Term
Polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss
Hyperglycemia and glucosuria with or without ketonuria |
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Definition
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Term
No disease other than __________ presents with continued frequent urination in spite of a dry tongue. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you diagnose DM in peds? (ie. random blood glucose levels) |
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Definition
A random blood glucose level above 300 mg/dL (16.6 mmol/L) or a fasting blood glucose level above 200 mg/dL (11 mmol/L) is sufficient to make the diagnosis of diabetes. |
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Term
Why do you give insulin to DM patient? What are its functions? |
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Definition
Insulin has three key functions: (1) it allows glucose to pass into the cell; (2) it decreases the physiologic production of glucose, particularly in the liver; and (3) it turns off ketone production |
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Term
- Arthritis, involving pain, swelling, warmth, tenderness, morning stiffness, and decreased range of motion of one or more joints, lasting 6–12 weeks.
- May have associated systemic manifestations, including fever, rash, uveitis, serositis, anemia, fatigue, and growth failure
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Definition
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis |
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Term
What do labs values for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis typically show? |
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Definition
significantly elevated markers of inflammation including ESR, C-reactive protein (CRP), white blood cell count, and platelets |
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Term
What is tx for juvenile RA?
first line?
second line? |
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Definition
first line: NSAIDS second line: methotrexate |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Talipe equivonarus is also called... |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three features of talipes equivonarus? |
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Definition
(1) plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint (equinus), (2) inversion deformity of the heel (varus), and (3) medial deviation of the forefoot (varus) |
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Term
What is tx for club foot? |
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Definition
Treatment consists of manipulation of the foot to stretch the contracted tissues on the medial and posterior aspects, followed by splinting to hold the correction. When treatment is instituted shortly after birth, correction is rapid. When treatment is delayed, the foot tends to become more rigid within a matter of days. After full correction is obtained, a night brace is necessary for long-term maintenance of correction. |
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Term
What time of year is rotovirus annoying? |
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Definition
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Term
ALL
What is an associated syndrome?
How do you diagnose? |
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Definition
What is an associated syndrome? Down Syndrome How do you diagnose? bone marrow confirms
The diagnosis of ALL is made by bone marrow examination, which shows a homogeneous infiltration of leukemic blasts replacing normal marrow elements. The morphology of blasts on bone marrow aspirate can usually distinguish ALL from acute myeloid leukemia |
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Term
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Definition
The drugs most commonly used in induction include oral prednisone or dexamethasone, intravenous vincristine and daunorubicin, intramuscular asparaginase, and intrathecal methotrexate. For T-cell ALL, intravenous cyclophosphamide may be added during induction.
Consolidation is the second phase of treatment, during which intrathecal chemotherapy along with continued systemic therapy and sometimes cranial radiation therapy are given to kill lymphoblasts "hiding" in the meninges. Several months of intensive chemotherapy follows consolidation. This intensification has led to improved survival in pediatric ALL. |
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Term
- Painless cervical (70–80%) or supraclavicular (25%) adenopathy; mediastinal mass (50%).
- Fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, fever, night sweats, pruritus, cough
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Definition
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Term
What type of cells are associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
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Definition
The diagnosis of Hodgkin disease requires the histologic presence of the Reed-Sternberg cell or its variants in tissue. Reed-Sternberg cells are germinal-center B cells that have undergone malignant transformation. |
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Term
Whats's the difference between hemophilia a and b? |
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Definition
Hemophilia A: congenital deficiency of coagulation factor VIII
Hemophilia B: congenital deficiency of coagulation factor IX |
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Term
- Anemia and jaundice.
- Splenomegaly.
- Positive family history of anemia, jaundice, or gallstones.
- Spherocytosis with increased reticulocytes.
- Increased osmotic fragility.
- Negative direct antiglobulin test
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Definition
congenital hemolytic anemia |
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Term
What cells are common to see in hemolytic anemia?
What is treatment? |
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Definition
Spherocytes are frequently present in persons with immune hemolysis.
give folic acid to prevent the development of red cell hypoplasia due to folate deficiency |
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Term
- Greasy, bulky, malodorous stools; failure to thrive.
- Recurrent respiratory infections.
- Digital clubbing on examination.
- Bronchiectasis on chest imaging.
- Sweat chloride > 60 mmol/L
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Definition
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Term
CR
what type of genetic disease?
What is virtually diagnostic of CF at birth? |
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Definition
autosomal recessive disease chromosome 7
virtually diagnostic: meconium ileus |
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Term
What is the cornerstone of tx for CF (specifically related to GI?)
What vitamin supplementation? |
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Definition
pancreatic enzyme supplementation. Persons with CF are required to take pancreatic enzyme capsules immediately prior to each meal and with snacks.
Individuals should also take daily multivitamins that contain vitamins A, D, E, and K. Moreover, caloric supplements are often added to the patient's diet to optimize growth. |
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Term
What is tx for CF related to pulmonary? |
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Definition
inhaled mucolytic agent, recombinant human DNAse (Pulmozyme), inhaled tobramycin (TOBI), and oral azithromycin for those with chronic Pseudomonas infection. |
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Term
Infantile spasms
aka ??
what is usual age of onset?
Clinical manifestation?
Causative factors? |
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Definition
West Syndrome
what is usual age of onset? 3-18 months Clinical manifestation? sudden symmetrical adduction or flexion of limbs with flexion of had and trunk; occur in clusters Causative factors? acuired CNS injury, symptomatic, TORCHES, etc. |
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Term
What organism causes erythasma?
How do you diagnose?
Clinical findings:
Tx: |
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Definition
Corynebacterium minutissimum
Diagnosis: Clinical findings, absence of fungi on direct microscopy, positive Wood lamp examination
Clinical findings: Distribution: intertriginous areas of webspaces of feet, groins, axillae, submammary areas Clinical findings: well-demarcated red or tan patches, ± scale
Tx: Benzoyl peroxide (2.5%) gel daily, after showering, for 7 days. Topical erythromycin or clindamycin solution twice daily for 7 days. Sodium fusidate ointment, mupirocin ointment or cream. Topical antifungal agents; clotrimazole, miconazole, or econazole. |
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Term
What is it?
Where does it typically occur?
How do you treat?
group A streptococcal cellulitis involving the skin to the level of the dermis. The plaque is typically erythematous, edematous, and painful, with an elevated, well-demarcated border. The associated edema tends to make the plaque appear shiny. |
|
Definition
erysipelas
typically occurs: face and lower extremities
tx:Mild presentations may be treated on an outpatient basis with oral dicloxacillin, penicillin, or erythromycin. More severe illness or toxicity requires hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics (nafcillin, oxacillin, cefazolin, or penicillin). |
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Term
loss of hair in a localized area is called: |
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Definition
alopecia areata
most common cause of hair loss in children. An immunologic pathogenic mechanism is suspected because dense infiltration of lymphocytes precedes hair loss.
tx: 95% of pts will regrow hair in 12 months |
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Term
painful grouped vesicles or erosions on a red base suggest |
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Definition
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Term
What is test done to diagnose herpes simplex infection?
Where are HSV 1 lesions most commonly seen in infants and children? |
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Definition
tzanck smear
HSV 1 children and infants: gingiva, lips, and face |
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Term
Klinefelter is what type of syndrome?
How would patient present?
Treatment? |
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Definition
sex chromosome abnormality
The characteristic findings after puberty include microorchidism associated with otherwise normal external genitalia, azoospermia, sterility, gynecomastia, normal to borderline IQ, diminished facial hair, lack of libido and potency, and a tall, eunuchoid build
Treatment: males require testosterone replacement therapy |
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Term
Newborns with ______ syndrome may have webbed neck, edema of the hands and feet, coarctation of the aorta, and a characteristic triangular facies. Later symptoms include short stature, a shield chest with wide-set nipples, streak ovaries, amenorrhea, absence of secondary sex characteristics, and infertility. Some affected girls, particularly those with mosaicism, have only short stature and amenorrhea, without dysmorphic features. |
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Definition
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Term
What is tx for Turner Syndrome? |
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Definition
estrogen replacement therapy will permit development of secondary sex characteristics and normal menstruation and prevent osteoporosis therapy for teenage pts |
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Term
What is normal serum calcium?
What are typical symptoms of hypocalcemia? |
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Definition
normal serum calcium concentration is approximately 8.9–10.2 mg/dL,
hypocalcemia: tetany, photophobia, blepharospasm, and diarrhea. The symptoms of tetany are numbness, muscle cramps, twitching of the extremities, carpopedal spasm, and laryngospasm. Tapping the face in front of the ear causes facial spasms (Chvostek sign). |
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Term
What is tx for hypocalcemia? |
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Definition
administration of intravenous calcium gluconate or calcium chloride; 10 mg/kg is the usual dose in acute treatment. |
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Term
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Definition
term describing the characteristic clinical and bony radiologic features associated with vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D deficiency caused by lack of sunlight exposure or dietary deficiency is the most common cause of rickets. Occult vitamin D deficiency is probably more common than is presently recognized. Rickets can also be caused by defects in the metabolism of vitamin D including liver disease (impaired 25-hydroxylation), kidney disease (impaired 1-hydroxylation of 25-(OH) vitamin D), genetic deficiency of 1α-hydroxylase (vitamin D–dependent rickets), or end-organ resistance to vitamin D (vitamin D–resistant rickets). |
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Term
Nervousness, emotional lability, hyperactivity, fatigue, tremor, palpitations, excessive appetite, weight loss, increased perspiration, and heat intolerance.
Goiter, exophthalmos, tachycardia, widened pulse pressure, systolic hypertension, weakness, and smooth, moist, warm skin.
TSH is suppressed. Thyroid hormone levels (T4, FT4, T3, T3RU) are elevated.
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Definition
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Term
What are initial meds used for tx of hyperthroidism?
What disease is associated with hyperthyroism? |
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Definition
grave's disease
Methimazole is initiated at a dose of 10–60 mg/d (0.5-1 mg/kg/d) given once a day. PTU is started at a dose of 150–600 mg/d (5-10 mg/kg/d) in three divided doses.
Beta adrenergic therapy is indicated as adjunct therapy |
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Term
skin-colored papules with rough surfaces. They are intraepidermal tumors caused by infection with human papillomavirus (HPV).
What is it?
How do you treat? |
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Definition
Verrucae (means rough)
Liquid nitrogen is often used to treat common (vulgaris) warts. The treated lesion should stay white for 20 seconds. The patient should be seen at treatment intervals of 2–3 weeks. Longer times between treatments result in lower efficacy. |
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Term
Whats the patho causing Acute Rheumatic Fever? |
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Definition
When a susceptible host encounters a group A streptococcus, an autoimmune reaction results, which leads to damage to human tissues as a result of cross-reactivity between epitopes on the organism and the host |
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Term
What valve is usually affected by acute rheumatic fever?
What is the hallmark of the disease? |
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Definition
mitral
hallmark: valvular involvement
Over ensuing years, usually as a result of recurrent episodes, leaflet thickening, scarring, calcification, and valvular stenosis may develop. Pericarditis most commonly causes a friction rub or a small effusion on echocardiography and may occasionally cause pleuritic central chest pain. |
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Term
What is this?
Intraocular pressure will be elevated (20 mm Hg). The cornea will appear enlarged, and, often, cloudy and edematous. Children <1 year of age should not have a corneal diameter >12 mm, and no child should have a corneal diameter >13 mm.11 There is associated blepharospasm, red infected eye, and myopia. The globe may appear enlarged. If the optic disc can be visualized, abnormal cupping or asymmetry may be found
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Definition
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Term
What's the tx for congenital glaucoma? |
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Definition
Medical therapy of pediatric glaucoma is temporizing to decrease intraocular pressure while awaiting definitive surgical repair. Acetazolamide (3 milligrams/kg, PO every 6 hours) can be used for short periods of time but may cause metabolic acidosis. Pediatric doses are prepared by crushing the tablets used for adults. |
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Term
What is it? What do you do?
Leukocoria, poor fixation, and strabismus or nystagmus (or both) may be the presenting complaints. Absence of a red reflex in the newborn should suggest the possibility of _______ |
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Definition
CATARACT
This requires an urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. |
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Term
The fascia of the eyelids joins with the fibrous orbital septum to isolate the orbit from the lids.
The orbital septum helps to decrease the risk of an eyelid infection from extending into the orbit.
Infections arising anterior to the orbital septum are termed preseptal.
Orbital cellulitis denotes infection posterior to the orbital septum and may cause serious complications, such as an acute ischemic optic neuropathy or cerebral abscess.
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Definition
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Term
present with erythematous and edematous eyelids, pain, and mild fever. The vision, eye movements, and eye itself are normal. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you tell the difference between preseptal and orbital cellulitits? |
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Definition
Decreased vision, restricted eye movements, and an afferent papillary defect suggest orbital cellulitis.
Children with preseptal cellulitis often present with erythematous and edematous eyelids, pain, and mild fever. |
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Term
What's the tx for preseptal and orbital cellulitits? |
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Definition
Therapy for preseptal and orbital cellulitis infection is with systemic antibiotics. Treatment of orbital infections may require surgical drainage for subperiosteal abscess in conjunction with intravenous antibiotics. Drainage of infected sinuses is often part of the therapy. |
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Term
What medications can you use for allergic rhinitis?
what are you asking about when pt says they think they have a cold? |
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Definition
ask about: nasal congestion, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and itchy nose, palate, throat, and eyes.
everal classes of medications have proven effective in treating allergic rhinitis symptoms, including intranasal corticosteroids, oral and intranasal antihistamines, leukotriene antagonists, and decongestants. |
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Term
Hyperdynamic precordium.
Widened pulse pressure.
Hypotension.
Presence of a systolic heart murmur in many cases.
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Definition
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Term
What are some intranasal corticosteroids for allergic rhinitis?
Whats good if six months? |
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Definition
Flonace Nasonex Nasocort AQ--good if 6 months |
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Term
Enteropathogens elicit noninflammatory diarrhea through enterotoxin production by some bacteria, destruction of villus (surface) cells by viruses, adherence by parasites, and adherence and/or translocation by bacteria. Inflammatory diarrhea is usually caused by bacteria that directly invade the intestine or produce cytotoxins with consequent fluid, protein, and cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes) that enter the intestinal lumen. Some enteropathogens possess more than one virulence property. Some viruses, such as rotavirus, target the microvillous tips of the enterocytes and can enter the cells by either direct invasion or calcium-dependent endocytosis. This can result in villus shortening and loss of enterocyte absorptive surface through cell shortening and loss of microvilli |
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Definition
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Term
Clinically determine the etiology of diarrhea for institution of prompt antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Although nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms, they are indicative of infection in the upper intestine. Fever is suggestive of an inflammatory process but also occurs as a result of dehydration or co-infection (e.g., urinary tract infection, otitis media). Fever is common in patients with inflammatory diarrhea. Severe abdominal pain and tenesmus are indicative of involvement of the large intestine and rectum. Features such as nausea and vomiting and absent or low-grade fever with mild to moderate periumbilical pain and watery diarrhea are indicative of small intestine involvement and also reduce the likelihood of a serious bacterial infection. |
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Definition
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Term
What age group is usually affected by absence seizures?
What is tx?
|
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Definition
age group 3-12 years
tx: valproic acid, lamotrigine or ethosuximide |
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Term
What age group is affected by febrile seizures?
what is tx? |
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Definition
age group three months to 5 years
tx: treat underlying illness
diazepam orally
if prolonged seizures: diastat rectally |
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Term
Contraindications to Breastfeeding: |
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Definition
HIV infection Active TB certain types of chemo meds: iodine, SSRI Breast Cancer Illicit drug use galactosemia: part of newborn drug screen |
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Term
Causes of diarrhea in newborn: |
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Definition
celiac disease Toddler's diarrhea: juice AGE: acute gastroenteritis Milk protein intolerance Allergies CF: affects ability to absorbe in GI tract |
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Term
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Definition
five servings fruits and veggies 2 hours screen time 1 hour physical activity |
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Term
At what age can a toddler typically start to be potty trained?
why is that? whats going on developmentally? |
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Definition
toddlers have the sensory capacity for awareness of a full rectum or bladder and are physically able to control bowel and urinary tract sphincters.
18 months |
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Term
What medications are used for depression in a child six yers and older? |
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Definition
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Term
what is the black box working on SSRIs in children? What is tx for depression? |
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Definition
—SSRI’s (black box warning)-suicidality/increase in suicidal thoughts-SSRI kicks in 2-3 weeks FDA approved; fluoxetine (Prozac) MDD (>8yo), OCD (>7yo), start at 5 or 10mg titrate up slowly. Max-30mg/daily. Taper to d/c. escitalopram (Lexapro) MDD (>12yo) Max-20mg/daily. Taper to d/c. |
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Term
|
Definition
PKU Galactosemia congenital hypothyroidism sickle cell diseas cystic fibrosis hearing screening |
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Term
What are the two types of pathologic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia? |
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Definition
can be grouped into two main categories: overproduction of bilirubin or decreased conjugation of bilirubin |
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Term
WHen is puberty considered precocious in females?
caucasians
African Americans
Hispanic |
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Definition
Puberty is considered precocious in girls if the onset of secondary sexual characteristics occurs before age 8 years (7 years for African-American and Hispanic girls |
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Term
What's the difference btw GnRH dependant and GnRH independant causes for precocious puberty? |
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Definition
GnRH dependant: activation of the hypothalamic GnRH pulse generator, an increase in gonadotropin secretion, and a resultant increase in production of sex steroids examples: hypothalamic hamartomas, CNS tumors, cranial irradiation, hydrocephalus, and trauma
GnRH independant: occurs independent of gonadotropin secretion Examples: ovarian or adrenal tumors, ovarian cysts, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, McCune-Albright syndrome, or exogenous estrogen. |
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Term
What's the normal progression of female development/puberty? |
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Definition
reast development, followed by pubic hair growth and menarche
telarche, pubarche, menarch |
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Term
Whats the tx for central precocious puberty? |
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Definition
Girls with central precocious puberty can be treated with GnRH analogues that downregulate pituitary GnRH receptors and thus decrease gonadotropin secretion. Currently, the two most common GnRH analogues used are (1) leuprolide, which is given as a monthly intramuscular injection or (2) histrelin subdermal implant, which is replaced annually. |
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Term
What labs/tests do you do if you suspect precocious puberty? |
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Definition
One of the first steps in evaluating a child with early pubertal development is obtaining a radiograph of the left hand and wrist to determine skeletal maturity (bone age).
In central precocious puberty, the basal serum concentrations of FSH and LH may still be in the prepubertal range. Thus, documentation of the maturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis depends on demonstrating a pubertal LH response after stimulation with a GnRH agonist.
In peripheral precocious puberty, basal serum FSH and LH are low, and the LH response to GnRH stimulation is suppressed by feedback inhibition of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis by the autonomously secreted gonadal steroids |
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Term
At what age in a male is it considered precocious puberty? |
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Definition
Puberty is considered precocious in boys if secondary sexual characteristics appear before age 9 years. |
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Term
In all boys with central precocious puberty, what tests should be done? |
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Definition
cranial MRI should be obtained to evaluate for a CNS abnormality. Ultrasonography may be useful in detecting hepatic, adrenal, and testicular tumors. |
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Term
When can you diagnose failure to thrive? whats criteria? |
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Definition
The diagnosis also is warranted if a child younger than age 6 months has not grown for 2 consecutive months or if a child older than age 6 months has not grown for 3 consecutive months. |
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Term
What are the 3 types of failure to thrive? |
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Definition
Type I: the head circumference is preserved and the weight is depressed more than the height. This most common type results from inadequate caloric intake, excessive loss of calories, or inability to use calories peripherally. Most cases of type I deficiencies are the result of poverty, lack of caregiver understanding, poor caregiver-child interaction, abnormal feeding patterns, or a combination of factors.
Type II growth deficiency, which is associated with genetically determined short stature, endocrinopathies, constitutional growth delay, heart or renal disease, or various forms of skeletal dysplasias, is characterized by normal head circumference and proportionate diminution of height and weight.
Type III growth deficiency, all three parameters of growth—head circumference, weight, and height—are lower than normal. This pattern is associated with central nervous system abnormalities, chromosomal defects, and in utero or perinatal insults. |
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Term
What does the rash of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever look like? When in the course of the illness doe sit present? |
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Definition
On approximately the fourth day of fever, an eruption of erythematous blanching macules 2 to 6 mm in diameter appears on the wrists, ankles, palms, and soles. It spreads centripetally to the trunk, face, axillae, and buttocks. In 2 or 3 days, the lesions become maculopapular, assume a deep-red color, and finally become petechial hemorrhages that resolve with the usual color changes |
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Term
What is the tx for chemical conjunctivitis? |
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Definition
Irrigation with NS and should be treated after irrigation with erythromycin ointment four times daily and referred for an ophthalmologic examination in 24 to 48 hours. These patients are considered to have "chemical conjunctivitis."
A topical cycloplegic agent should be used three times daily for pain reduction if an epithelial defect is present. Avoid phenylephrine as a cycloplegic, as it will constrict blood vessels, causing further ischemia to the limbus. Apply erythromycin ophthalmic ointment four times daily to affected eyes. Administer tetanus toxoid as appropriate. |
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Term
What is tx for bacterial conjunctivitis in someone who wears contacts? in someone who doesnt wear contacts? |
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Definition
Trimethoprim and polymyxin B is very effective and avoids potential allergies to sulfa and neomycin preparations. Wearers of soft contact lenses should be treated with a fluoroquinolone (Ciloxan, Ocuflox) or aminoglycoside (Tobrex) to treat Pseudomonas. |
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Term
Continuous machinery type murmur |
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Definition
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Term
Grade I–III/VI systolic ejection murmur at the pulmonary area |
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Definition
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Term
Holosystolic murmur at lower left sternal border with RV heave |
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Definition
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Term
What is most common tx for bacterial endocarditis? |
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Definition
Vancomycin, with or without gentamicin, for a 6-week course is the most common regimen |
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Term
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Definition
Decreased paltelet and rest of blood levels are normal. tx: prednisone, avoid aspirin |
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Term
What is this? What is tx? Characteristically, a thriving infant 3–12 months of age develops recurring paroxysms of abdominal pain with screaming and drawing up of the knees. Vomiting and diarrhea occur soon afterward (90% of cases), and bloody bowel movements with mucus appear within the next 12 hours (50%). The child is characteristically lethargic between paroxysms and may be febrile. The abdomen is tender and often distended. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpated, usually in the upper mid abdomen |
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Definition
intussusception
Barium enema and air enema are both diagnostic and therapeutic. |
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Term
What are the perinatal congenital infectiosn you worry about? |
|
Definition
•Toxoplasmosis •Other (syphilis) •Rubella •Cytomegalovirus (CMV) •Herpes simplex virus (HSV) |
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Term
What do you use to treat pseudomonas infections in patients with cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
inhaled tobramycin (TOBI), and chronic oral azithromycin for those with chronic Pseudomonas infection. |
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Term
When do neonatal seizures typically present?
What are causes? |
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Definition
Usual onset at 12–48 hours. Seizure types include subtle (characterized by variable findings), tonic, and multifocal clonic. Most common causes include hypoxic-ischemic enceph-alopathy, intracranial bleeds, and infection. |
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Term
What's the difference between petechiae, purpura and echymosis? |
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Definition
Bleeding under the skin or into mucosal membranes is called purpura and may be an innocent finding related to mild childhood trauma or may be the presenting sign of a life threatening disease. Purpura can be subdivided based on size into petechiae and ecchymoses. Pinpoint areas (less than 2 mm) of hemorrhage, which are reddish-purple lesions are called petechiae while larger confluent lesions are referred to as ecchymoses |
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