Glucose ---> G6P requires what enzyme?

While G6P ---> glucose requires what?

glucokinase/hexokinase

G-6-phosphatase

F6P ---> F 1,6 BP needs what enzyme?

F 1,6 BP ---> F6P needs what?

Phosphofructokinase-1

Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase

F 1,6 BP ---> DHAP + Glyceraldehyde 3P needs what enzyme?

DHAP <---> Glyceraldehyde 3P needs what?

Aldolase

triose phosph. isomerase

glucose ---> G6P

F6P ---> F1,6 BP

(pyruvate ---> oxaloacetate is ATP + CO2 -> ADP)

1,3 BPG ---> 3 PG

PEP ---> Pyruvate

Glyceraldehyde 3P ---> 1,3 BPG

in gluconeogenesis, where is NAD+ ---> NADH?

where is NADH ---> NAD+?

malate to oxaloacetate outside of the mitochondria

oxaloacetate to malate inside the mitochondria

Oxidative Phosphorylation:

Complex 1

Complex 2

Complex 3

Complex 4

1 - NADH --> NAD+

NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase

2 - Succinate --> Fumurate

Succinate-ubiquinone oxidoreductase

3 - Ubiquinol --> cytochrome C oxidoreductase

4 - Cytochrome C oxidase

glucose --> G6P ---(ATP and NADH produced)---> pyruvate --> lactate

in muscles and liver (where ATP and NADH is needed) is known as?

in HMP shunt, what uses epimerase?

what uses isomerase?

Ribulose 5 phosphate ---> Xylulose 5 phosphate

Ribulose 5 phosphate ---> Ribose 5 phosphate

GAP <---> Sedoheptulase

F6P <---> Erythose 4 phosphate

F6P <---> GAP

transketolase

transaldolase

transketolase

Phase 1 of HMP Shunt

Phase 2

oxidative with isomerase and epimerase

nonoxidative with transketolase and transaldolase

what conversion uses succinate dehydrogenase?

and what conversion uses succinyl CoA synthetase?

Succinate to fumurate

succinyl CoA to succinate

what results from a deficiency in glucose 6 phosphatase? 

what are some symptoms?

Von Gierke (type 1) glycogen storage disease (most common)

hypoglycemia

lactic acidosis

hyperuricemia

hypertriglyceridemia

hepatomegaly

stunted growth

Type 2 Pompe glycogen storage disease

symptoms: cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly

McArdle's Syndrome (Type 5) glycogen storage disease

muscle cramps

myopathy

Hurlers - auto rec

Hunters - x linked rec - gargoylism

(both have mental retardation)

Hurlers syndrome is a deficiency in what?

Hunters is a deficiency in what?

alpha-L-iduronidase -- will cause accumulations of heparin and dermatan sulfate

L-iduronidate sulfatase - also will have accumulations of HS and DS

Phenylalanine

Tryptophan

Tyrosine

Arginine

Histidine

Lysine

Cysteine

Methionine

Aspartate

Glutamate

Alanine

Isoleucine

Glycine

Proline

Valine

Asparagine

Cysteine

Glutamine

Methionine

Serine

Threonine

Alpha - angiotensinogen, HDL

Beta - sex hormone, transferrin, LDL

Gamma - antibodies

(Albumin-in egg whites)

Types of hemoglobin:

HbA

HbC

HbH

HbM

HbS

A - normal

C - chronic anemia

H - Thalassemia

M - Metheglobinemia

S - Sickle Cell anemia

What happens in HbC?

HbM?

HbS?

lysine replaces glutamate

tyrosine replaces histidine

valine replaces glutamate

lecithins need what?

cephalins need?

sphingomyelins need?

lecithins need choline

cephalins need ethanolamine

sphingomyelins need ceramide

HMG - CoA --??--> mevalonate ---> cholesterol

                     ---> acetoacetate ---> Beta hydrobutyrate

arachidonic acid --> ? by 15 Lox

                     --> ? by 5 Lox

lipoxins

leukotrienes

lipid storage diseases

Gauchers

Neimann-Pick

Tay Sachs

Fabrys

what lipid storage disease?

auto recessive

deficiency in B-glucocerebrosidase

hepatomegaly

splenomegaly

skin pigments changes

anemia

deficiency in sphingomyelinase

CNS degeneration

Rapidly fatal

Autorecessive

lipid storage disease

What disease?

deficiency of Hexosaminidase

accumulated gangliosides

cherry red spot on retina

Mental and CNS degeneration

Rapidly fatal

autosomal recessive

Fabry's

(others are autosomal recessive)

deficiency in alpha galactosiderase

accumulated ceramide trihexoside

skin lesions

CV peripheral neuropathy

lipid storage disease

X linked recessive

Michalis Menton equation

cationic charge in molecular structure?

cationic bond cleavage by elimination?

union of 2 molecules?

isomerases

lyases

ligases

galactose --1--> galactose 1 phosphate --2-->

glucose 1 phosphate <--3--> G6P

1. galactokinase

2. galactose 1 phosph. uridyltransferase

3. phosphoglucomutase

how many ATP produced via the malate-aspartate shuttle?

via the glycerol-phosphate shuttle?

38 ATP

36 ATP

Citrulline --(L aspartate joins and ATP to AMP)-->

arginosuccinate --(Fumarate)--> arginine --(H20 to urea)

--> ornithine

Fates of Acetyl CoA

synthesis via: HMG-CoA reductase ?

                  via HMG-CoA lyase ?

              via malonyl CoA ?

cholesterol synthesis

ketone body synthesis

Fatty acid synthesis

Lysine

Serine

Threonine

what levels are elevated with tissue necrosis or MI?

what is elevated with hepatic tissue cirrhosis?

AST - Aspartate amino transferase

ALT - alanine amino transferase

conversion of succinyl CoA ---> succinate

(GTP can be used for protein synthesis)

1-2 years after eruption

all primary teeth root are completed by about age 3-4

central - at 1.5 years

lateral - 1.5 - 2 years

1st molar - 3 - 3.5 years

2nd molar - 3 years

central - 6 mo

lateral - 9 mo

1st molar - 12 mo

canine - 18 mo

2nd molar - 25 mo

mandibular generally erupt before maxillary

central - 6-7 yo

lateral - 7-8 yo

1st molar - 9-12 yo

canine - 9-12 yo

2nd molar - 10-12 yo

1st molar - 6 yo

central - 6 yo

lateral - 7 yo

canine - 10 yo

1st premolar - 10 yo

2nd premolar - 11 yo

2nd molar - 12 yo

3rd molar - 20 yo

after 1st molar, the mandibular teeth erupt in order anterior to posterior

in the maxilla, the canine erupts after both premolars

mandibular teeth erupt before maxillary teeth

1st molar - 6 yo

central - 7 yo

lateral - 8 yo

1st premolar - 10 yo

2nd premolar - 10 yo

canine - 11 yo

2nd molar - 12 yo

3rd molar - 20 yo

mandibular canine and 1st premolar

maxillary 1st and 2nd premolar

(i guess heres an exception... the 2nd premolar of maxillary erupts before mandibular 2nd premolar)

maxillary: IJ, JM, JM, MM, MM, MM, MM, M

mandibular: II, II, IM, MM, MM, MM, MM, M

remember that whatever age in months they are, if you subtract 3, that is typically how many teeth they have erupted. 

ex: if they are 7 mo, they have 4 teeth erupted

11 mo, 8 teeth erupted

23 mo, 20 teeth erupted

Also known as the "Rule of Four"

7, 11, 15, 19, 23 mo // 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 teeth erupted

              maxillary: central: slightly to distal

lateral: centered

canine: centered

      mandibular: central: centered

 lateral: slightly to distal

canine: slightly to distal

maxillary: central - triangular

lateral - round/oval

canine - oval

1st and 2nd premolar - kidney shaped

molars - obtuse/rhomboidal

central - oval

lateral - oval

canine - oval

1st and 2nd premolars - oval/rectangular

molars - kidney shaped

PLP - pyridoxal phosphate, which is the active form of vitamin B6

made up of pyridoxal, pyridoxamine, pyridoxine

lateral ligament (closest to the joint)

sphenomandibular ligament

stylomandibular ligament

geniohyoid

digastric

mylohyoid

(elevation by the medial pterygoid, masseter, and temporalis)

1. a condition where tiny salivary stones form in the glands

2. painful infection of the salivary gland

3. viruses that can cause enlargement of the salivary glands

4. painless enlargement of the salivary gland without a known cause (usually affects parotid)

1. Sialolithiasis

2. Sialadenitis - caused by staph, streptococcus, H. influenza

3. mumps, flu, Coxsackie, CMV, echovirus

4. Sialadenosis

1. most common parotid tumor

painless lump at the back of the jaw

more common in women

2. 2nd most common benign tumor of the parotid gland

more common in men

1. Pleomorphic adenoma

(benign can grow in submandibular, but less often than in parotid)

2. Warthin's tumor

of the brachial plexus, what nerves are....

1. extensors of arm and forearm

2. arm flexors

3. forearm flexors

1. radial nerve

2. musculocutaneous nerve

3. median nerve

brachial plexus: what comes from C5-T1?

what branches does it give off?

posterior cord - Radial nerve

gives off upper and lower subscapular, thoracodorsal, axillary nerves

roots, trunks, divisions, cords, branches

(randy travis drinks cold beer)

lateral cord - gives off musculocutaneous nerve

(also gives off portion to go to form median nerve)

medial cord: ulnar nerve

(gives off branches to medial cutaneous nerves of the arm and forearm, as well as part of the median nerve)

1. what 2 nerves come from roots of the brachial plexus?

2. lateral + medial cord = ?

1. dorsal scapular nerve

long thoracic nerve

2. median nerve

Aortic hiatus opens the diaphragm at what vertebral level?

and consists of what structures passing through?

T12

aorta, thoracic duct, azygous, and hemiazygous veins

1. caval opening of the diaphragm is at what level?

2. what level is esophageal opening?

1. T8

2. T10

fetal ligament remnants:

fossa ovale becomes?

ductus arteriosus becomes?

umbilical vein becomes?

unbilical arteries become?

foramen ovale becomes fossa ovalis

ductus venosus becomes ligamentum venosum

umbilical vein becomes ligamentum teres

ductus arteriosus becomes ligamentum arteriosus

umbilical arteries becomes superior vesicular arteries (males - arteries to the ductus deferens)

keratinization:

gingival and hard palate?

vermillion border of lip and dorsum of tongue?

rest?

tissue type?

gingival and hard palate are parakeratinized- thin submucosa

vermillion border of lip and dorsum of tongue are keratinized - thick submucosa

the rest is nonkeratinized

all is stratified squamous

1. dentogingival - extend toward the crest of gingiva, laterally, and outward, and downward along the alveolar bone

2. circular - they don't contact the tooth

3. transseptal - spans interproximal tissue between adjacent teeth (consists of semicircular and transgingival)

transseptal

alveolar crest

horizontal

oblique (most numerous)

apical

interradicular - only between multirooted teeth

what are the differential lines of enamel called?

lines of cementum?

striae of Retzius

resting lines

peritubular dentin is hypermineralized

intertubular dentin is hypomineralized

hypomineralized ribbon like structures that run longitudinally and extend from the DEJ to about 1/5 or 1/3 into the enamel

likely found in the molars

short linear defects from the DEJ into the enamel. more prevalent in cusp tips. 

basically these are odontoblasts that extend into the enamel

3 other names for alveolar bone proper.

what is it?

bundle bone

lamina dura

cribriform plate

it is corticol bone surrounding teeth and into which PDL fibers are embedded. cancellous bone fills area between cortical plates and makes up majority of the alveolar bone

innervation of the Tensor veli palatini?

tensor typani?

levator veli palatini?

TVP - V3

TT -V3

LVP - X

internal laryngeal nerve

(branch of the superior laryngeal)

Trigeminal

Maxillary artery

MAMTT

Muscles of Mast, Ant Digastric, Mylohyoid, Tensor Tympani, Tensor Veli Palatini

Malleus, Incus, Sphenomandibular ligament, Meckel;s cartilage

Hyoid artery

Stapedial artery

Facial nerve

Muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, post. belly of digastric

internal carotid artery

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Stylopharyngeus muscle

greater cornu of hyoid

Right subclvian artery and aorta

Vagus nerve

pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles

Pharyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

1. middle ear auditory tube

2. supratonsillar fossa

3. thymus, inferior parathyroid gland

4. supraparathyroid gland

(2, 3, 4 - cervical sinus)

leucine

lysine

isoleucine

phenylalanine

tryptophan

tyrosine

which AA's are glucogenic and yield pyruvate?

arginine                                threonine

aspratate                              valine

asparagine

alanine

cysteine

histidine

methionine

glycine

glutamate

glutamine

proline

serine

collagen synthesis takes place where?

collagen is glycosylated where?

tropocollagen occurs where?

in the rER

Golgi

in extracellular matrix

diet and plasma membrane --??--> Arachidonic acid

arachidonic acid --??--> lipoxins

arachidonic acid --??--> leukotrienes

arachidonic acid --??--> prostaglandins

prostaglandins --??--> prostacyclins

prostaglandins --??--> thromboxanes

PLA-2

15-LOX

5-LOX

COX

PGI-2

TXA-2

Corticosteroids block PLA-2; NSAIDS block COX

Glucose 1 phosphate --??--> glycogen

glycogen --??--> glucose 1 phosphate

glycogen synthase + insulin (glycogen formation and cell glucose uptake)

glycogen phosphorylase + glucagon and epi (stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; glycogen breakdown)

Arginine reacts with water and produces ornithine and urea

excess nitrogen is carried on with urea

carbomyl phosphate is RLS

converts xanthine to uric acid

plays an important role in purines and gout

collecting duct

Loop of Henle

what causes caries?

what is then present within caries that typically further generates the cavity?

s. mutans

lactobacillis

cavities

class 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

class 1 - occlusal of posteriors

class 2 - occlusal and proximal of posteriors

class 3 - proximal of anteriors

class 4 - incisal and proximal of anteriors

class 5 - cervical

delayed hypersensitivity

contact dermatitis

DM type 1

MS

RA

Crohns

peripheral neuropathy

myasthenia gravis

anemia

purpura

pemphigus vulgaris

rheumatic fever

goodpastures syndrome

grave's disease

SLE

serum sickness

polyarteritis nodosa

post-strep glomerulonephritis

reactive arthritis

brachiocephalic

left side - both go straight into aorta and no brachiocephalic

recurring progressive thromboangitis obliterans

blocking of blood vessels in hands and feet

dry heat

but sterilization is most effective for heat sensitive materials (ethylene oxide - main sterilization technique)

rheumatic fever

infective endocarditis (UV drug users)

ADH is synthesized in what part of the hypothalamus?

where in the hypothalamus is oxytocin synthesized?

supraoptic nuclei

paraventricular nuclei

disturbed sense of taste?

lack of taste?

diminished acuteness of taste?

dysgeusia

ageusia

hypogeusia

lateral shift of working side aka immediate side shift.

influenced by how far working condyle moves laterally

overjet

increases anterior disclusion

MEN SCAR CAP:     melanoblast of skin

enamel of teeth

neurilemma (schwann cells)

spinal nerves - DRG

CN 5, 7, 9, 10

Autonomic ganglion (symp and para)

retina cell ganglion layer

chromaffin cells of suprarenal medulla

arachnoid

pia mater

at synapses within the ganglia, preganglionic releases what?

activates what on postganglionic neurons?

releases what on peripheral tissues?

ACh

activates nicontinic receptors

epinephrine

2 point discrimination on skin

encapsulated and unmyelinated

pressure, vibration, subcutaneous

can detect surface (rough or smooth)

encapsulated

stretch; in dermis of hairy skin

unmyelinated and excapsulated

can act as a monitor for slippage along the surface of skin

pain, touch, pressure, tickle, temperature

no myelin

nonencapsulated

most common type

rapidly adapting

ex: in dental pulp, skin

touch, pressure

on hairless skin -- fingertips

provide touch receptors to the brain

slowly adapting

unmyelinated nerve membrane where depolarization occurs describes?

jump from one to another and continue to spread action potential during nerve transmission

carotid body is innervated by what nerve?

aortic body is innervated by what nerve?

carotid body (afferent) - IX

aortic body (efferent) - X

secretin is secreted where?

Brunners glands are in where?

Peyers patches are in?

duodenum

duodenum

ileum

FLAT

FSH

LH

ACTH

TSH

GPA - acidophils - GH, Prolactin

PTH adenoma

multiple endocrine neoplasia

von Reckinghausen disease

bone resorption

nephrolithiasis

bone pain

DiGeorge's syndrome

Hemochromatosis

thyroidectomy

increase Ca in bone

increase phosphate in plasma

impetigo is a skin infection caused by what?

also causes TSS, scarlet fever, pharyngitis, rheumatic fever

s. pyrogenes

causes suppuration

live attenuated vaccine (active immunity)

- stimulates IgA, IgG, and T cell responses

immune globulin vaccine - passive immunity

fast onset, short life span

coagulative

examples: MI and gangrene

liquefactive

examples: focal bacterial infections, acute pancreatitis

caseous

example: TB

renal clearance=?

what are the 2 best things to use to estimate GFR?

renal clearance = urine conc x urine flow rate

                       plasma conc

use CR or inulin clearance to estimate GFR (bc they are not freely filtered by the glomerulus)

A fiber - consists of alpha, beta, gamma, delta

B fiber

C fiber

C fiber

A and B fibers are!

which nerve fibers are the largest?

which are the smallest?

alpha fibers of the A group

C fibers

which nerve fiber functions in dull pain, temperature, and postganglionic autonomic?

which nerve fiber is associated with preganglionic autonomics?

C fibers

B fibers

which nerve fiber functions in proprioception and motor?

which are sensory and involved in touch and pressure?

which are associated with muscle spindles?

which are associated with sharp pain, temperature, and touch?

alpha of A fibers (1a, 1b, golgi tendon organs, innervate extrafusal fibers)

beta of A fibers

gamma of A fibers (nuclear bag and nuclear chain fibers, innervate intrafusal fibers)

delta of A fibers

what muscles abduct the vocal cords?

which muscle is innervated by a nerve different from the rest?

posterior and lateral cricoarytenoid

cricothyroid is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve, which the others are innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve.

which muscle relaxes the vocal cords?

which muscles close the rima glottides?

which muscle stretch and tenses vocal cords?

which muscle acts in antagonism to cricothyroid, tenses the anterior vocal ligament and relaxes the posterior ligament?

thyroarytenoid

transverse and oblique arytenoid

cricothyroid

vocalis

accessory nerve

cervical spinal - C3 and C4

which infrahyoid muscle is innervated by C1 via XII?

which is innervated by the superior root of ansa cervicalis?

thyrohyoid

superior belly of omohyoid

(sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and inferior belly of omohyoid are innervated by ansa cervicalis)

which suprahyoid muscles are innervated by V3?

which suprahyoid muscles are innervated by VII?

which suprahyoid muscle is innervated by deep portion of C1?

mylohyoid and anterior belly of digastric

stylohyoid and posterior belly of digastric

geniohyoid

enamel defects:

abnormal thickness or pitting, normal hardness, but defected enamel matrix?

normal thickness, soft and chalky and defect in mineralization?

normal thickness, abnormal hardness, defect in maturation?

hypoplastic

hypocalcified

hypomaturation

Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles Living In Sin

phrenic, celiac, superior mesenteric, suprarenal, renal, testicular, lumbars, inferior mesenteric, sacral, then common iliac

autosomal dominant

familiar colorectal polyps

numerous polyps along the intestine

osteoma soft tissue tumor

high risk of colon cancer

IX for sensory

X for motor

thenar eminence atrophy is by a defect in what nerve?

hypothenar?

median nerve

ulnar nerve

t-tubules

they extend from outer surface of muscle fibers to SR of 2 adjacent

glucokinase works in the liver

hexokinase is allosterically inhibited

glucokinase has a high Km and Vmax

endothelial injury

stasis

hypercoagulability

what is the immediate precursor for ammonia?

arginosuccinate lyase will yield what?

glutamate

fumarate and arginine

cricoid membrane

but dont use pure O2 bc it can cause severe depression of ventilation??

destruction of elastic tissues in alveolar walls

decreased elastic recoil, traction, functioning parenchyma, and surface area

appear barrell chest on x-ray

pink puffers

residual volume decreases FEV1/FVC

temporomandibular ligament

aka lateral ligament

coxsackie virus

((random... but also associate blastofetalis with autoimmune??))

yeast (fungi) from Tromellomycetes

replicates by budding

cause lung infections

often in pigeon excretion

encapsulated

(meissners corpuscles)

bacterial - chlamydia

viral - herpes simplex, adenovirus

parasitic - trichomonas vaginalis (rare)

noninfectious - catheter

lymphocytes, which have macrophages, dendritic cells, histocytes, kupfer cells, neutrophils

present: plasma cells and leukocytes

macrophages mark change from acute to chronic inflammation

TG (storage)

LDL

HDL

passive congestion is the slowing of blood and accumulations in an organ.

T/F: peripheral edema and pulmonary edema will not cause passive congestion

left gastric

splenic

common hepatic

urea, creatinine, K, Na, Cl

not uric acid?

helps regulate water absorption

ascending limb - impermeable to water

descending limb is impermeable to ions

protein kinase

when hungry: glycogen/epi activate adeylate cyclase which ATP-->cAMP. cAMP will activate protein kinase which will phosphorylate glycogen synthase.

(in this case, phos will deactivate glycogen synthase and dec glycogen synthesis)

what enables the transfer of glucose?

ex: glycogen synthase, glycogen phosphorylase

and needed to form dextran (used in glycogen synthesis to initiate branch chains)

increase in CO2 and respiratory acidosis

decrease in pH 

pharyngeal tonsils also called? where are they located?

palatine tonsils are located where?

adenoids and located roof of pharynx

palatine tonsils are located in the oropharynx and found between the palatopharyngeus and the palatoglossus

subligual caruncle

subligual tumor

between the hyoglossus and genioglossus

(lingual nerve is medial to the hyoglossus)

associate parasympathetics with salivatory nuclus ?

what is most likely to cause hemetamesis?

fatalis optomotris?

bond between tRNA and anticodon?

from gonorrhea?

hydrogen

destruction of the immune cells of exocrine glands that produce saliva; become fibrotic and atrophy causing decreased salivation and rampant caries.

triad of xerostomia, keratoconjuctivitis sicca, and other autoimmune disorders like RA or SLE

endochondral

the rest of the head and face is pretty much by intraosseous

by the 1st branchial arch

will form anterior 2/3s of tongue served by mandibular nerve

glands that are serous and mucus secreting (mixed) 

example: submandibular gland

reticular tissue such as bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes

adipose and areolar tissue

(dense fibrous tissue consist of: dermis of the skin and tissue in tendons)

facial nerve

stylomastoid artery

as subclavian vein crosses the 1st rib, it passes anterior or posterior to the anterior scalene muscles?

subclavian artery along with the brachial plexus?

anterior

posterior (b/w anterior and middle scalenes)

mesencephalic nucleus - concerned with proprioception

principle nucleus

spinal nucleus - pain and temperature

optic nerve

opthalmic artery

lamellae are basically cracks

enamel spindles are formed by odontoblastic processes that project into the enamel

obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct affects what ventricles?

obstruction of foramen Megendie?

obstruction in foramen lushka?

obstruction of the interventricular foramen?

3rd ventricle

lateral ventricles

4th ventricle, as well as the other 3

in 4th ventricle, will cause enlargement of the entire ventricular system

will cause enlargement of the lateral ventricles

small, painless, raised, pale on scrotum, penis, or on various sites in the oral cavity.

considered a developmental anomaly

form of ectopic sebaceous gland

dental papilla produces?

dental sac/follicle produces?

enamel organ?

pulp and dentin

PDL and cementum

enamel

gingiva contains collagenous fibers only

alveolar contains collagenous and elastin fibers

connective tissue papilla extend into gingiva to a much greater degree than alveolar mucosa

rete pegs are more prominent in gingiva than alveolar mucosa

"motor strip"

voluntary motor movements take place

precentral gyrus

post central gyrus - sensory

angular - language

temporal - hearing

paracentral - movement of the lower extremity

multinuclear

mononuclear - mast cells

polymorphonuclear - neutrophils

hyaline cartilage grows how?

bone grows how?

interstitually

apositionally

extensions of ameloblast cytoplasm into the enamel matrix.

forms at the apical end of the ameloblast and contain secretory granules with the glycoprotein matrix of the enamel

involved in enamel matrix secretion

keratin is found in the most superficial layer stratum corneum

stratum spinosum lacks much tissue fluid

capillaries remain in the epithelial layer in the CT layer

in lymph nodes

spleen filters blood not lymph

palatine and pharyngeal tonsils secrete IgA but dont have incoming lymph channels

thymus producse lymph but doesnt have any incoming channels

rotation of the head occurs via what joint?

saying yes involves what joint?

atlanto-axial joint

atlanto-occipital joint

central (upper motor neuron) lesion would result in what kind of paralysis?

peripheral (lower motor neuron) lesions of VII will cause?

contralateral paralysis of only the lower facial muscles

ipsilateral faccid paralysis of the facial musculature

what is bile secreted by?

what are kupfer cells?

the hepatocytes in the liver

phagocytic cells of the liver

striated cells of salivary glands ducts are what type of epithelium?

acinar cells are?

simple columnar cells

simple cuboidal

they are exocrine

endocrine secretes directly into circulation

primate space in mandible of primary dentition is usually found where?

in max?

between the canine and first molar (or canine and 1st premolar in adult)

in max - usually between lateral incisor and canine

calcification of 6 year molars

also the first permanent tooth to begins its calcification

second molar begins to calcify around 2-3 years

3rd molar around 7-8 years

canines calcify before 1st premolars and 1st premolars are before 2nd premolars

random facts: PDL does not participate in epithelial attachment

when viewed proximally, max canine appears almost vertical

intercuspal position on Posselts envelope of motion is the most superior point (3)

lowest point is the position of maximum opening (8)

most anterior point is the maximum protruded position

most posterior point is the retruded contact position (4)

mandibular 1st molar

triangular ridges of the MB and ML join to form a transverse ridge whch separates teh mesial fossa from the rest of the occlusal table

even more distinctly pronounced on the primary mandibular first molar

max 1st premolar - mesial

distal of 1st molar