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Definition
severely ILL and icteric foal, increased bilirubin, hypoglycemia; grave prognosis |
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Term
Biopsy findings of Tyzzler's disease? |
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Definition
intracytoplasmic organisms seen with silver stain (in hepatocytes) |
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Term
Etiology of chronic active hepatitis in the horse? |
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Definition
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Term
In what age group is cholithiasis seen in horses? What are the clinical signs? |
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Definition
6-15 yo, intermittent signs |
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Term
What gets hyperlipidemia/hepatic lipidosis? |
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Definition
minature horses/donkeys/ponies, obesity |
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Term
How do you diagnose hyperlipidemia? |
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Definition
TG >500 (the higher the TG, the poorer the prognosis) |
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Term
What are clinical signs of sinusitis? |
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Definition
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Term
What are primary causes of sinusitis? |
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Definition
empyema (bacterial or viral URI) |
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Term
Secondary causes of sinusitis? |
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Definition
fungal granuloma, neoplasia, dental disease |
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Term
____are encapsulated angiomatous masses found in the URT, etiology is unknown. |
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Definition
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Term
Clinical signs of ethmoid hematoma? |
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Definition
intermittent unilateral epistaxis in horses > 6 yo |
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Term
How are ethmoid hematomas dx? |
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Definition
endoscope: 50% are bilateral so SCOPE BOTH SIDES |
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Term
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Definition
4% formalin injections, sx (lots of blood), 50% reoccur |
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Term
What is the cause of strangles? |
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Definition
Streptococcus equi equi, highly contagious (<5 yo) |
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Term
How do you diagnose Strangles? |
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Definition
Culture/PCR of guttural pouch lavage or nasopharyngeal swab or lavage |
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Term
What is the treatment of strangles? |
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Definition
Isolation, AB (if complicated case only-Penicillin), LN drainage/compress, anti-inflammatories |
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Term
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Definition
chondroid formation, tracheotomy, bastard strangles, purpera hemorrhagica |
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Term
Signs of purpera hemorrhagica? |
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Definition
aspectic vasculitis: immune complexes(IgA + M protein) Signs are delayed: pitting edema in four legs and petichae |
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Term
Treatment for purpera hemorrhagica? |
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Definition
Penicillin, dex, anti-inflammatories |
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Term
What AB should you use to treat pneumonia? |
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Definition
Gram +: Pen, Ceftiofur Gram -: Gentamycin, Enrofloxacin Anaerobes: Pen, Metronidazole |
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Term
What does Rhodococcus equi cause? |
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Definition
PNEUMONIA IN FOALS (1-6m), chronic pyogranulamatous pneumonia |
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Term
Treatment for Rhodococcus equi? |
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Definition
AB (min 8-10 weeks): Macrolide (erythromycin, clarithro, azithro) + Rifampin, Strict exercise rest, if severe oxygen, bronchodilators, fluids |
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Term
What is the etiology of pleuropneumonia? |
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Definition
most arise as an extension of pneumonia or lung abscess...Streptococcus |
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Term
Clinical signs of pleuropneumonia? |
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Definition
guarded cough, painful/stilted gait, nasal dc |
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Term
How does pleuropneumonia ASCULT? |
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Definition
ABSENT LUNG SOUNDS VENTRALLY, RADIATING HEART SOUNDS DORSALLY |
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Term
Treatment for pleuropneumonia? |
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Definition
broad spec AB, remove excess pleural fluid, anti-inflammatories, analgesics, IV fluids |
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Term
What are the causes of Viral pneumonia in horses? |
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Definition
EHV 1/4 (4 also causes abortion and CNS), INFLUENZA(most common, highly contagious), Adenovirus |
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Term
What are some other names for COPD of horses? |
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Definition
Heaves, recurrent airway obstruction |
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Term
What are some etiologies of COPD? |
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Definition
hypersenstive to dust, molds, forage mites, aerosolized endotoxin |
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Term
What are clinical signs of COPD? |
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Definition
chronic cough, mucopurulent nasal discharge, increase RR/effort, nostril flare, exercise intolerance, heave line, NO FEVER |
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Term
What is the treatment of COPD in horses? |
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Definition
bronchodilator, reduce pulmonary inflammation (steriods), remove offending agent (stall), reduce pulmonary irritants (soak hay, pelleted feeds) |
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Term
What is the most common endocrine disease in horses that is a progressive chronic disease? |
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Definition
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Term
What causes equine cushings? |
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Definition
pars intermedia dysfunction |
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Term
What are clinical signs of equine cushings? |
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Definition
HIRSITISM, muscle wasting, PU/PD/polyphagia, decrease response to pain |
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Term
How is equine cushing's diagnosed? |
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Definition
DEX SUPPRESSION**, plasma ACTH and DST (be careful interpreting in Sept) |
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Term
How is equine cushings treated? |
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Definition
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Term
Equine metabolic syndrome is aka: |
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Definition
peripheral cushing's syndrome, equine syndrome X |
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Term
Equine metabolic syndrome is characterized by: |
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Definition
obesity, insulin resistance, risk of laminitis, hypertension |
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Term
How is equine metabolic syndrome diagnosed? |
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Definition
CS, resting insulin/glucose (high, high insulin with increase to normal glucose) |
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Term
Treatment of equine metabolic syndrome? |
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Definition
low carb diet (no grain), exercise |
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Term
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Definition
Aminoglycosides, NSAIDS, Cestrum diurnam, Lepto |
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Term
Clinical signs of ARF in horses? |
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Definition
depression, anorexia, PU/anuria, signs of primary dz |
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Term
What are causes of CRF in horses? |
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Definition
Glomerulonephritis, chronic intersitial nephritis, pyelonephritis, amyloidosis |
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Term
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Definition
weight loss, PU, anorexia, ventral edema (PLN) |
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Term
The cerebral cortex is in control of: |
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Definition
behavior and metal status |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The cerebellum is in control of? |
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Definition
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Term
The spinal cord is responsible for: |
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Definition
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Term
What causes Horner's syndrome? |
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Definition
damage to SNS to head caused by: perivascular injections, jugular trauma, GUTTURAL POUCH MYCOSIS, trauma to basisphenoid, cervical abscess/trauma, periorbital mass, esophageal rupture |
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Term
What are clinical signs of Horner's syndrome? |
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Definition
ptosis, miosis, endopthalmos, protrusion of nicitating membrane, sweating |
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Term
What are causes of viral encephalomyelitis? |
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Definition
Alpha: EEE, WEE, VEE; Flavi: WNV |
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Term
Can horses transmit viral encephalitis to humans? |
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Definition
Only VEE because horses develop a high viremia |
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Term
What are clinical signs of VEE, WEE, EEE? |
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Definition
Early: fever, anorexia, stiffness Later: hyperestesia, aggression, continious chewing, frantic bx Advanced: head pressing, circling, compulsive walking |
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Term
How is viral encephalitis transmitted? Main host? |
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Definition
Carried by birds, main host: mosquitoes |
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Term
What is the clinical course of rabies in horses? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Clostridium tetani; HIGH mortality |
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Term
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Definition
Sarcocystis neurona, carried by birds/oppossums |
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Term
What kind of lesions does EPM cause? |
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Definition
focal, multifocal, or diffuse, asymmetric, nonsuppurative inflammatory lesions |
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Term
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Definition
Western blot ELISA (80% of healthy horses have titers) use with CS |
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Term
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Definition
PONAZURIL, TMS + PYRIMETHAMINE, NITAZOXANIDE |
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Term
What are metabolic causes of CNS signs? |
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Definition
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Term
What are toxic causes of CNS disease in horses? |
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Definition
leukoencephalomalacia, nigropalidal encephalomalacia, Pb posioning |
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Term
What are degenerative causes of CNS signs? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the typical signalment of CVM? |
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Definition
TB 6m-3yrs, rapidly growing animals |
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Term
What are clinical signs of CVM? |
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Definition
ataxia/spasticity/weakness in all 4 but > in rear |
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Term
Recurrent equine rabdomyolysis aka: |
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Definition
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Term
What is the etiology of RER? |
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Definition
racing TB, 3-4 yo filly, >10# grain (carb)/day |
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Term
What are clinical signs of RER? |
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Definition
mild-severe cramping of hindquarters, pain, myoglobinuria |
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Term
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Definition
caffine or halothane contracture test |
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Term
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Definition
IV fluids, muscle relaxants, sedation, analgesia, minimize stress, reduced CHO diet (increase calories from fat), DANTROLENE |
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Term
What is the typical signalment of HyPP? |
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Definition
(Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis); QH, Paint, Appaloosa--Impressive gene |
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Term
Hypp is an autosomal ___ trait, a point mutation located on___________. |
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Definition
dominant, skeletal mm Na channels |
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Term
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Definition
mm faciculations, myotonia, yawning, prolapsed 3rd eyelid, dog-sit stance |
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Term
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Definition
genetic testing: mane, hair K+, >5 during episodes |
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Term
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Definition
Immediate: Dextrose, Ca gluconate slow IV, Na bicarb Longterm: low K diets (no alfalfa or molasses), small frequent meals, avoid stalling, min stress ACETAZOLAMIDE (K losing diuretic) |
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Term
What is PSSM? Who gets it? |
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Definition
polysaccharide storage myopathy QH, paint, appaloosa |
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Term
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Definition
sore muscles, especially after 20 minutes of exercise |
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Term
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Definition
point mutation of glycogen synthase enzyme-->accumulation of abnormal polysaccharide in skeletal m-->higher glycogen content |
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Term
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Definition
Bx: abnormal polysaccharide genetic test: hair |
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Term
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Definition
regular exercise, diet (low glycemic index, increase calories from fat) |
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Term
Most common heart defect? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Clinical signs of atrial fibrillation? |
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Definition
history of exercise intolerance, epistaxis post exercise, common and NOT always symptomatic |
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Term
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Definition
Quinadine, if high HR use Digoxin |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What AB shouldn't be used in horses? |
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Definition
clindamycin, lincomycin, macrolides (careful) |
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Term
Treating navicular disease? |
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Definition
egg bar shoe, want to raise the heel, PDN nerve block |
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Term
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Definition
heart bar shoe, NO corticosteriods |
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Term
Number 1 cause of anestrus during breeding in the mare? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you treat a persistant CL? |
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Definition
PGF2alpha (Luteolyse) or Fluprostenol (Equimate) |
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Term
Most common cause of non-infectious abortion in the mare? |
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Definition
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Term
90% of lameness are located in: |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
heel block (palmar digital nerve block)-navicular dz pastern block (foot block, abaxial sesamoid nerve block)-acute laminitis fetlock block (low 4 pt, low palmar) |
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