Shared Flashcard Set

Details

P&P-2
round two
269
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
02/28/2013

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
what is aquaculture?
Definition
controlled rearing of aquatic organisms, direct competition with wild harvests, fastest growing animal industry
Term
what is extensive vs intensive production in aquaculture?
Definition
  • extensive focuses on fishery management rather than aquaculture management. low biomass. feed, aeration not required. ideal for recreational ponds. 500-1000lb/acre
  • intensive focuses on continuum where management becomes more like traditional farm management. problems include crowding, water quality, aeration, nutrition, infectious disease. feeding required. >>>1000lb/acre
Term
what is "all in all out" vs continuous harvest in aquaculture?
Definition
  • "all in all out"-system drained at end of production cycle, all fish removed, disinfection and removal of sediment and muck 
  • continuous-system rarely drained, following harvest-top off with approximate number of fingerlings to replace fish, industry standard for catfish

 

Term
more than 80% of global seafood production comes from: and other growing industries include:
Definition
Asia. South America, caribbean
Term
what are the advantages of extensive production in aquaculture?
Definition
  • little to no investment in equip/feed
  • fish can be trapped  (low tech, low capital)
  • water quality problems are minimized by low stocking and feeding rates
  • natural food available in pond should be sufficient
  • used as source of protein from community managed ponds in region
Term
where does FL stand in aquaculture?
Definition
10th nationally, a lot of tropical fish, aqua plants, clams
Term
what are livebearers? what is the disadvantage?
Definition
  • livebearers: produce live young, do not lay eggs (guppies, swordtails, mollies, platies)
  • traditional: stock broodfish into fertilized pond, offers very low quality (low cost), feed in small amounts, place baited traps and harvest those of sufficient size. 
  • no control of genetics or number harvested (poor swords)
Term
what are the advantages of intensive production (aquaculture)?
Definition
  • if indoors, more control
  • if indoors, elimination of predation
  • massive increase in production
Term
what are the disadvantages of intensive production (aquaculture)?
Definition
  • increased risk of disease and disease transmission
  • system failure can lead to catastrophic loss, sometimes in minutes
  • high start-up and operating costs
  • complete diet required
Term
what is egg-layer production (aquaculture)?
Definition
  • initial rearing in hatcheries, species dependent methods
  • grown out in ponds or tanks
  • in ponds, use of aeration and quality feeds to improve production yield, increased used of re-circulating systems for intensive rearing of select species
  • biosecurity critical
Term
what are the five production systems for aquaculture in the US? and an example of species for each?
Definition
  1. earthen ponds (catfish, shrimp)
  2. raceway (rainbow trout)
  3. cages or net pens (salmon)
  4. re-circulating tank systems (tilapia)
  5. underwater lease (clams)
Term
what are the advantages of pond production?
Definition
  • free or cheap water, no need to continuously pump water
  • filtration system not required
  • some natural food available
Term
what are the disadvantages of pond production?
Definition
  • minimal control of environment
  • predation can exceed 70%
  • difficult to maintain inventory
  • "off flavor" hard to control (algal blooms)
Term
what are the limitations of earthen ponds?
Definition
  • intensity of managment determined by stocking density
  • dissolved oxygen often limiting
  • minimal control of rearing conditions

 

Term
what is the most common method of production of aquaculture in the US?
Definition

earthen ponds

[image]

Term
what are the advantages of the raceway production system?
Definition
  • often use free water from river or other sources
  • use high flows instead of investment in filtration systems
  •  relatively inexpensive if not needing to continuously pump water
Term
what are the disadvantages of raceway production systems?
Definition
  • poor control of water source
  • introduce disease and contaminanes if using surface water
  • concerns with effluent (contamination or disease to surface water)
  • crowding facilities rapid spread of disease
  • treatments can be difficult because of large volume of water used
Term
what are the advantages of cage aquaculture?
Definition
  • tidal flush provides "free" water exchange
  • risk of contamination or disease introduction from local water
  • easy to harvest
Term
earthen ponds should be (shallow/deep)
Definition
shallow
Term
what are the disadvantages of cage aquaculture?
Definition
  • very controversial in populated areas
  • exposure to wild fish, postential disease intro
  • potential for contamination from local water
  • susceptible to storm damage
  • predation
  • concern for damage to local enviro
  • very crowded (hi disease spread)
  • difficult to treat
Term
what are the advantages of re-circulating systems?
Definition
  • complete control of envrio
  • elimination of predation
  • very efficient grow out for suitable species
  • treatment easier and less expensive than other systems
Term
what are the disadvantages of re-circulating systems?
Definition
  • very hi capital investment
  • hi risk (e.g. power failure)
  • intensive managment requirements
  • expensive to operate and maintain
  • biosecurity is critical
Term
what are the advantages of continuous harvest?
Definition
  • no "down time" to dry out pond
  • simply replace the # of animals harvested with similar fingerlings
  • practical for very large ponds
Term
what are the disadvantages of continuous harvest?
Definition
  • loose track of inventory
  • pond banks erode
  • massive accumulation of organic matter
  • maintenance is major
  • major disease control can be very difficult
Term
what are the advantages of "all in all out" harvest?
Definition
  • better control of inventory
  • avoid buildup of organic material
  • can produce multiple crops in same pond
  • much better for biosecurity
Term
what are the disadvantages of "all in all out" harvest?
Definition
  • labor intensive
  • more effluent from pond
Term
what is the most important aquaculture industry in the US? what are the advantages?
Definition
  • channel catfish, 10th globally, (not in FL)
  • hardy species
  • spawn easily in container
  • produce large egg mass, easily relocated to hatchery
Term
what are the special health concerns of channel catfish?
Definition
  • water quality: low dissolved oxygen, off flavor, ammonia/nitrite
  • infectious disease: bacterial, parasitic, fungal, viral
Term
what is the chicken of the sea? advantages? big disadvantage?
Definition
  • extremely hardy
  • tolerant fo poor quality conditions
  • omnivorous
  • thrive on low quality feed
  • high repro rate, so single sex populations preferred (testosterone in feed)
  • thermal limited <50* is fatal
  • Francisella
Term
Koi and Carp:
Definition
are the same fish. carp usually for feed, koi for show
Term
what special equipment is needed for fish patients?
Definition
  • FW and SW, chlorine, DO meter testing
  • microscope
  • magnification (dissecting scope)
  • basic necropy equipment
  • holding units

 

Term
what chemicals/restraint are used for anesthesia in fish?
Definition
  • MS-222 (withdrawl period)
  • clove oil
  • special nets, slings, handling techniques
Term
what history questions should be asked about fish?
Definition
  • how long? 
  • who affected?
  • water testing
  • M:M
  • stocking density
  • species stocked/affected
  • signs
Term
how is a skin/fin biopsy done?
Definition
  • no prep, just wipe clean,
  • carefully scrape skin/scales/mucus using cover slip
  • use tank water to make your preps
  • remove part of caudal fin for wet mount prep
Term
what are the inhalation agents for fish?
Definition
  • MS222
  • benzocaine HCl
  • quinaldine sulfate
  • clove oil
  • metomidate HCl
Term
what should the dissolved oxygen be?
Definition

>5mg/L should be at or near saturation

determine correct concentrations for inhalants

Term
what is the withdrawal time for MS222? what is the active ingredient?
Definition

21 days

tricaine (like cocaine)

Term
what is used with MS222?
Definition
baking soda
Term
what is currently prohibted by the FDA as an anesthetic in fish? why?
Definition

eugenol (clove oil)

not good analgesia, not as safe as MS222

 

Term
what are the four potential sites of blood collection in fish?
Definition
  1. caudal vein***
  2. duct of Cuvier
  3. dorsal aorta (anesthetize, posterior to 4th gill)
  4. heart (not for survival procedures)
Term
via what route are vx given to fish?
Definition
IM
Term
guidelines for transporting fish:
Definition
  • room air or pure oxygen
  •  enough water to cover fish, no more than 1/3 of bag
  • water from pond
Term
what is a gilt?
Definition
female pig, not yet farrowed usually (or just 1-2 farrows)
Term
what is a barrow?
Definition
castrated male
Term
what is a sow?
Definition
adule female who has farrowed
Term
what is a weaner?
Definition
weaned (weaning) pigs
Term
what is a shoat?
Definition
120 lbs, not fully grown pig
Term
what is a fat hog/finisher pig?
Definition
180-200lbs or more pig to be finished for market
Term
what is a feeder pig?
Definition
40-50 lbs to be sold to someone to finish elsewhere
Term
what is an all in/all out production? what are the advantages?
Definition

·         all pigs that go in, all go out, building cleaned out completely before new lot of pigs. 

  • decreased death loss
  • increased use of facility
  • ease of management
Term
when does weaning in pigs occur?
Definition
21 days
Term
what is a "wean to finish" production?
Definition
farrowed, nursery, grower, finisher all in same facility. decreases number of transfers
Term
what is depopulation/repopulation, and what is an indication?
Definition
get rid of all pigs, then repopulate with all new pigs. usually for disease.
Term
what is PRDC?
Definition
porcine respiratory disease complex (viral, bacterial/mycoplasma)
Term
what does "feedback" mean in pork production? when is it contraindicated? is there a risk?
Definition
  • uses material from the pig (manure, animal parts). sick dead baby pigs parts are sometimes ground up and fed to sows. sows get immunity, spreads to healthy pigs. uses specific parts like intestines for TGE.
  • don’t do with salmonella
  • no spongiform encephalopathy known of in pigs yet. 
Term
what is a non-productive sow day?
Definition
day when sows aren't pregnant or lactating. indicates how well/profitable a production is run
Term
what is SEW?
Definition

o   (segregated early weaning)-piglets taken from sow early, segregated somewhere else since sows are dirty and carry disease. piglets should get colostrum, then be moved to prevent getting disease. early means 10-14 days instead of 21 days. can change based on disease you’re trying to prevent

Term
what is MEW? (or MMEW, or 2 site production)?
Definition
  • medicated or modified medicated early weaning-using medication and targeting specific diseases with early weaning.
  • 2 site is sows and piglets separate
Term
what are the various types of pig operations?
Definition
  •  farrow to finish-one site, all parts of operation (breeding, gestation, farrowing, nursery, growth, finish). not necessarily all in all out.
  • feeder pig producer (traditional/weaner)-grow to 40-50lbs and sell.
  • feeder pig finisher/contract finishing-buy pigs from above and finish them out
  • pure bred producer-pig shows and fairs, good breeding stock
  • breeding companies-sow and boar lines, specialized therio
  • specialty/niche-show, roaster, producer/retailer
  • vertical integration-large companies that own large production, marketing, everything

 

Term
what is parity price?
Definition

·         price farmers would receive if farm prices had increased at the same rate as expenses, using 1910-1914 as a base period. 

Term
which pigs have erect ears?
Definition
the "-shires"
Term
what are the various pig breeds good for?
Definition
  • dark breeds are typically for meat
  • white breeds make good mothers
Term
what do terminal cross pigs lack?
Definition
maternal qualities, not to be bred back in.
Term
what is rotational cross (3 or 4 way)?
Definition
doesn’t maximize heterosis, but good way of mixing genes (rotating among 3-4 breeds)
Term
what does the pyramid of pig breeding systems consist of?
Definition
nucleus, multipliers, producers, market (in descending order)
Term
what does SPF mean in pig production? what are the two types?
Definition

specific pathogen free (mostly those which are economically important)

o   1º SPF-C-section

o   2º SPF-without C-section, from 1º

Term
what are some examples of diseases targeted in SPF?
Definition

o   pseudorabies

o   swine dysentery

o   mycoplasma hyopneumonia

o   brucella suis

o   atrophic rhinitis

o   lice (hematopinus suis)

o   mange

o   leptospirosis

o   Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia (APP)

o   transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)

other e.g. PRRSV

Term
why are antibiotics added to feed in pig production?
Definition

o   prevention

o   treatment

o   gain/feed efficiency

§  not usually Abx used in humans

§  not very much

§  use less feed since gain is more efficient

§  used as preventative during times of outbreak

Term
what are some concerns with antibiotic use in swine production?
Definition
  • residues (e.g. sulfa)
  • illegal due to residues (chloramphenicol, DES, nitrofurozone)
  • foreign markets
  • antibiotic resistence
  • food safety
Term
what is H2O treatment in swine production?
Definition

§  to treat disease

§  to prevent major outbreak

§  pigs still drink water when sick (but generally inappetant)

§  water soluble

§  palatable

§  residues

§  cost effective

§  effective vs bugs

Term
what are the methods of euthanasia used in swine production?
Definition

o   carbon dioxide

o   gunshot (unsightly) 1 inch above eyes medially. .22, don’t’ use hollow points. large animals-sinuses get in the way, need something more powerful. shotgun won’t ricochet.

o   captive bolt-pig needs to be restrained, need to be up close, may not penetrate sinuses on larger pigs

o   electrocution

o   anesthetic overdose-costly, restraint, carcass disposition is tricky.

o   blunt trauma-smaller pigs-smashed against something

o   exsanguination-don’t do it unless rendered unconscious. allows for better visualization of lesions

Term
what is the benefit of single source swine?
Definition
one set of diseases to tackle vs multiple source
Term
what is the hog corn ratio? what is profitable/not profitable?
Definition

hog prices: corn price

20:1 is profitable, 15:1 is unprofitable

Term
what are the five goals of an animal health program in swine production?
Definition

1.      prevention of morbidity and mortality

2.      optimize utilization of facilities

3.      optimize utilization of genetic potential

4.      optimize utilization of nutrition

5.      optimize ROI/ROE

a.      return on investment and equity

Term
what needs to be done to piglets within 1-3 days of life?
Definition

o   file down needle teeth

o   iron injection (to prevent anemia)

o   navel

o   tail dock

o   ear notch

o   Abx

o   antiserum

Term
what needs to be done to piglets by day 7?
Definition

o   castrate at the latest

o   repeat C and D antitoxin if necessary

o   coccidiosis medication

o   gilt/boar selection

o   underline screening

o   vaccination (bordetella, Pasteurella, erysipelas)

Term
what needs to be done to piglets by days 14-21?
Definition

o   iron injection (if necessary)

o   wean

o   vaccination (mycoplasma, PRRSV)

o   parasite control

o   split weaning-wean the best half of the lot (biggest, fattest), leave the skinny ones to catch up

o   management of facility

o   Abx, meds if necessary

Term
what needs to be done to weaners by weeks 6-8?
Definition

o   vaccination erysipelas

o   Abx for feed: gain ratio

o   parasites

o   site specific factors/management

Term
what is the prebreeding protocol for gilts?
Definition

o   selection of 180lbs

o   flush-increasing nutritional plane to optimize repro (drop a lot of follicles)

o   parasites

o   vaccinations (parvo, lepto, erysipelas)

o   booster

o   herd immunity

Term
what is the prefarrowing protocol?
Definition

o   colostrum management

o   vaccination (E. coli, TGE, rota, erysipelas, SIV, mycoplasma, clostridium)

o   two doses for gilts starting 4-6 weeks prefarrowing

o   booster 

Term
disease in swine production =
Definition
dose x virulence/ resistance
Term
what is colibacillosis, including dx, ddx, tx, vx?
Definition
  • white scours, wet tail scours, ETEC
  • diarrhea, septicemia
  • <4 days of age (neonatal)
  • non-regional
  • pili attach to enterocytes (K88, K99, 987P, F41)
  • 100% morbidity, 60-70% mortality (especially piglets of gilts with lower immunity)
  • oral/fecal infection route
  • dirty environment; ↓temp, ↓colostrum
  • clinical signs:  profuse watery diarrhea 12-24 hr after birth or infectionàdehydrationàdeath
  • E. coli attachàtoxin secretion of fluid into SIàacidosisàdehydrationàdeath
  • dx: history, culture pillus Ag, histopathy, response to tx, impression smear, mixed infections, basic pH
  •  DDx: TGE, clostridial enteritis, coccidiosis, strongyloides
  • Tx: Abx (gentocin, apralan, tylan, spect. SMZ-TMP) fluids (electrolytes in water), probiotics, Ab preps-monoclonal. farms may have gentocin resistance
  • vx: milk, killed bacterins (commercial or autogenous), subunit-pillus Ag, J-5 (core Ag)
Term
what is TGE, including dx, ddx, tx, vx?
Definition
  • highly infectious viral disease of pigs
  • worldwide but ↑problem in US
  • 1 serotype of coronavirus (RNA), very stable when frozen
  • epizootic: classical outbreaks in late fall, winter, and spring
  • enzootic: year round
  • virus present in feces in large qty and may be excreted for up to 10 weeks
  • spread by fecal/oral and fomites (people, equip, birds, dogs)
  • airborn transmission
  • unexposed gilts, piglets, immunosuppressed, weaners
  • epizootic: morbidity 100%, mortality 0-100% will kill piglets under 10-14 days.
  • use dead piglets in feedback 
  • clinical signs: profuse watery diarrhea, milk curds, vomiting
  • incubation 1-2 days
  • enzootic: signs variable but usually in weaned pigs
  • M:0-100%, M:0-10%
  •  virus replication (lung, duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
  • villi damaged, malabsorption, diarrhea, dehydration, death/recovery
  • 7-10 day recovery for enterocytes
  • viral excretion maximum 1-2 days
  • dx: necropsy-thin walled SI, clinical signs, no response to treatment, histopathy,  VI, EM, FAT,  serology-respiratory coronavirus can cross-react,  acidic pH
  •  DDx: e. coli, rotavirus, coccidiosis, C. perfringens
  • tx: fluids, Abx, wean, ↑temp of the sow
  • §  control
  • ·   immunity
  • o   IgG in response to infection
  • o   serum Ab for 7 weeks PI
  • o   IgA in gut and colostrum
  • o   maternal Ab in piglets 6-12 weeks
  • §  epizootics-every 2 years
  • §  vx:  oral, IM, IP, MLV/killed.
  • §  feedback
  • §  quarantine, test,
  • §  bird, animal control
  • §  biosecurity
Term
T or F: the sow is the source of coccidiosis.
Definition
False
Term
which kills younger piglets, colibacillosis or TGE?
Definition
collibacillosis
Term
what is coccidiosis including dx, ddx, tx, vx?
Definition

  •  Isospora suis
  • sow NOT the source
  • oocysts in piglet environment
  • must be 4.5-5 days old!!!
  • usually very time specific for farm (usually 6-8 days of age)
  • diarrheaàwatery to pasty
  • gaunt and rough hair coat
  • recovery slowà stunted runts
  • mortality/morbidity variable
  • 1 oocystà lots of life stages, then 1k-400k oocysts
  • oocysts infective to 10 months
  • sporulate well in humid areas
  • all stages damage small intestine
  • path: gross lesions-jejunum and ileum are thickened and turgid
  • diarrhea
  • villous atrophy
  • merozoites
  • micro and macrogametes in SI
  • fecals (up to weeks post infection), smears, histo
  • DDx: subacute clostridial diarrhea, E. coli, TGE, rotavirus, crypto
  • Tx: nothing on label: Amprolium, decoquinate, sulfas, Abx, prageril (used tx EPM in horses), baycox. One dose may be enough
  • hygiene, heat treatment, quaternary ammonia compounds, chlorox, live steam, preventive drugs in baby pigs
Term
what is clostridial enteritis including dx, ddx, vx, and tx?
Definition
  • necrotic, hemorrhagic enteritis in pigs <7 days of age. chronic form may hit older piglets
  • common, but distribution variable (found in Iowa first)
  • Clostridium perfrigens Type C
  • geographical area, soil, wind, contaminated sows, buildings, crates
  • ingested spores, produce toxin, mortality is 100%. morbidity variable
  • clinical signs: peracute, acute, subacute, chronic. death, bloody diarrhea, poor doers
  • path: adheres to intestinal epithelium in jejunum
  • β toxin
  • villi damaged
  • SI hemorrhagic, swollen, gas bubblies in serosa, bloody lumen
  • large numbers of bacteria, villous damage
  • diptheritic membrane in subacute/chronic
  • dx: post mortem, impression, culture (anaerobe)
  • DDx: E. coli, coccidiosis
  • Tx: PPG, antitoxin (dose PO and SC for both)
  •  vx, antitoxin, hygiene, feed Abx (bacitracin, BMD) to sows
Term
what is the relative order of neonatal infectious swine diseases?
Definition
  • strongyloides ransomi- 4 days, 2-3 if prenatal
  • colibacillosis-<4 days
  • coccidiosis- 4.5-5.5 days
  • clostridial enteritis- <7days if acute, >10days if chronic
  • rotavirus-7-14 days
  • TGE epizootic- 10-14 days
  • TGE enzootic- gilts, piglets, weaners
Term
what is strongyloids ransomi including dx and tx?
Definition

§  small intestinal threadworm rhabditoid nematode. warmer climate
§  percutaneous, oral, transcolostral, prenatal
§  patency by day 4
§  patency by day 2-3 days after birth if prenatal
§  diarrhea, unthriftyness, stunting, death by 10-14 days
§  dx: fecal
§  tx:
·         thiabendazole
·         levamisole
·         ivermectin/dectomax
·         fenbendazole

Term
what is a thermoneutral temp for weaned pigs  (12 lbs)?
Definition
85F
Term
what is creep feeding?
Definition

o   hi protein, low fiber, low soy, prepare for transition)

§  fresh

§  palatable

§  offered frequently from 10-14 days of age

§  only small qty consumed

Term
what is edema disease?
Definition

§ E. coli

sudden death of doing good pigs
§  low to variable incidence, usually <10% affected, most die
§  verotoxigenic strains of E. coli
§  genetic predisposition
§  clinical signs within 10 days of weaning, dull, blind, head pressing, incoord, recumbent, paddling, convulsions, death
§  transient diarrhea, then constipation, edema of forehead, eyelids, voicebox, no fever
§  pathogen: oral exposureàstomach, SI, toxin àblood vessels damagedàedema
§  esp stomach wall, thoracic cavity, fluid
§  stomach fullàSI/colon empty
o   DDx: PRV, mulberry heart, arsenic
o   Tx: Abx, ↓cerebral edema
o   control: vx? , management, genetics, acidification of H2O/feed, ↓feed intake

Term
what is the extent of villous damage in colibacillosis in weaned pigs?
Definition
none.
Term
what is post-weaning diarrhea?
Definition

Caused by E. coli

o   loss of lactogenic immunity, pathogenicity and management determines severity of disease

o   20-50% morbidity, <10% mortality

o   diarrhea, wt loss, stunting, death, may have fever

o   hi stomach pHàenvironmental E. coliàovergrowthà enterotoxinsàsecretory diarrhea

o   no villous damage

o   culture it

o   feed/water medication, parenteral tx, change protein/fiber levels?, split feeding, acidified H2O/electrolytes, acidified feed

o   control: creep feed, vx?  split feedings (multiple feedings on ground), acidified H2O, ↓#’s/pen, complex diet (hi in milk, low in soy)

Term
what are the different forms of salmonellosis and what are the differences?
Definition

o   septicemic form: fever, restless, anorexia, cyanosisàdiarrhea. low morbid, hi mortality, yellow feces. 24-48 hr incubation

o   enteric form: fever, dehydration, ↓bcs, fast spreading diarrhea. hi morbid, low mortality,  become carriers. 

Term
"button ulcers" are characteristic of what disease?
Definition
enteric salmonellosis
Term
parathyphoid nodules are pathognomonic for what?
Definition
septicemic salmonellosis
Term
what is the treatment/control protocol for salmonellosis?
Definition

o   Tx: early aggressive Ax, Naxcel, LS 50, OTC/CTC, Sulfas, spectinomycin, mecadox, (nitrofurazone, emtryl, ipropran-illegal in food animals)

o   control: isolate, single source, ↓stress, hygiene, prophylactic Abx, vx, core Ag, ML, killed, medication (feed/water)

Term
salmonella affects what pigs?
Definition
growth/finisher pigs
Term
what are the two species of salmonella in pigs? what are their signs, prevalence, and shedding periods?
Definition

o   S. cholera suis 97%

§  pigs only,

§  pneumonia, septicemia (purple skin discoloration)

§  indefinite shedding

o   S. typhimurium 3%

§  shedding 4 months

§  rectal stricture

Term
what is likely the cause of edema of forehead, eyelids, and voicebox without fever in a pig? 
Definition
E. coli (edema disease)
Term
what are bloody scours?
Definition

 

·         serpulina (brachyspira) hyodysenteriae

o   previously treponema hyodysenteriae

o   mucohemorrhagic colitis characterized by ↓ performance, death loss, and bloody/mucous diarrhea

o   widespread, economic losses, now it’s coming back

o   anaerobic spirochete found in colon

o   common in feeder pigs

o   affect may be of any size

o   oral/fecal route of transmission

o   carriers or infected pigs main source of transmission

o   M100%:M30%

o   cyclical on some farms

o   can shed for 70 days PI

o   organism can survive in lagoon H2O, dogs, mice, starlings, flies

o   outbreaks may be seasonal

o   incubation 2 days-3 months, usually 10-14 days

o   diarrhea of varying intensity

o   occasional peracute death

o   pasty diarrhea with ↓appetiteàmucoid diarrhea with blood

o   watery diarrhea with blood

 

Term
what is the pathogenesis of serpulina hyodysenteriae? and the pathology?
Definition
  • entrance to colon wall via goblet cells--> epithelial cells of colon-->destruction fo cells-->inflammation, histamine release, failure of fluid transport
  • poor body condition, colitis, flaccid, red, congested, fluid contents, blood, necrotic matter and food particles,
  • chronic may have diptheritic membrane
  • lesions limited to mucosa

 

Term
which swine diseases are reportable?
Definition
  • serpulina hyodysenteriae
Term
what is the treatment for serpulina hyodysenteriae?
Definition
  • arsenicals
  • tiamulin
  • linocin
  • ipropran/emtryl-illegal
  • carbadox
  • BMD, Tylan, Gentocin
  • depop/repop, control movement, fomites, vx
Term
what is PIA?
Definition
  • porcine intestinal adenomatosis complex
  • aka: necroproliferative enteritis (NPE), regional ileitis (RI), ileitis, proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy, garden hose gut, necrotic enteritis (NE)
  • Campylobacter and Lawsonia
  • 6-20 weeks most common
Term
what are the signs of PIA  (PIA, NE/RI, and PHE) and the path?
Definition
  • PIA-mild signs (wt loss, dec. appetite, diarrhea); oral ingestion-->proliferation of immature glandualr epithelial cells-->elongation of glands
  • NE/RI-more severe diarrhea and wt loss. necrosis
  • PHE-acute hemorrhagic anemia, melena, death. rupture of capillaries
Term
describe gastric ulcers in swine
Definition
  • ulcerations of pars esophagae
  • up to 100% incidence found at slaughter
  • etio: copper, gastric acidity, whey, corn starch, feed procedssing, fatty acids, Vit E, Se, fine ground feed, etc.
  • peracute or chronic
  • treatment is more about control 
Term
what is PRDC?
Definition

porcine respiratory disease complex

pneumonia in all ages

the "18 week wall" after placed in finishing

poor growth

necropsy all dead

 

Term
what is enzootic pneumonia?
Definition
  • mycoplasma pneumonia
  • coughing, CPD/ADR, very low mortality
  • airborne or aerosol
  • chronic disease with high morbid/low mortal
  • tx: tetracyclines
Term
describe swine influenza
Definition
  • influenza A
  • aerosol
  • carrier pigs introduce into naive herds
  • fall to spring outbreaks
  • explosive outbreaks of coughing, fever, prostration, anorexia, dyspnea, etc
  • low mortality
  • ventilation, vx, bird control

 

Term
describe pasteurella multocida
Definition
  • anywhere there are pigs
  • aerosol/oral
  • dyspnea, mouth breathing, abdominal breathing
  • antibiotics
Term
describe actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Definition

hemophilus

grow-finish

pleurisy and infarcts, fever, anorexia, death, bloody nose, cyanosis

variable mortality

fragile organism

tx: parenteral Abx, decrease stress, inc ventilation

Term
describe pseudorabies
Definition
  • Aujeszky's disease (herpes virus)
  • shed in nasal/oral; airborne
  • may be inapparent
  • M/M up to 100%
  • URI-->CNS
  • vx
Term
what is porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome?
Definition

mystery pig disease, new pig disease, blue ear disease

repro disorders, high piglet mortality, resp disease in all ages

aerosol, direct, and semen spread

Term
what is haemophilus parasuis?
Definition

Glasser's disease

meningitis, polyarthritis, polyserositis

fever, anorexia, dyspnea, acute death

Abx, vx, dec stress

Term
what is erysipelas?
Definition
  • infectious disease with sudden death, skin lesions, arthritis, vegetative endocarditis, abortion
  • Erisopelothrix rhusiopathiae  (gram +)
  • diamond skin lesions
  • PPG Abx, antiserum, vx
Term
what diseases are of most concern in neonate, weaned calves, feedlot phase
Definition
  • neonates-GI
  • weaned calves-respiratory
  • feedlot phase-metabolic
Term
what are the characteristics of cow/calf phase?
Definition

o   propagation of new animals

o   cows maintained on less-tillable land

o   minimal resource inputs

o   grass-farming, grass harvesting

o   calves raised to weaning

o   7-9 mos

o   500lb

o   calves are on the move

Term
what are the characteristics of stocker/grower phase?
Definition

o   calves usually purchased

o   fed high forage ration

o   grass harvesting, or small grain gleaning

o   minimal resource inputs

o   growing phase

§  8-15mos of age

Term
what are the characteristics of finishing phase?
Definition

o   production of finished animals

o   market weight/grade

o   90-150d 1200-1400lbs

o   intensive confinement operation and feeding

o   fed mixed concentrate ration

o   commodities feeding

o   abundant, high energy feeds

Term
Are bovine neonates immunocompetent?
Definition
yes, they technically have the equipment (cells, organs), just not the Ig (devoid of active immunity)
Term
what bovine production phase is Florida?
Definition
cow-calf
Term
from calving to retail sales of cows takes:
Definition
14-22 months
Term
the advantages of brahmans are:
Definition

heat tolerance, parasite resistance

Term
what is one of the few live bacteria (attenuated) vx used in veterinary medicine (hint: bovine)
Definition
brucella abortus
Term
what are the majority of losses from parasites in cattle due to?
Definition

subclinical: wt loss, poor feed utilization, low conception rates

Term
what is one of the most pathogenic coccidia in chickens and what is its main sign?
Definition
eimeria tenella; typhlitis
Term
how is coccidiosis controlled in chickens?
Definition
anticoccidial compounds in feed and immunizations
Term
what two venereal diseases should bulls be assessed for?
Definition
tritrichomonas, campylobacter
Term

for bulls, a breeding soundness exam should occur: 

 

Definition
30-60 days prior to breeding season
Term
when purchasing bulls:
Definition

§  acquire 60 days+ prior to breeding

§  quarantine

§  acclimate to ranch/other bulls

§  13-15 mos of age

§  virgin bulls, disease free

§  or from herds that are disease-free

§  assessed for performance traits

Term
what are the signs of infectious bronchitis in chickens?
Definition
  • resp signs (gasping, sneezing, coughing, nasal discharge)
  • severe renal disease with nephrotrophic strains
  • marked decrease in egg production (thin shelled eggs)
Term
what causes infectious bronchitis? what vx is available?
Definition
  • coronavirus, very labile, inhalation from coughing chickens over considerable distance. explosively rapid spread
  • Connecticut, Massachusetts, Arkansas 99, O72 serotype combined vx. 
Term
how is infectious bronchitis diagnosed?
Definition

paired acute and convalescent serum to demonstrate specific immune response

PCR, RTPCR, nested PCR

Term
what is the normal body temp of a chicken?
Definition
108-109F
Term
what is the method of control of infectious bronchitis?
Definition
modified live virus vaccine in young chickens. vaccine only effective if containing the right serotypes. cross-protection is highly variable
Term
what are the clinical signs of coccidiosis in chickens?
Definition

intestinal signs (variable depending on species)

if exposure is moderate, may develop short term immunity without signs

Term
a single coccidia oocyst can give rise to:
Definition
as many as 100,000 progeny
Term
coccidia are host:
Definition
specific
Term
what is an important vector of coccidia, and what other conditions help its spread?
Definition
people easily transport it, also clothing and equipment. wet litter and warm temp help sporulation
Term
is coccidiosis a common problem in chickens?
Definition
widespread, but effectively controlled by vx and drugs
Term
what are the signs of infectious coryza?
Definition

acute, subacute 

conjunctivitis, oculonasal discharge, swelling of infraorbital sinuses, edema of the face, sneezing, infection of LRT

often complicated by secondary disease like Mycoplasma gallispticum

Term
what is the cause of infectious coryza?
Definition
Avibacterium paragallinarum (formerly Hemophilus)
Term
how is infectious coryza diagnosed?
Definition
  • aseptically collect sinus exudate and swab it on blood agar. 'S' sahp streak of S. aureus for V factor, culture in a candle jar. colonies will be tiny dewdrop satellites
  • PCR
Term
how is infectious coryza controlled?
Definition
  • commercial bacterins to immunize chickens (only those serotypes)
  • all pullets to be housed on multi-age infected farms should get 2 injections at 3 week intervals prior to placement on farm. 
  • 1st vs should be given after birds reach 14 wks
Term

what are the signs of the two forms of fowlpox?

does it affect other species?

Definition
  • cutaneous lesions on unfeathered skin of head, neck, legs, feet, or 
  • diphtheritic lesions in upper GI and resp tracts (wet pox blocks glottis)
  • strong host specificity
Term
how is fowlpox spread?
Definition
  • crusts/scabs fall into litter, virus enters through minor abrasions, mechanical transmission thru cannibalism, inhalation of feathers and scabs
  • mosquitoes, blood-sucking arthropods, birds
Term
how is fowlpox diagnosed and controlled?
Definition
  • demonstrating intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in stained sections or in scrapings of lesions
  • vaccination (pigeon pox and fowlpox) in wingweb so can't touch their face
  • vx may produce a small "take" lesion. check a sample in 5-7 days
  • no treatment for fowlpox. self resolves.
Term
a wide leg stance in a chicken is a characteristic of what disease?
Definition
Marek's disease
Term
what is Marek's disease? describe the most common serotype and pathotypes
Definition
  • herpesvirus induced neoplastic disease
  • infiltration of various nerve trunks/organs with pleomorphic lymphoid cells
  • Serotype I isolates ubiquitous in chickens and pathotypes vary from virulent plus (oncogenic) to nearly avirulent (mild)
Term
how is Marek's disease spread?
Definition
feather follicle dander
Term
how is Marek's disease controlled?
Definition
  • immunized via injection 18 days of embryonation or at hatching
  • most common vaccines consist of turkey herpesvirus , serotype 3, cell associated preparation or bivalent vaccine wtih turkey herpesvirus and serotype 2 virus
Term
how is cannibalism controlled in chickens?
Definition

Genetics predisposition, management factors, controlled by trimming beak, reduced light intensity

Term
what are the signs of avian influenza (in general)?
Definition
  • resp signs, depression, reduced feed and water intake, decreased egg production/quality
  • can affect all species of birds
Term
what are the two pathotypes of avian influenza? which is common in the US?
Definition

LPAI and HPAI (low and high pathogenic).

no HPAI in US since 1986, LPAI still causes significant loss

Term
what is AI caused by? what are the H and A possibilities?
Definition

type A influenza virus (orthomyxoviridae)

16H, 9A=144 subtypes with no crossprotection

all HPAI outbreaks have been H5 and H7, tho these two subtypes are usually low path

Term
what are the natural and man-made reservoirs of AI?
Definition

natural- wild waterfowl and shorebirds

man-made-live bird markets and commercial swine facilities

Term
what are the signs of LPAI?
Definition

vary greatly. 

coughing, sneezing, rales, lacrimation, sinusitis, depression, decreased egg production/quality

Term
what are the signs of HPAI?
Definition
up to 100% mortality. resp, enteric, nervous systems affected. diarrhea, edema of head/face, nervous disorders
Term
how is AI diagnosed?
Definition

history for LPAI

innoculation and molecular characterization of cleavage site for HPAI

Term
how is AI controlled?
Definition
  • prevention of LPAI by limiting exposure to waterfowl, shore birds, live bird markets, swine farms
  • vaccines
Term
what is ascites or pulmonary hypertension syndrome?
Definition

important cause of mortality in broiler chickens with rapid growth and high metabolic rate

first reported in 1968 in broilers at high altitude

increased hydrostatic vascular pressure

increased workload on heart. 

hypertrophy, dilation, RV failure, passive congestion, ascites

abdominal distension with reluctance to move, resp distress, cyanosis

Term
how is ascites in chickens diagnosed and controlled?
Definition
  • look for causes decreasing oxygen available (poor vent, hi alt, concomitant resp path) or increasing oxygen needs (rapid growth, cold temp)
  • slow the metabolic rate by turning off the lights and thereby limiting eating
Term
what is stair-stepping vaccination?
Definition
in heavy breeders to increase Ag in egg yolk
Term
what is priority handling?
Definition

o   puppies/kittens

o   pregnant females

o   young adults

o   adults

o   quarantined animals

o   isolated/sick animals

·         ALWAYS WASH HANDS BETWEEN EACH HANDLING

Term
what are the daily sanitation requirements in catteries/shelters?
Definition

1.      remove animal

2.      remove solid waste and debris

3.      clean w/detergent or 1:10 dilute bleach solution (10 min) rinse well

4.      1:32 is the gold standard

5.      disinfect food and water bowls-rinse

6.      dry floor

7.      replace animal

8.      alternatively do at end: wash/disinfect food and water bowls

Term
how far apart should cage fronts be in a cattery? why?
Definition
4 feet apart minimum. sneezing/coughing distance
Term
what are the exceptions to the "1 cat per cage" rule?
Definition

§  nursing mothers

§  litters

§  cats that came together on entry

Term
what are some stable and transient environments in small animal care?
Definition

stable environment

·         breeding kennels

·         breeding catteries

·         closed colonies

·         research facilities

transient

·         vet hospitals

·         grooming/boarding

·         shelters

·         retail outlets

·         dog parks

Term
what is the time frame for small animal vaccination programs?
Definition

o   6-16 weeks of age window of susceptibility (more dep on age rather than number of shots)

Term
what is an ideal virus to use as a recombinant vector?
Definition

·         poxvirus (canary pox), herpesvirus, bovine papillomavirus, simian virus 40, adenovirus

Term
what are the advantages and disadvantages of MLV?
Definition

§  advantages

·         replicate in host

·         more rapid protection

·         longer-lasting immunity

·         lower Ag mass in vx, less adjuvants-fewer rxns

·         better stims CMI

§  disadvantages

·         revert to virulence

o   immunosuppressed

o   neonates

·         can cause immune suppression 

Term
what are the advantages and disadvantages of killed vaccines?
Definition

·         advantages

o   don’t replicate in host

o   safer in immunosuppressed/neonates

·         disadvantages

o   needs boosters

o   more allergenic due to higher Ag mass

o   require adjuvant

o   shorter duration

Term
what are adjuvants?
Definition

·         added to increase duration and amount of immunostimulation

·         e.g. aluminum hydroxide, mycobac/endotoxins, carbopol, oil, liposomes, freund’s complete

·         can lead to reactions

Term
what are the small animal core vaccines?
Definition

§  canine distemper virus

§  canine parvo

§  infection canine hepatitis

§  rabies

§  feline panleukopenia

§  feline herpes

§  feline calicivirus

Term
what are the dog non-core vaccines?
Definition

§  canine corona virus

§  canine Parainfluenza virus

§  leptospirosis

§  bordetella

§  lyme

§  influenza

Term
what are the non-core cat vaccines?
Definition

§  feline leukemia (core in kittens)

§  FIV

§  FIP

§  chlamydiophila

§  bordetella

 

Term
what are the vaccination site guidelines for dogs? (DA2PP, rabies, etc)
Definition

DA2PP-SQ right shoulder

rabies SQ or IM-right rear leg

others-record

Term

what are the vaccination site guidelines for cats?

(FVRCP, FeLV, rabies, etc) 

Definition

§  FVRCP SQ right foreleg distal

§  FeLV SQ LR leg distal

§  rabies SQ RR leg distal

§  others SQ sides or LF distal

§  never between scapulas

Term
rabies control is more important in: (dogs/cats)
Definition
cats
Term
what are the signs of canine distemper?
Definition

§  malaise, anorexia, fever

§  rhinitis, conjunctivitis, pneumonia

§  vomiting, diarrhea

§  KCS, chorioretinitis

§  CNS signs-seizures

Term
how is canine distemper transmitted?
Definition

 

§  all bodily secretions

§  aerosol

§  young dogs kept in groups

§  shedding ceases 1-2 weeks post recovery

§  labile virus, destroyed easily

 

Term
what is the vx protocol for canine distemper?
Definition

§  MLV

·         vaccinate on intake to group housing situation

·         6-8 weeks then q2-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks

·         booster 1 yr then q1-3 yrs depending on risk

§  recombinant

·         can boost with MLV

·         can boost maternal

·         more rapid immunity

Term
how is infectious canine hepatitis spread?
Definition

§  oronasal

§  shed in all secretions

§  shed 6-9 montsh in urine post recovery

§  resistant to inactivation and disinfection

Term
what are the signs of infectious canine hepatitis?
Definition

§  peracute-dead within hours

§  5-7 day course

§  corneal edema (blue eyes)

§  v/d/ab pain

Term
how is infectious canine hepatitis diagnosed?
Definition

§  clinical signs and unvx dogs

§  ↑ALT, ALP

§  thrombocytopenia

§  DIC

§  proteinuria

Term
what is the vaccine protocol for infectious canine hepatitis?
Definition

§  MLV
·         upon intake
·         CAV-2 vx provides cross protection without reaction
·         Canine adenovirus type 1 vx-can cause anterior uveitis/nephritis
·         same vx schedule as distemper
·         6-8 weeks then q2-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks
·         booster 1 yr then q1-3 yrs depending on risk

 

Term
what are the signs and cause of canine leptospirosis?
Definition

o   L interrogans sensu stricto and kirschneri

o   zoonotic

o   direct contact with urine, venereal contact, placenta, bites, ingesting tissue

o   indirect contact via contaminated water, bedding, soil, recent flooding

o   rodent and wild animal reservoirs

o   clinical signs

§  fever, depression, anorexia, muscle pain

§  acute hepatic/renal failure

§  DIC

Term
how is canine lepto diagnosed?
Definition

o   UA, chemistries

§  serology- serology microscopic agglutination test (very specific)

Term
how is leptospirosis prevented?
Definition

§  immunization reduces incidence and severity, not carrier state

§  short duration of immunity, 6-8 months

§  vx highly allergenic

·         anaphylaxis, treat and discontinue use

·         avoid in mini daschunds? (lepto and corona-containing vx had higher rates of rxn; individually seems to be better)

·         combo w/other killed products>anaphylaxis

§  NO CROSS PROTECTION between serovars

§  >9 weeks then q 2-4 weeks for 2-3 doses

§  every 6-12 months for adults based on risk (hunting kennels or herding groups)

Term
who should not be given the leptospirosis vx?
Definition

non-core. assess risk

avoid in daschunds, dogs prone to vx allergies

Term
what makes up canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
Definition

o   canine cough complex

o   virus

§  Parainfluenza, adenovirus, canine distemper, herpesvirus, influenza

o   bacteria

§  bordetella bronchiseptica

§  streptococcus

o   mycoplasma

Term
how is canine infectious tracheobronchitis spread?
Definition

§  highly contagious via aerosol spread

§  fomite transmission

§  incubation 3-10, mostly 5-7 days

§  group confinement is a huge risk factor

 

Term
what are the signs of canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
Definition
§  mild, cough; horrible pneumonia, can be fatal
Term
what is the vx protocol for canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
Definition

§  MLV-IN
§  combo w/ bordetella
§  stims IgA, CMI, INF
§  no maternal Ab interference
§  as early as 3 weeks of age


§  MLV-parental
·         2 doses 2-4 weeks apart
·         Da2LPP
·         takes longer for protection

 

Term
what is the vx protocol for bordetella?
Definition

 

§  parenteral

§  killed

§  2 doses, 2-4 weeks apart or 7-14 days pre-board

§  zoonotic potential

§  vx rxn possible

Term
describe canine influenza including the susceptible breed and season.
Definition

o   novel influenza H3N8

o   similar to kennel cough

o   greyhounds seem to get sicker than others

o   no seasonal component

o   no relation to Parainfluenza, no cross protection

 

Term
who should be vaccinated against canine influenza?
Definition
greyhounds, dogtrack, dog shows
Term
describe canine parvovirus including signs.
Definition

o   CPV-2b

§  fecal-oral

§  virus survives many months

§  fomite and enviro contamination

§  signs begin in 4-7 days

§  disease in pups<1 yr esp <6 months

o   clinical signs

§  anorex, depression, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration

§  endotoxemia, sepsis with hypothermia, icterus, DIC, death

 

Term
what breeds are susceptible to canine parvovirus?
Definition

o   breeds-dobermans, rotties, pit bulls, german sheps, labs (black and tans)

§  pretty much everyone is susceptible

Term
how is canine parvovirus prevented?
Definition

§  maternal Ab interference

§  vaccinate on intake to group housing

§  period of susceptibility

§  killed and MLV (better)

§  conventional vx (1980’s) not as effective. vx out to 22 weeks

§  newer ones: hi titer, low passage, not as attenuated, vx out to 16 weeks. overcomes maternal Ab

Term
describe canine coronavirus including signs
Definition

§  fecal-oral

§  often sub-clinical, can have epizootics

§  CCV shed in feces for months

§  can be asymptomatic

§  v/d, afebrile

Term
how is canine coronavirus prevented?
Definition

§  before bitch is bred to boost maternal Ab. otherwise, don’t bother.
§  careful if in combo with lepto-rxns
§  killed vx

 

 

Term
describe lyme disease, who should be vx'd, dx, and prevention
Definition

o   killed whole cell

o   recombinant outer surface protein

o   bacterin

o   traveling outside of SE

o   western blot or snap test

o   vaccination in groups at risk

o   tick control

Term
when submitting a head for diagnosis for rabies:
Definition
do not freeze
Term
describe rabies.
Definition

o   highly fatal encephalitis in humans

o   transmitted in saliva, bite

o   incidence in cats>dogs

o   virus labile outside host

o   travels along peripheral nerves

o   2-8, up to 24 week incubation

o   virus shedding in saliva occurs usually <10 days before signs

o   phases:

§  prodromal phase

§  furious phase

§  paralytic phase

§  atypical

 

 

Term
what is the rabies vx protocol?
Definition

o   vaccinate at 12-16 weeks, repeat in 1 year

o   1-3 year duration of immunity, challenge

o   some 1 and 3 yr vaccines are same, some different

o   killed product, ++Ag, ++adjuvant

§  anaphylaxis

§  cutaneous vasculitis

§  granuloma

o   keep dogs house together vaccinated/vaccinate on exit from shelters

Term
which feline disease is primarily the reason for the "4 feet apart" rule?
Definition
feline upper respiratory disease
Term
how is feline upper respiratory disease spread?
Definition

§  sneezing

§  direct contact, oral, nasal, ocular, FOMITES

§  aerosol

§  FCalici survives 8-10 days in enviro

Term
what are the signs of feline upper respiratory disease?
Definition

o   herpes and calici: anorex, depression, fever, oro-nasal discharge

o   FHV

§  URI more severe

§  corneal involvement

§  intermittent shedding post infect

o   FCV

§  oral ulceration, more mild URI

§  myalgia/arthralgia

§  persistent shedding

Term
what is the sign of chlamydiophila in cats?
Definition

o   conjunctivitis

Term
what is the primary infectious cattery problem?
Definition
bordetella
Term
describe panleukopenia
Definition

o   parvovirus

o   shed in all secretions

o   survives in enviro for 1 yr

o   hits rapidly dividing tissue

o   kittins-anorex, depression, fever, v/d/, cerebellar hypoplasia, thymic atrophy, fading kitten syndrome

o   dx:signs, blood smear: no white blood cells

o   vaccinate prior to intake

o   MLV, killed, parenteral

o   cats susceptible to CPV-2b as well, some cross protection

Term
describe feline leukemia
Definition

o   intimate oro-nasal contact with infected saliva, transplacental, milk borne

o   signs: immunosuppression, lymphoma

o   snap test

o   testing is the most important thing in group housing

o   core in kittens

 

Term
describe FIV
Definition

o   lentivirrus

o   1º bite wounds

o   can be iatrogenic

o   isolate positive cats

o   neoplasia, ocular inflam

o   snap test, western blot, PCR,

o   test everyone in household prior to introduction

o   killed, adjuvanted, whole virus vaccine

Term
describe FIP
Definition

o   group confinement, RELATED to each other (genetically susceptible)

o   vx-IN at 16 weeks of age,

o   AAFP does NOT recommend this vx (efficacy not established)

o   use good hygiene

Term
what are the four objectives of vaccination according to the AAFP?
Definition
  1. Vaccinate the largest possible number of animals in the population at risk
  2. Vaccinate each animal no more frequently than necessary
  3. Vaccinate only against infectious agents to which individuals have a realistic risk of exposure, infection and subsequent development of disease.
  4. Vaccinate only when the potential benefits of the procedure outweigh the potential risks
Term
what are the core vaccines in horses?
Definition
tetanus, encephalomyelitis, rabies
Term
what are the classic signs of tetanus in a horse?
Definition

§  stiff gait, third eyelid prolapse, facial muscle spasm, sawhorse stance, excessive response to external stim, recumbency

Term
what is the treatment for tetanus in a horse?
Definition

§  tx: sedatives, tetanus antitoxins, muscle relaxants

Term
what is the vx protocol for tetanus in horses?
Definition

§  ALL horses should be vaccinated annually.
§  toxoid vx is safe and provides good protection.
§  antitoxin for previously unvaccinated horses or neonates
·         can cause hepatitis
§  booster if open wound or surgical procedure >6monst since last vx
§  begin at 6 months of age if foal received colostrum

Term
what are the signs of viral encephalomyelitis?
Definition

§  fever, muscle fasciculations (esp face), weakness, ataxia, flaccid paralysis, cranial nerve deficits, changes in mentation

Term
what is the vx protocol for EEE?
Definition

§  boost every 4-6 months here, every 6 months outside of florida

§  naïve horses: 2 vaccinations 3-4 weeks apart

§  time to booster: 1 month prior to peak mosquito season

Term
what is the vx protocol for West nile encephalitis?
Definition

·         broodmares: boost 30 days prior to foaling

·         foals: 3-4 months of age, 3 vx

Term
what are the signs of rabies in a horse?
Definition

§  signs: anything. dumb form (obtunded), ascending paralysis (ataxia on up), furious form (aggressive)

Term
what is the vx protocol for rabies in horses?
Definition

§  annual vaccine-2mL IM

§  foals

·         begin at 6 months

·         boost 4-6 weeks later

·         boost at 10-12 mos

Term
what are the "risk based" vx in horses?
Definition
influenza, equine herpes, strangles, botulism, potomac horse fever, EVA, rotavirus, equine infectious anemia, piroplasmosis
Term
what is most important in treating a horse with influenza?
Definition
rest is essential, do not cheat this, need to regen epithelium
Term
what is the vx protocol for equine influenza?
Definition

§  every 6-12 months vx

§  broodmares: IM vx last 30 days of pregnancy

§  vx foals at 6 months of age

Term
what are the signs of equine influenza and what makes a horse susceptible?
Definition
  • susceptible population < 3 yrs old
  • stressful conditions/travel
  • hi fever, cough, lethargy, depression, reduced appetite, muscle soreness
Term
what are the two types of equine herpes?
Definition

§  EHV-1-abortion at 7-9mos in gestation, neonatal death, neuro, resp disease

·         fever and nasal discharge prior to neuro signs

·         viremia and vasculitis

§  EHV-4-respiratory

·         2-10 day incubation, shed for 2-3 weeks

·         common in weanlings and yearlings

Term
what is the vx protocol for equine herpes virus?
Definition

§  foals and weanlings-start between 4-6 months

·         vx then 4 weeks later, 10-12 months

·         yearlings-every 6 months

§  broodmares: 5, 7, 9 mons of pregnancy, and 30 days prior to foaling for colostral immunity

§  use vx with both types

Term
what are the signs of strangles?
Definition

§  fever, l.n. enlargement, abscessation, purulent nasal discharge, resp distress due to retropharyngeal lymph node enlargement

Term
how is strangles handled?
Definition

§  isolate horses with fever ASAP

§  shedding of bacteria does not begin until 1-2 days after onset of pyrexia

§  use PCR and culture of pharynx/guttural pouch

§  6 weeks after clinical signs resolve, guttural pouch clear, and samples are negative means the infection is over

 

§  hygiene is crucial

·         protective clothing

·         gloves, booties

·         foot bathes

·         disinfect stables/transport

·         rest pastures for 4 weeks

Term
why is culture a poor way of diagnosing strangles?
Definition
Strep equi can overpower the culture, so this is a good method too
Term
what is the vx protocol for strangles?
Definition

·         previously affected farms
·         young horses
·         M-protein based given IM
o   booster 1-2 times a year
o   can cause abscesses at injection site
o   start 4-6 months of age
·         IN may be more effective, can NOT use for colostral immunity
o   start 6-9 months of age 

Term
in which horse disease are titers useful?
Definition
strangles
Term
what botulism types are vaccinated against where?
Definition
  •   type B and C
  •   KY, PA, mid-atlantic seaboard states

 

Term
describe potomac horse fever including signs and season/geography
Definition

§  neoricketsii risticii

§  eastern US and CA

§  july to September

§  severe diarrhea and febrile

§  profound laminitis

Term
describe equine infectious anemia including acute/chronic signs, transmission, and diagnosis
Definition

o   virus

o   biting flies, needles

o   acute: fever, depression, patechiae

o   chronic: icterus, anemia, dependent edema

o   Coggin’s test or ELISA

Term
what is piroplasmosis also known as, and how is it spread?
Definition
  • Babesia equi and caballi
  • ticks/needles
Term
describe the neuro form of equine herpesvirus
Definition
  • can be fatal
  • no vaccine against this form
  • greatest cause for concern at boarding facilities, ractracks, horse shows
  • resp signs 1-2 weeks prior
  • stress triggered
  • attack spinal cord and brain
  • hind end weakness, incoordination, toe-dragging, dog-sitting, urinary/fecal incontinence
Term
what is the route of infection of equine herpes?
Definition
respiratory
Term
describe EVA
Definition
  • equine viral arteritis
  • fever, depression, limb and mammary edema, abortion, nasal discharge, urticaria, conjunctivitis
  • spread by resp or semen
  • Ab test
  • vx males before breeding, females before breeding with carrier stallions
Term
where does anoplocephala perfoliata live?
Definition
ileocecal valve
Term
describe small strongyles
Definition
  • larvae migrate in cecum/colon walls for 4-6 weeks
  • mature and encyst cyathostomes are not significant in causing disease
  • colic, diarrhea, ill thrift
  • fibrous cysts in mucosa 
  • adults in mucosa do not cause significant disease
  • september to march in florida
  • 2 month interval ivermectin, 3 month interval moxidectin will eliminate, but not practical
Term
describe large strongyles
Definition
  • vulgaris-lining of arteries of intestine
  • edentatus-liver and peritoneum
  • equinus-liver and pancreas
  • can go to aorta
  • twice annual treatment
Term
describe ascarids
Definition

o   adult horses develop immunity, can be deadly to foals

o   live in SI, lymphatics, lungs, cough, reswallow

o   pot belly

o   rough hair coat

o   weight loss, coughing, diarrhea

o   deworm at 60 days of age. 

Term
why should you deworm foals at 60 days for ascarids?
Definition
earlier would be be effective bc it would not kill migrating larvae
Term
what can tapeworms cause and what is the preferred treatment?
Definition

§  spasmodic colic

§  intussusceptions

§  ileal impactions

o  t tx: praziquantel

Term

describe gastrophilus intestinalis

 

Definition
  • botflies
  • eggs stuck in leg hair, horses bite and swallow them
  • tx: remove bot eggs from legs
  • ivermectin or moxidectin
  • not that pathological
Term
describe stomach worms
Definition
  • Habronema muscae, microstoma, Draschia megastoma 
  • o   transmitted by stable flies
  • o   no significant internal damage
  • o   cutaneous infectionsà granulomas
  • §  eyes, sheath, ventral midline
  • o   treat with ivermection, may need steroids for inflam

 

Term
describe Oxyuris equi
Definition

pinworms

o  live in small colon

o   female cements eggs to skin of anus
o   diagnosis problems:
§  usually found as adult worms
§  difficult to find on fecal float

o   do a tape prep around the anus, or get feces from rectum
o   fenbendazole
o   ivermectin and moxidectin-some resistance

Term
describe strongyloides westeri
Definition

threadworms

o   foals 5 days to 4 months, not adults

o   cause of diarrhea

o   infection via milk

§  stress of foaling induces larval activation in dam

o   parasite resides in small intestine

o   deworm mare before foaling or day of with macrocyclic lactones, treat foals as needed

Term
describe distyocaulus arnfieldi
Definition

·         lungworms 

o   donkeys can harbor infec with no clinical signs

o   horses will develop cough, decreased performance

o   treat with ivermectin

o   need exposure to donkeys usually

o   Baer float or get it out of respiratory tract

Term
what are the parasite concerns for adult horses?
Definition

o   small and large strongyles

o   tapeworms

o   gastrophilus

o   oxyuris

Term
what are the parasite concerns for foals?
Definition

o   threadworms and ascarids

Term
what is the concept of refugia?
Definition

o   “wild type” parasites that have not been subjected to anthelmintic pressures and thus lack resistance genes
o   minimal deworming favors their survival
o   resistance as emerging problem
§  use fecal egg reduction testing to determine the effective dose

Term
what is a good FECR test, and what does it mean?
Definition
above 90%, means there is no resistance
Term
what is the "1-2-3" rule?
Definition
  • 1 hour to stand
  • 2 hours to nurse
  • 3 hours to pass placenta
Term
what is normal behavior in a newborn foal?
Definition

o   sternal recumbency in 2 minutes

o   standing in 1 hour

o   suckle reflex in 30 min

o   nursing from mare within 2 hours

Term
what should a neonatal foal PE include?
Definition
  • fist 12-24 hours, record trends
  • temp (hypothermia in sick foals)
  • cardiac auscult (PDA, innocent flow murmurs, VSD)
  • mm
  • resp rate (80-->30rpm), may hear crackles
  • umbilical care
  • enema w/ warm soapy water for meconium
  • colostrum-2 liters in first 24 hours, first 2 hours critical
  • IgG measure 12-24 hours (transfusion if needed)
  • tetanus antitoxin if mare not properly vx'd
  • antimicrobial therapy if risk of septicemia
Term
when should you do a transfusion on a foal?
Definition

·         if IgG<800mg/dl consider transfusion
·         if IgG<400mg/dl, definite transfusion

Term
how should the umbilicus be cared for in a neonatal foal?
Definition

1:4 chlorhex for 30 sec. 

NEVER tincture iodine

Term
is there a vaccine for canine adenovirus?
Definition
type 2 is cross-protective. type 1 vx causes uveitis and nephritis
Term
cows should have a ____d calving cycle with breeding season beginning _____d after calving
Definition

365d

60d

Term
how do you minimize navel sucking?
Definition
separate genders and wean at a later age
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