Term
A health condition that involves the Nervous System |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
“disease of the brain” generally in its entirety (both cerebral hemispheres). i.e., metabolic encephalopathy
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
“disease of the spinal cord” i.e, compressive myelopathy (tumor, disc, etc causing weakness, sensory loss, spasticity below the level of compression)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
: “disease of the nerve root(s)” i.e., any process affecting a single or multiple nerve roots at cervical, thoracic or lumbar or sacral level
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
“disease of a nerve” (one is mononeuropathy or neuropathy, several individual is mononeuropathy multiplex, and many/diffuse is polyneuropathy peripheral nerves. Dysfunction of a single cranial nerve = cranial mononeuropathy)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
“primary disease of muscle”
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________: Implies a group of mental processes that includes attention, memory, learning, reasoning, problem solving,, decision making (processing, applying knowledge and adjusting).
Is generally bi-hemispheric in nature
Critical task it to separate
reversible from irreversible
causes
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are mental status changes? |
|
Definition
altered content of consciousness or level of consciousness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
muscle weakness but not complete paralysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dealing with brachial/lumbosacral plexus |
|
|
Term
If the pt has weakness where are you thinking there may be damage? |
|
Definition
Precentral gyrus or corticospinal tract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where will thalmis lesions cause numbness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would cortical lesions cause parasthesias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CHARACTERIZED BY DIFFICULY WITH INITIATION OF GAIT (FEET “GLUED TO THE FLOOR”)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
BASAL GANGLION DYSFUNCTION (PARKINSON DISEASE); GAIT IS CHARACTERISTICALLY SLOW, SHUFFLING, FLEXED POSTURE, BRADYKINETIC… TURNING 180 DEGREES TAKES EXTRA STEPS.
FESTINATION (CAN’T STOP FORWARD PROGRESS ONCE ENGAGED |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WIDE-BASED UNSTEADY GAIT (LOOKS LIKE A PERSON ENEBRIATED)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HEMIPARETIC GAIT (STIFF, CIRCUMDUCTION, OVEREXTENDED LEG)
|
|
Definition
UNILATATERAL CORTICOSPINAL TRACT DISEASE |
|
|
Term
(Ex:MYELOPATHY); both legs stiff, spastic gait, sometimes with scissoring motion of each leg around the other
|
|
Definition
Bilateral corticospinal tract disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
walk around without looking and if u fall u have a positive romberg sign |
|
|
Term
A 50 year old man presents to your emergency room with a 6 day history of numbness and tingling from his mid chest area down both legs. When he flexes his neck forward he perceives an electrical shock like sensation down his back and into his arms.
Exam shows mild weakness in both legs generally (4.5/5) and decreased sensation to pinprick below his nipples, and in his lower chest, abdomen and legs. Reflexes are brisk in his legs , and planter responses are extencasorbilaterally.
Which of the following best describes his clinical syndrome?
A.Encephalopathy
B.Myelopathy
C.Radiculopathy
D.Neuropathy
E.Myopathy
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 76 year old woman, with 6 year history of diabetes mellitus comes to your clinic because of severe pain.
The pain is sharp and burning, begins in her medial scapular region, radiates around her trunk to beneath her right breast.
The pain is not exacerbated with breathing, but is uncomfortable, in this area, to touch
She takes oral hypoglycemic medication. She has seen several specialists, including a cardiologist and gastroenterologist, but no diagnosis was forthcoming.
On your examination, her general examination is unremarkable, and there is no skin rash.
Neurologic exam is normal except for severe discomfort to touch under her right breast and below her right scapula (about 2-3 cm. in height from mid thoracic spine posteriorly to the lower sternum anteriorly.
What best describes the localization of her pain syndrome?
A.Encephalopathy
B.Myelopathy
C.Radiculopathy
D.Neuropathy
E.Plexopathy
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Gerstmann Syndrome? what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
Left posterior hemispheric lesion
R-L confusion
Inability to recognize fingers
Agraphia (inability to write)
Acalculia (Inability to write) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Olfaction
test each nostril for smell fragrance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Optic nerve
Check visual fields and acuity. fundoscopic exam |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Asymmetric pupils
Anisocoriaindicates a lesion in the efferent fibers (away from the brain) supplying the pupillary sphincter muscles.
can indicate problem with CN III
|
|
|
Term
How do you tell which pupil has the problem when they are asymetric? |
|
Definition
The smaller pupil is abnormal when the degree of anisocoria is greatest in darkened settings, while the larger pupil is abnormal when the degree of anisocoria is greatest in bright light.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
droopy eyelid (ptosis) plus constriction of pupil of eye; SMALL pupil is the abnormal one and due to lesion of Sympathetic tract
|
|
|
Term
What nerves does the pupillary light reflex test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An eye movement abnormality in which the two eyes move conjugatelybut have limited movement in one direction is called a _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
neurons are not activated by voluntary or reflexes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
voluntary gaze is impaired but reflexes can still activate neurons. |
|
|
Term
_______ lesion is manifest by impaired adduction on affected side, accompanied by nystagmus in the other, abducting eye. one eye cant look one way.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
test facial sensation by touching with cotton. 3 branches, ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
also involved in the muscles of mastication |
|
|
Term
What does cranial nerve VII do? |
|
Definition
controls fascial muscles and taste of tongue |
|
|
Term
________: a peripheral weakness or paralysis of one side of the face causing a facial droop; drooling, eye issues with tearing (excessive, dry eye); loss of taste, pain behind ear, increase sensitivity to sound
A facial nerve (Cr N VII) lesion
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does cranial nerve VIII do? |
|
Definition
Vestibular nerve
hearing, balance |
|
|
Term
Unilateral weakness of muscles of the palate, pharynx, or larynx indicates a _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ can result from any condition that damages motor control of the structures necessary for speech production, including cerebellar or basal ganglia disorders, and the specific characteristics of the ______ may be useful in localization and differential diagnosis.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
head rotation or shoulder elevation |
|
|
Term
What is tongue weakness a sign of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
= weakness of BOTH LOWER extremities
|
|
|
Term
DTR’s _______ in Central nervous system (CNS) lesions
DTR’s _______ or absent in Peripheral Nervous System
Options: increase or decrease
DTR= deep tendon reflex
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Often distal weakness suggests a disease of _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ maneuver is distracting patient in order to achieve relaxation and better facilitate the reaction
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the main causes of status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
Medication or drug withdrawl or stroke. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
PATIENT WITH HEAD TRAUMA PLUS HEADACHE OR ALTERED MENTAL STATUS OR FOCAL FINDING ON EXAM
what do u do?
|
|
Definition
order enhanced CT followed by frequent neurological evaluations. |
|
|
Term
Chronic Alcohol Abuse Patients with Poor Nutritional Intake; need to give __1___. They will present with :
1. Apathetic – confused state
2. Ophthalmoplegia (eye paralysis); or Nystagmus
3. Gait ataxia
This triad of symptoms is known as ___2____
|
|
Definition
Thiamine
Wernicke's encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When myesthenia gravis causes muscle weakness that interferes with vital functions like breathing and swallowing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Rapidly progressive demyelinating polyneuropathy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Image of the ventricular system within the brain by draining the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) out of the subarachnoid space by Lumbar Puncture, and replacing it with air |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CONTRAST MATERIAL INJECTED INTO THE SPINAL SUBARACHNOID CANAL |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
direct injection of contrast
material into the carotid artery |
|
|
Term
What does PET scan measure? |
|
Definition
glucose metabolism at the cellular level. |
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the Broca speech area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the lower limb sensorimotor cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the visual cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the posterior limb of internal capsule? |
|
Definition
Medial cerebral artery and ventral part of anterior choroidal |
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the dorsolateral part of rostral medulla? |
|
Definition
ventral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery |
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the anterior and lateral funiculi of spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does the brain use so much energy? |
|
Definition
maintaining ionic gradients |
|
|
Term
What is the normal blood glucose range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ signals to store glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ signals to use glucose. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does glucose enter cells? |
|
Definition
GLUTs that allow for facilitated difussion. |
|
|
Term
An enzyme with a high Km has a ____ affinity for the substrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An enzyme with a low Km has a ____ affinity for the substrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tissue type in GLUT2 seen in and what is its Km? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tissue type in GLUT1 seen in and what is its Km? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tissue type in GLUT4 seen in and what is its Km? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tissue type in GLUT3 seen in and what is its Km? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
GLUT_ is regulated by insulin |
|
Definition
4, since it is in muscle and fat cells |
|
|
Term
_____ can replace 75% of glucose in the brain during starvation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ketone bodies are produced from _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) fat can be converted to glucose? |
|
Definition
F. Fat is turned into ketone bodies to run metabolism. |
|
|
Term
What organ turns Acetyl-CoA into ketone bodies? Why not send the Acetyl-CoA to the brain? |
|
Definition
Liver. Too big to get through BBB. |
|
|
Term
Venous sinuses all drain into ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is a division of the autonomic nervous system that controls gastrointestinal motility and secretions. Functions independently of CNS usually. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parasympathetic NS has a ____ preganglionic and a ____ postganlionic neuron
choices :Long or short |
|
Definition
The parasympathetic NS has a long preganglionic and a short postganlionic neuron
|
|
|
Term
The sympathetic NS has a ____ preganglionic and a ____ postganlionic neuron
choices :Long or short |
|
Definition
The parasympathetic NS has a short preganglionic and a long postganlionic neuron
|
|
|
Term
in parasympathetic NS what is the neurotransmitter used in the preganglionic and postganglionic synapses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in sympathetic NS what is the neurotransmitter used in the preganglionic and postganglionic synapses. |
|
Definition
Acetylcholine neurotransmiFer at preganglionic synapse, norepinephrine at postganglionic synapse because its faster |
|
|
Term
What are splanchnic nerves? |
|
Definition
nerves that innervate organs. most but not all are sympathetic. |
|
|
Term
what are the only splanchnic nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lower motor cellbodies for the head and neck are located in the ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lower motor cellbodies for the body are located within the ______ |
|
Definition
ventral horn of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
What enzyme takes choline + acetyl-CoA-> Acetylcholine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the formation of acetylcholine powered? |
|
Definition
The thioester bond in Acetyl-CoA is broken giving off energy. |
|
|
Term
Deficiency of choline interferes with lipid processing and leads to _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
90% of the bodies serotonic is found in the ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzymes makes seratonin? What is the building block? |
|
Definition
Tryptophan hydroxylase (Adds OH) and 5-hydroxytryptophan decarboxylase (Removes CO2)
Tryptophan |
|
|
Term
What type of synapse is this?
Gap junctions
Fast bidirectional
group control
Channels are large and unselective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are vessicles made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when a synapsin is non-phosphorylated? |
|
Definition
the synapsins bind the vessicles to actin filaments keeping them in the cytosol. |
|
|
Term
What happens when a synapsin is phosphorylated? |
|
Definition
the synapsins release vessicles allowing them to move into the active zone and be released. |
|
|
Term
What causes synapsins to be phosphorylated? |
|
Definition
Ca entry into presynaptic cell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
help the vessicles target the docking sites. |
|
|
Term
What is the SNARE complex used for? |
|
Definition
docking and priming of the vessicles |
|
|
Term
_____ and ______ are used to dock the vessicle to the presynaptic membrane. |
|
Definition
Synaptobrevin (VAMP) , SNAP-25 and syntaxin |
|
|
Term
_____ is required for exoxytosis of synaptic vesicles. Elimination of this will prevent vesicle fusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clostridial neurotoxins cleave _____ proteins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tetanus targets and cleaves _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Botulimum toxin A cleaves ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Botulimum toxin B cleaves ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Botulimum toxin C cleaves ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A spider toxin that generates massive vesicle depletion and transmitter release by binding to neurexin, which is a similar to syntaxin. vessicles get stuck and it depletes the terminal. |
|
|
Term
The binding of Ca2+ and ______ triggers the fusion with the terminal membrane and release of the neurotransmitter for fast synaptic transmission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Uptake of glutamate uses _____ exchange |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitters other than gluamate use ______ exchange for uptake. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Seratonin is degraded by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Lambert-Eaton syndrome? |
|
Definition
autoimmune disease where you make antibodies against voltage gated Ca channels in the presynaptic terminals. Neurotransmitter is not released. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
• Ligand-gated: a molecule binds to the receptor and opens the channel that is part of the receptor.
• The neuromuscular junction is the classic example. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
• The receptor is a separate protein from the ion channel.
• The receptor activates a G-protein that will work directly or through an intermediate effector to change the ion channel. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
stimulates (increases) cAMP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits (decreases) cAMP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Signals the release of Ca from the ER that binds to calmodulin and can activate enzymes. |
|
|
Term
Is this Ionotropic or Metabotropic?
– Much slower
– Activate diffusable second messengers
– More widespread action
– Can open or close channels.
– Usually does not lead directly to action potentials
– Modulatory effect on synaptic action |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ionotropic or metabotropic?
– Simpleon/offs witch for opening channels
– Excite or inhibit neuronal firing
– Local action |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of receptors are muscarinic? |
|
Definition
G-protein coupled receptors |
|
|
Term
ACh activates muscarinic receptors to stimulate a G- protein that activates the ____ channel. |
|
Definition
GIRK (G-protein inward rectifier K channel)
Opening this allows K to leave the cell and it hyperpolarizes. Used to slow the heart. |
|
|
Term
What is the formula for calculating membrane length constant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do u calculate the membrane time constant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the membrane time constant? |
|
Definition
Time required to charge the membrane |
|
|
Term
For the best nerve condution you want a __1__length constant and a __2___ time consant.
Choices: big, small |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does myelination affect neurons in terms of :
Rm, Ri, Cm |
|
Definition
Myelination increases the Rm and reduces the Cm. |
|
|
Term
How does thick axons affect neurons in terms of :
Rm, Ri, Cm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cells produce myelin in the periphery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cells produce myelin in the CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is saltatory conduction? |
|
Definition
gaps in myelin where there is lots of Na channels that acts as booster stations. |
|
|
Term
What are the gaps between the myelin called?
These are used in saltatory conduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens in a demyelinating disease to the action potentials? |
|
Definition
K channels get exposed and it allows for the membrane potential to be hyperpolarized. |
|
|
Term
What is the vertical sheet of dura called that separates the hemispheres of the cerebrum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the horizontal sheet of dura separating the cerebrum and the cerebellum called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the path called that connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the path that connects the third ventricle to the fourth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Arachnoid Villi superior sagital sinus |
|
|
Term
What is the major difference between CSF and plasma? |
|
Definition
CSF has less large proteins due to the Blood-CSF barrier. |
|
|
Term
What type of epithelium is the BBB? |
|
Definition
Tight junction endothelium |
|
|
Term
does an epidural hematoma involve a vein or artery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does a subdural hematoma involve an artery or vein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does a subarachnoid hematoma involve an artery or vein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
__ system amino acid transporter moves large neutral AA with branced or ringed side chains through the BBB.
Choices: ASC, A, L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ system moves glycine and other neutral amino acids with short linear or polar side chains through the BBB. Energy dependent, Na+ dependent. Limits glycine within spinal cord and glutamate within brain. Powered by Na+/K+ -ATPase
Choices: ASC, A, L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ASC system is also energy dependent and moves alanine, serine, and cysteine.
Choices: ASC, A, L |
|
Definition
ASC because it moves Alanine, Serine and Cysteine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an increase in volume of brain Issue, blood, CSF or other brain fluids will produce an increase in intracranial pressure because the bony calvarium fixes the total cranial volume. |
|
|
Term
What is vasogenic brain edema? |
|
Definition
• This is caused by increased permeability of brain capillary endothelial cells which leads to increased volume of extracellular fluid.
• More swelling occurs around white maZer than gray maZer because fluid tends to accumulate along fiber tracts which are hydrophobic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
injured neurons, glia, or endothelial cells swell. |
|
|
Term
What is hydrocephalus and what are the 3 ways it is caused? |
|
Definition
increase in volume of thecerebral ventricles.
Oversecretion of CSF
impaired absorption of CSF
obstruction of CSF pathways |
|
|
Term
The dura above the tentorium is innervated by the _____ nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are afferent signals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
folding of neural plate into a closed tube of ectoderm |
|
|
Term
When is the formation of neural plate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when do the neural folds elevate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when is the fusion of neural folds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when does the cranial neuropore close? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when does the caudal neuropore close? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is anencephaly and what causes it? |
|
Definition
failure to develop brain
Results from failure to close anterior neuropore |
|
|
Term
What causes spine bifida? |
|
Definition
incomplete closure of the embryonic neural tube. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
form of spina bifida with protrusion of meninges |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
form of spina bifida with protrusion of meninges and spinal cord |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
form of spina bifida with an open neural tube. |
|
|
Term
Neural tube defects can be prevented with ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regions of the brain does the Diencephalon develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regions of the brain does the Telencephalon develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regions of the brain does the mesencephalon develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regions of the brain does the Metencephalon develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regions of the brain does the Myelencephalon develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
incomplete closure of the choroid fissure. presents as fucked up pupils that are like pear shaped. |
|
|
Term
what is the anterior part of the spinal cord called during development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the posterior part of the spinal cord called during development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What separates the alar and basal plates in the developing spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do the Sulci and Gyru form in the cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The PNS develops from ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are neurocristopathies? |
|
Definition
pathologies arising from tissues derived from neural crest cells. |
|
|
Term
Innervation of the heart is from what spinal nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
results from a failure of neural crest migration
newborn has constipation without physical
obstruction |
|
|
Term
Which type of MRI has a high fat signal and a low water signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of MRI has a low fat signal and a high water signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does a Trans Cranial Ultrasound Doppler (TCD) look at? |
|
Definition
Looks at flow to assess vasculature |
|
|
Term
What do u inject for a MR-angiography? (MRA) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do u inject for a 3-D CT angiogram? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do bacteria that cause meningitis localize? |
|
Definition
Leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia) |
|
|
Term
Where do Polio that cause meningitis localize? |
|
Definition
motor neurons of the spinal cord and bulbar area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflamation of the arachnoid and pia mater |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inflamation of the dura mater. usually from chronic infections like chronic sinusitis or mastoiditis |
|
|
Term
How does acute meningitis look? |
|
Definition
creamy like someone blew their load on the brain. |
|
|
Term
If a neonate has meningitis what bugs do you suspect? |
|
Definition
E. Coli and group B Strept |
|
|
Term
If a infant, 3mo-3yo, has meningitis what bug(s) do you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a adult has meningitis what bug(s) do you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a person living in a tight living space with many other people has meningitis what bug(s) do you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ are the halmark cell of an acute infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do u diagnose meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does it mean if the pt has lymphocytes in their CSF? |
|
Definition
meningitis caused by TB or a fungal infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
TB of the spine. Produces epidural granulomatous mass that frequently causes destruction of spinal cord from compression. |
|
|
Term
Pick one: (Bacterial/viral) meningitis decreases the glucose levels in the CSF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is cryptococcal meningitis? |
|
Definition
oportunistic infection in people with AIDS or a fucked up immune system. Get it from bird shit being inhaled. |
|
|
Term
What labs would u do to test for Cryptococcal meningitis? |
|
Definition
latex cryptococcal agglutination test
encapsulated spheres with a gelatinous capsule that shows a clear halo with
India Ink stain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
motor neurons of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
where does Rabies affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where does herpes simplex affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where does SSPE and PML affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The classic hallmark of viral infections of the CNS is the presence of ______ involving small arteries and arterioles. |
|
Definition
perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
Which is the only virus with inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug(s) has eosinophilic intranucles inclusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What virus(s) has basophilic intranuclear inclusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What virus(s) has basophilic intranuclear inclusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What virus(s) has intranuclear inclusions with a ground glass appearance? Destroys oligodendrocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can u prevent Streptococcus pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do most neonates contract Streptococcus agalactae? |
|
Definition
Contract during vaginal delivery. Women should undergo screening to check. Can be prevented by intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
What diesease causes meningitis with a purplish rash? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does one usually contract Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
Contaminated food, can grow in the fridge. Can also be passed in utero. |
|
|
Term
How does Listeria monocytogenes move around? |
|
Definition
ActA polymerizes actin behind the bacteria pushing it through the cytoplasm and plasma membrane. |
|
|
Term
What should be used as an acute treatment for migraines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of triptan drugs? |
|
Definition
1.Stimulate 5-HT1B receptors causing vasoconstriction
2.Reduce excitability of trigeminal nuclei in the brainstem by stimulating 5-HT1B/1D
3. inhibit inflamation by targeting pre-synaptic 5-HT1D receptors.
AKA:
1. vasoconstriction
2. trigeminal inhibition
3. decreased pain transmission. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of Ergot Alkaloids? |
|
Definition
vasoconstriction
Targets 5-HT alpha-1-adrenergic receptor. |
|
|
Term
Explain the function of a presynaptic autoreceptor |
|
Definition
5-HTR gets stimulated which blocks the release of the neurotransmitter 5-HT
|
|
|
Term
all triptans end in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which triptan has the longest half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which triptan has the fastest onset? |
|
Definition
rizatriptan (oral 1 hr)
sumatriptan (subcutaneous 15 mins) |
|
|
Term
generic triptan is called? |
|
Definition
sumatriptan, only one that can be given subcutaneously as well as oral or nasal |
|
|
Term
What are the adverse side effects of triptans? |
|
Definition
including paresthesias, flushing, and mild, transient neck tightness or chest pressure
|
|
|
Term
When should you not give a triptan? |
|
Definition
vascular condition like arterial vasospasm
HTN
hemiplegic or basilar migraine |
|
|
Term
what drugs to triptans interact with? |
|
Definition
SSRIs, SNRIs
Dont give if they are on a MAO-A inhibitor |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of Ergot Alkaloids? |
|
Definition
nausea vomiting,
MAJOR: arterial vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
How long should u have between giving a triptan and an Ergot alkaloid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs can you not mix Ergot alkaloids with? |
|
Definition
CYP 3A4 inibitors
anything ending in: -vir, -conazole, -romycin |
|
|
Term
What happens if you stimulate the Beta-1 receptor? |
|
Definition
increased heart rate and contraction force |
|
|
Term
What happens if you stimulate the Beta-2 receptor? |
|
Definition
relaxes/dialates the lungs uterus and blood vessels |
|
|
Term
What happens if you stimulate the Beta-3 receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do Beta-1 blockers do? |
|
Definition
Decrease heart rate and contractions |
|
|
Term
What do Beta-2 blockers do? |
|
Definition
constricts lungs and arterial smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
What do u need for a migraine? |
|
Definition
Need 2 of these 3:
Limiting activity, causea, photophobia |
|
|
Term
What does calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP) do? |
|
Definition
induces headaches. Triptans reduces levels of this. |
|
|
Term
What is central sensitization? |
|
Definition
makes it so after one pain the next pain stimulus is easier to trigger and get a headache |
|
|
Term
Which of these is an alpha adrenergic receptor agonist?
Truptans or Ergots |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhibition of neurons causes ______.
Choices: depolarization or hyperpolarization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does glutamate cause inhibition or excitation? |
|
Definition
main excitatory neurotransmitter of the CNS. |
|
|
Term
What uptakes glutamate out of the synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when the NDMA glutamate channel gets stimulated? |
|
Definition
allows Ca2+ to enter the cell. The calcium can make the postsynaptic cell release NO which can make the presynaptic cell change how much it releases. |
|
|
Term
What happens when there is hypercalcemia in the synapse? |
|
Definition
depreased neuromuscular excitability because Ca2+ blocks the voltage gated Na+ channels. |
|
|
Term
What does Ca2+ do to voltage sensitive K+ channels? |
|
Definition
When Ca2+ enters the cell, it opens them allowing K+ to leave. |
|
|
Term
What happens when there is hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
increased excitability of nerve and muscle cells. |
|
|
Term
What happens during hyperkalemia? |
|
Definition
lots of K+ in the synapse. Voltage gated Na+ channels remain inactivated (Blocked inactivation gate) in the cell is not allowed to hyperpolarize. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
overactive area of the brain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 branches of generalized acute neurological events? |
|
Definition
Toxic iscemic, complex seizure, encephalitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Transient Ischemia Attack, aka mini stroke |
|
|
Term
What disease processes can present as a focal neurological event? |
|
Definition
Partial seizures, strokes, TIA |
|
|
Term
What processes can present as generalized neurological events? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Cerebral Perfusion Pressure and what is the formula to calculate it? |
|
Definition
The driving force across the brain capillaries.
CPP=MAP-ICP
MAP=mean arterial pressure
ICP= intracranial pressure |
|
|
Term
What happens if your arterial pressure is too low in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Brain arterioles ___1___ with increased blood pressure and ___2____ with lowered blood pressure.
Choices: dilate and constrict |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Raised arterial CO2 causes brain arterioles to ___1___ and cerebral blood flow will ___2____.
1 choices: dilate or constrict
2 choices: Increase or decrease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low arterial CO2 causes brain arterioles to ___1___ and cerebral blood flow will ___2____.
1 choices: dilate or constrict
2 choices: Increase or decrease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does Hypercapnia (High CO2) and acidosis do to blood flow in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does hyperventilation do to CO2 levels? |
|
Definition
Lowers the CO2 levels which lowers the blood pressure and decrease blood flow. |
|
|
Term
Which affects blood flow to the brain more?
O2 or CO2 concentration |
|
Definition
CO2, brain is more sensitive to CO2 |
|
|
Term
What controls cerebral blood flow autoregulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What controls cerebral blood flow active hyperemia? |
|
Definition
blood flow controlled by metabolic demand |
|
|
Term
What controls cerebral blood flow reactive hyperemia? |
|
Definition
increased flow following a period of occlusion |
|
|
Term
What does the law of Laplace deal with? |
|
Definition
Wall tension
Tension=(pressure)*(radius) |
|
|
Term
What is the myogenic hypotesis? |
|
Definition
Vascular smooth muscle around arterioles contracts when stretched. |
|
|
Term
Increase in metabolites leads to ______.
Choices dilation or contraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does Ischemia lead to excitotoxicity? |
|
Definition
Lack of blood means lack of O2 and glucose in the cells. This stops the Na/K ATPase and causes Na+ to build up in cells. |
|
|
Term
How does Excitotoxicity damage neurons? |
|
Definition
O2 deprived cells release tons of glutamate. Overactivates NMDA glutamate receptors lets in tons of Ca2+ that causes the cell to degrade. |
|
|
Term
What does Lipid peroxidation do? |
|
Definition
leads to free radicals that fuck up the cell and kill it. |
|
|
Term
What is Neighborhood decay? |
|
Definition
neighboring partially ischemic cells are unable to maintain their Na+ gradients. Without the Na+ gradient glutamate uptake doesnt work which causes excitotoxic damage and cell death. |
|
|
Term
What is the Cushing reaction? |
|
Definition
high intracranial pressure leads to high CO2 that increases blood flow and raises pressure even more. spiral effect. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with right arm and face weak. what cerebral vessel and structure are most likely affected? |
|
Definition
Left MCA and left lateral motor cortex. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with aphasia and right visual field deficit. what cerebral vessel and structure are most likely affected? |
|
Definition
Left MCA. Wernicke's area and left parietal cortex. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with right pure hemiparesis. what cerebral vessel and structure are most likely affected? |
|
Definition
Left MCA. Left corticospinal tracts |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with right leg weakness. what cerebral vessel and structure are most likely affected? |
|
Definition
Left ACA. left Medial motor cortex |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with right homonymous hemianopia. what cerebral vessel and structure are most likely affected? |
|
Definition
left PCA. left visual cortex |
|
|
Term
What is Arteriovenous Malformation? |
|
Definition
Dilated vascular channels in the brain, these can rupture and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
What is a cavernous angioma? |
|
Definition
benign neoplasia composed of large vascular spaces compartmentalized by prominent fibrous walls. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
focal aggregation of small vessels with innervening neural parenchyma. |
|
|
Term
What is a venous angioma? |
|
Definition
few large veins distributed randomly in the brain or spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
What causes berry aneurysms? |
|
Definition
missing tunica media in part of the blood vessel when it bifurcates. |
|
|
Term
In __% of cases, multiple berry aneurysms are present. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Atherosclerotic aneurysms? |
|
Definition
biggest aneurysms seen in the brain, located in larger vessels. Atherosclerosis causes fibrous replacement of the tunica media and destruction of the internal elastic membrane. |
|
|
Term
What is a mycotic aneurysm? |
|
Definition
bacteria grow in an artery in the cardiac valve and it lodges itself in the middle cerebral artery where the bacteria grow and fuck up the arterial wall causing an aneurysm. |
|
|
Term
What are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms? |
|
Definition
weakened walls deep inside the brain in vessel trunks (not on bifurcations) caused by HTN. Can lead to hypertensive cerebral hemorrhage. |
|
|
Term
Where do Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms and Hypertensive intercerebral hemorrhages occur? |
|
Definition
mostly the basal ganglia thalmus
also pons and cerebellum. |
|
|
Term
What is transtentorial herniation? |
|
Definition
hernia causes part of one hemisphere to go into the other. |
|
|
Term
What is an interventricular hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
rupture of small vessel into a ventricle. |
|
|
Term
How does a pt with a cerebellar hemorrhage present? |
|
Definition
Bleeding into the cerebellum causes abrupt ataxia, usually severe headache and vomiting. |
|
|
Term
red neurons are indicitive of _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cerebral infarcts caused by embolization are ____
Choices: bland or hemorrhagic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cerebral infarcts caused by thrombic occlusions are chronic, largely ischemic and ____
Choices: bland or hemorrhagic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
detatched traveling mass in the blood circulation |
|
|
Term
How are infarctions healed? |
|
Definition
astrocytes perform astrogliosis and clean up the area creating a cyst. |
|
|
Term
Where are the striate arteries and what happens if they get blocked? |
|
Definition
go superior from the middle cerebral artery into the deep brain to the capsule. If blocked can cause hemiparesis or hemiplegia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inability to talk or understand language. |
|
|
Term
what happens if there is an infarction of the trifurcation of the middle cerebral artery? |
|
Definition
causes motor and sensory problems. If it is the dominant hemisphere (usually left) then it produces aphasias. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
mini strokes, getting multiple ones leads to dementia and loss of brain tissue. |
|
|
Term
What are parenchymal cells more predisosed to having damage them?
choices: atherosclerosis or HTN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is petechiae? what causes it? |
|
Definition
swelling of the optic nerve. malignant hypertension resulting in hypertensive encephalopathy. |
|
|
Term
young black male presents with vomiting and is going into coma. Cell sample shows an onion skin looking arteries what is wrong? |
|
Definition
fibrinoid necrosis from hypertensive encephalopathy. |
|
|
Term
what normally causes fat embolism syndrome. |
|
Definition
get a traumatic leg bone fracture then later the fat goes to the brain and occlides capillaries. |
|
|
Term
what are subfalcine herniations? |
|
Definition
cerebral hemisphere expannds and compresses the anterior cerebral artery. |
|
|
Term
what is a tonsilar herniation? |
|
Definition
pushes brainstem through foramen magnum killing you. |
|
|
Term
what are transtential herniations? |
|
Definition
hippocampus is pressed against the tentorium cerebelli. compresses the 3rd cranial nerve and fixes pupil dilation on the side of the lesion. |
|
|
Term
What is a Duret hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
lesions in the midbrain and pons usually caused by a transtentorial herniation. caused by compression of vasculature in brain stem. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
formation of a blood clot |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
mass traveling in the blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
list the 4 steps of hemostasis in order |
|
Definition
1. Vasoconstriction
2. Platelet actions
3. coagulation (clot formation)
4.Fibrinolysis |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 major components of the hemostatic system? |
|
Definition
Vascular endothelium
platelets
coagulation system
fibrinolytic system |
|
|
Term
Where is NO synthesized and what role does it play in hemostasis? |
|
Definition
endothelial cells. Inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation by increasing levels of cAMP |
|
|
Term
Where is Prostacyclin (PGI2) synthesized and what role does it play in hemostasis? What inhibits its formation? |
|
Definition
endothelial cells. vasodilator that inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion by increasing cAMP. Same mechanism as NO. Blocked by NSAIDs and cox inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
Where is Thrombomodulin synthesized and what role does it play in hemostasis? |
|
Definition
endothelial cells. Binds thrombin which activates protein C that works with protein S to degrade factors V and VIII. |
|
|
Term
Where is Tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) synthesized and what role does it play in hemostasis? |
|
Definition
endothelial cells. Activates fibrinolysis by turning plasminogen into plasmin which digests fibrin. |
|
|
Term
what role does ADP play in hemostasis? |
|
Definition
inhibits patelet aggregaion |
|
|
Term
Describe primary hemostasis |
|
Definition
primary is dealing with platelets
vWF causes platelets to adhere to the vessel wall.
platelets release ADP and TXA2 granules that recruit more platelets. |
|
|
Term
Describe secondary hemostasis |
|
Definition
Secondary deals with fibrin.
Tissue factor is released that causes phospholipic complex expression. Then there is thrombin generation which causes fibrin polymerization. |
|
|
Term
describe the steps in the common coagulation pathway |
|
Definition
Thrombin activates factor V that combines with factor X to make even more thrombin. This thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibrin, which forms a fibrin polymer, and activates factor XIII. Factor XIII causes the fibrin polymers to crosslink forming a clot. |
|
|
Term
how does platelet adhesion work? |
|
Definition
platelets bind to collagen once vWF is secreted. |
|
|
Term
What do α-granules contain? |
|
Definition
Fibrinogen, factor V, factor VIII |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 types of granules in platelets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do dense granules contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does activation of the Gp IIB/IIIA receptor do? |
|
Definition
causes the platelet to undergo conformational change so the clump up and become not smooth and form a wall. |
|
|
Term
What releases TXA-2 and what does it do? |
|
Definition
Stimulation of the GPIIB/IIIA receptor causes platelet activation which releases TXA-2 along with the 2 types of granules. The TXA-2 causes vasoconstriction. |
|
|
Term
Describe platelet aggregation. |
|
Definition
fibrinogen binds to the GpIIB/IIIA receptor in activated platelets. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin causing it to cement. |
|
|
Term
If a person had a defect in GPlb what would be the effects? |
|
Definition
platelets would be unable to bind to collagen |
|
|
Term
What are the main inhibitors of fibrinolysis? |
|
Definition
Plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAI)= inactivates tPA.
α2-antiplasmin= binds free plasmin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the Fibrinolytic pathway |
|
Definition
breaking a clot/
t-PA turns plasminogen into plasmin that breaks the clot by splitting the fibrins. |
|
|
Term
Why is fibrinolytics less effective in busting older clots? |
|
Definition
older clots have more fibrin cross linking. |
|
|
Term
how long afer a stroke can u give a fibrinolytic drug and still have benefits outweigh the costs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When can you not give a thrombic therapy for a stroke (Contraindications)? |
|
Definition
if there is an increased chance of bleeding.
hemmorhage, anticoagulate or antiplatelets in last 24 hrs, seizure during stroke. different stroke in the last 3 months, head injury. |
|
|
Term
what is the common fibrolytic drug used for stroke treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 targets you can give oral drugs for to inhibit platelet aggregation? What drugs block them? |
|
Definition
Block COX-1 with asprin
Block ADP receptor with clopidogrel |
|
|
Term
What is the target of the IV treatment for inhibiting platelet aggregation? |
|
Definition
Block the IIB/IIIA receptor |
|
|
Term
how much asprin should a person be taking to inhibit the COX-1 receptors and inhibit platelet aggregation? |
|
Definition
small amounts, 81-325 mg/day |
|
|
Term
_____ is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where is glutamate synthesized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme converts glutamine -> glutamate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme converts glutamate -> glutamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme converts glutamate into α-keto glutarate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme converts α-keto glutarate into glutamate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cells remove glutamate from the synapse and how? |
|
Definition
astrocytes do it actively using a Na/glutamate symporter called the excitatory amino acid transporter. |
|
|
Term
what happens to the glutamate once it is in the astrocyte? |
|
Definition
it is converted to glutamine and sent back to the presynaptic neuron to be converted back into glutamate to be released again. |
|
|
Term
why is some glutamate converted into α-ketoglutarate? |
|
Definition
dont want free glutamate and it can be used as an intermediate in the citric acid cycle. |
|
|
Term
what cells contain glutamine synthetase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which cells contain glutaminase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how does glycogen in astrocytes affect presynaptic neurons? |
|
Definition
makes glucose that makes ATP that is used for:
glutamate -> glutamine so that the high energy glutamine can travel to the presynaptic neuron to be converted to glutamate without needing energy. |
|
|
Term
___ is the more important inhibitory transmitter in the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what enzyme is missing that wont allow astrocytes to send glucose to neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is hypoxia? what happens? |
|
Definition
Short term reduced O2-> reduced oxidative phosphorylation -> reduced ATP-> lactate production -> angiogenesis |
|
|
Term
What is Ischemia? what happens? |
|
Definition
long term lack of O2-> no oxidative phosphorylation -> depleted ATP -> shutting down of active transports -> Ca2+ entering cells -> cells swell and lyse
->phospholipases and proteases digesting the cell. |
|
|
Term
Reperfusion (reintroduction of O2) after ischemia causes _____. |
|
Definition
reactive oxygen species (ROS aka free radicals) because there was a build up of electrons and NADH. |
|
|
Term
Superoxide anion gets converted to H2O2 which can be turned into water and O2 by catalase but if there is sone of electrons what is the major thing that can go wrong? |
|
Definition
H2O2 picks up an electron to form a hydroxyl radical which is the most reactive type of radical. |
|
|
Term
What happens with glutamatergic excitotoxicity? |
|
Definition
excessive glutamate released from presynaptic neuron. Ca2+ rushes into cell and causes even more Ca2+ to be released leads to oxygen radicals damaging DNA causing cell death. |
|
|
Term
If there is no cell lysis is there inflamation? |
|
Definition
no, Individual cells delete themselves by an intrinsic mechanism - there is no rupture of the cell membrane and thus no inflammation |
|
|
Term
is there inflamation in necrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what happens if you are deficient in Bcl-2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does cytocgrome C do? |
|
Definition
turns procaspase -> caspase which cleavs stuff and causes apoptosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does Bax do? what inhibits it? |
|
Definition
puts a hole in the mitochondria letting cytochrome C come out. Inhibited by bcl-2. |
|
|
Term
describe the extrinsic cell death pathway: |
|
Definition
microglia, T-cell or NK cell binds and releases a ligand that activates caspase 8. Caspase 8 activates Procaspas-3 into caspase-3 which chews up the cell. Faster than intrinsic cell death. |
|
|
Term
what is the trophic factor hypothesis? |
|
Definition
neurons that dont have a target die |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
loss of pyramidal neurons in the hippocampus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. |
|
|
Term
Amyotropic lateral sclerosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
alzheimers has the presence of extracellular __1__ and inclusions of ___2___. |
|
Definition
1. β-amyloid
2. hyperphosphorylated tau protein |
|
|
Term
alzheimers contains Lewy bodies that contain _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10% of patients with ALS have a problem with what gene? |
|
Definition
mitochondrial enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD1) |
|
|