Term
A woman early in her third trimester is found to be hypertensive and she requires treatment. What drug do you choose? |
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Definition
Use methyldopa in pregnancy!
Methyldopa is metabolized to an active a2 agonist, and acts as a central sympathoplegic drug |
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Term
A hypertensive patient decided to stop taking his medication because his controlled blood pressure had been normal for some time. He soon suffers a hypertensive crisis. What drug was likely stopped? |
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Definition
Sudden withdrawal of clonidine treatment can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. |
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Term
Which antihypertensive agent can commonly cause lupoid syndrome? |
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Definition
Hydralazine causes lupoid syndrome (malar rash etc.) in 20% of patients! |
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Term
What classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension? |
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Definition
the ABCDs are used to treat hypertension: ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Ca++ channel blockers
Diuretics (thiazides)
*vasodilators are also sometimes used (ex: nitroprusside)
Thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and Ca++ channel blockers are considered the first choice drugs unless contraindicated. |
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Term
You give a hypertensive a diuretic. Initially, his cardiac output decreases. After a few weeks, his cardiac output has returned to normal. Why? |
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Definition
Initially, diuretics cause a reduction of plasma volume. This reduces cardiac output. However, after a few weeks of continuous therapy with diuretics, there is a return of cardiac output associated with an arteriolar vasodilation. Recall that MAP = CO x TPR. The drop in TPR because of vasodilation allows the return of CO to normal values without increasing the blood pressure! Why this vasodilation? Na+ is lost due to continuous administration of diuretics, so intracellular fluid is lacking in sodium. This now favors the Ca/Na exchanger. Na+ is brought into the smooth muscle cells of arterioles and Ca++ is sent out, reducing contraction and causing vasodilation and a lowered TPR. |
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Term
How does clonidine reduce blood pressure? |
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Definition
Clonidine is an alpha-2 receptor agonist. It activates a2 receptors in the Nucleus Tractus Solitarius and Rostral Ventrolateral Medulla. It's action here decreases the central sympathetic tone, this reduces HR, contractility, vasoconstriction, causing a decrease in the mean arterial pressure!
Methyldopa is another centrally acting sympathoplegic drug that has a similar MoA. (first metabolized to an a2 agonist)
These drugs are 2nd choice drugs in the treatment of hypertension. |
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Term
What is the danger of withdrawing clonidine treatment too suddenly? |
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Definition
Sudden withdrawal of clonidine may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. Recall that clonidine blocks the central sympathetic system. This will lead to conpensatory up-regulation of sympathetic receptors (alpha and beta). When clonidine is withdrawn, the sympathetic effect will therefore be amplified, producing a dramatic increase in blood pressure. The treatment must be tapered off slowly! |
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Term
What are side effects of clonidine? |
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Definition
Clonidine is a centrally acting sympathoplegic drug. It often causes sedation, decreased REM sleep, bradycardia, xerostomia and sexual dysfunction.
(in fact, almost all antihypertensives can cause sexual dysfunction in males)
Methyldopa, the other centrally acting sympathoplegic (indirect) can also cause hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test), hyperprolactinemia, and hepatotoxicity. But methyldopa is the DOC for hypertension during pregnancy. |
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Term
Why is prazosin sometimes used in the treatment of hypertension? |
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Definition
Prazosin is an alpha-1 antagonist. Alpha-1 antagonists are rarely used in the treatment of hypertension nowadays. They work by selectively blocking the a1 receptors, leading to a decrease in TPR.
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Term
What are some adverse effects of the alpha-1 antagonists? |
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Definition
alpha-1 antagonists often cause postural hypotension. This is usually after the first dose of the drug, and is termed the "first dose phenomenon". This poses the risk of myocardial or cerebral ischemia and syncope. Because of this, the patient is usually started on 1/2 the normal dosage.
A1-blockers may also cause palpitations. Urinary incontinence may result because a1-blockage causes relaxation of the sphincter. As with most antihypertensives, sexual dysfunction may result, this can include priapism. |
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Term
What are the main mechanisms by which beta-blockers reduce blood pressure? |
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Definition
Beta-blockers decrease cardiac output (B1)
Beta blockers inhibit the renin-angiotensin system. (B1 receptors stimulate renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells)
Other mechanisms include reduction in NE release and reduction of central sympathetic tone. |
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Term
How do labetalol and Propranolol differ in their effects on HR, CO, venous tone, and risk of postural hypotension? |
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Definition
Propranolol is a non-specific beta-antagonist. Labetalol is an alpha-antagonist and partial beta-agonist.
HR: propranolol = decrease (b1)
labetalol = unchanged
CO: Propranolol = decrease (b1)
labetalol = unchanged
Venous tone: propranolol = unchanged
labetalol = decreased (a1)
Postural Hypotension: propranolol = negligible
labetalol = evident |
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Term
When would you use beta-blockers in the treatment of a hypertensive? |
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Definition
Beta blockers are used anytime that there is hypertension with a concomitant scenario where b-blockers would be effective. This includes:
1) hyperkinetic essential hypertension (due to increased CO, tachycardia etc.)
2) Supraventricular arrhythmias
3) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
4) Exertional angina
5) Post myocardial infarction
6) Hypertensive emergency (labetalol)
7) pheochromocytoma/hyperthyroidism
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Term
How is nitroprusside different from other vasodilators? |
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Definition
Nitroprusside causes vasodilation of both arterioles AND veins. Most other vasodilators used in hypertension act solely on the arterioles. Nitroprusside works through the production of nitric oxide. |
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Term
How does nitroprusside affect HR, CO, Venous tone, TPR, and the risk of postural hypotension? |
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Definition
Nitroprusside causes an increase in HR, a decrease in venous tone, and an overall decrease in cardiac output. This is because the decreased venous tone decreases preload, this leads to a decreased SV and an elevated HR. The relative decrease of SV is greater than the HR increase, so CO drops slightly.
TPR also drops because of vasodilation.
Postural hypotension is prominent because of the decreased TPR. |
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Term
Administration of what vasodilator can cause the accumulation of cyanide? How do you treat it? |
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Definition
Cyanide will accumulate if the vasodilator nitroprusside is given at too high doses. This will lead to metabolic acidosis, arrhythmias and cardiovascular collapse. Remember that cyanide inhibits complex IV of the electron transport chain, preventing aerobic production of ATP. The cardiac myocytes rely completely on aerobic respiration!
Administer sodium thiosulphate or hydroxycobalamin to prevent cyanide accumulation. Cases of cyanide poisoning can be treated with Amyl Nitrite. |
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Term
How is nitroprusside metabolized? |
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Definition
Nitroprusside is administered by IV. RBCs metabolize it, releasing cyanide, which is then converted to thiocyanate. These two byproducts are highly toxic. Nitric oxide is also released, which produces the vasodilatory effect, beneficial in cases of hypertension.
Administer sodium thiosulphate or hydroxycobalamin to prevent cyanide accumulation. If there is already cyanide toxicity administer amyl nitrite to couteract/treat it. |
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Term
When is nitroprusside contraindicated? |
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Definition
Nitoroprusside causes vasodilation of both veins and arterioles. This leads to a profound decrease in TPR. It also greatly reduces the preload of the heart. This reduced preload is the reason for many of its contraindications, which include:
impaired cerebral circulation: reduced SV and CO further impair bloodflow to the brain.
Aortic stenosis: Further reduces blood flow through stenosed aorta, and impairs ability of heart to contract against the increased afterload (Starling's Law, decreased EDV=decreased contractility).
Drugs causing reduced preload are contraindicated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Also do not use in patients that are unable to safely metabolize nitroprusside. These patients lack the enzyme rhodanase, which detoxifies cyanide by reacting it with sulfur donors to form thiocyanate. In these patients cyanide levels will easily reach toxicity
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Term
How would you treat an acute dissecting aortic aneurysm? |
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Definition
Use a beta-blocker (esmolol) with nitroprusside.
You could also use a Ca++ channel blocker that works on the heart (verapamil) with nitroprusside. |
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Term
What are adverse effects of hydralazine treatment? |
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Definition
It is proposed that hydralazine inhibits Ca++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle. It's side effects include:
Muscle weakness, headache, dizziness, palpitations, myocardial ischemia.
Hyrdralazine may also precipitate immune reactions, resulting in lupoid syndrome, serum sickness, hemolytic anemia and vasculitis. |
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Term
What is the MoA of Minoxidil? |
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Definition
Minoxidil is a vasodilator only used in the treatment of severe hypertension that has responded poorly to other medications. This is because of its high degree of toxicity. It is a prodrug that must be transformed by the liver to the active molecule. Therefore, not a good drug to choose in patients with liver disease. It promotes the opening of K+ channels in smooth muscle membranes, leading to hyperpolarization and relaxation. It acts only on arterioles, not veins.
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Term
What are adverse effects of Minoxidil? |
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Definition
Minoxidil, a vasodilator that opens K+ channels, commonly causes hypertrichosis. This is the excessive growth of hair on the body. (diazoxide may also cause this)
It may also cause pericardial effusion. Tachycardia, palpitations, flushing are all results of the powerful vasodilatory effect. If these are very pronounced, they may even promote cardiac failure!
Allergic reactions, like Stevens-Johnson syndrome may result.
Because of its high toxicity, minoxidil is rarely used anymore. However, it may be used locally to treat baldness (because it promotes hypertrichosis)
("mino" like "minotaur", which is covered in hair)
(or: both of the drugs with "OX" in the name cause excessive hair growth) |
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Term
What vasodilators used in the treatment of hypertension cause the opening of K+ channels? |
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Definition
Minoxidil and Diazoxide cause the opening of K+ channels of smooth muscle cells, resulting in their hyperpolarization. |
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Term
Which vasodilators used in hypertensive patients cause postural hypotension? |
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Definition
Only nitroprusside has a strong likelihood of postural hypotension.
Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Diazoxide, and fenoldopam have a negligible risk of postural hypotension. |
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Term
What are contraindications to Diazoxide treatment? |
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Definition
Diazoxide should not be used in Diabetics because it causes hyperglyemia (insulin resistance). This side-effect also limits its use to acute emergencies and not chronic treatment.
Do not use in impaired cerebral blood flow or aortic stenosis because diazoxide may cause excessive hypotension, worsening both of these conditions. |
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Term
What is the MoA of Fenoldopam? |
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Definition
Fenoldopam is a specific D1 agonist. It vasodilates renal and mesenteric beds. It has a very short half life, so it cannot be used in chronic treatment, and is instead reserved only for hypertensive emergencies.
Fenoldopam is contraindicated in glaucoma |
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Term
A hypertensive patient with glaucoma needs medication to control his BP. What medication is contraindicated in this patient? |
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Definition
Fenoldopam cannot be given to patients with glaucoma. |
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Term
Why does heart rate increase with the Ca++ channel blocker nifedipine, but remain unchanged or decrease with the drug verapamil? |
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Definition
These drugs are both Ca++ channel blockers, considered first choice drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine and active only on smooth muscle of the vessels. The vasodilation causes reflex tachycardia. Verapamil blocks Ca++ in both the vessels and the cardiac myocytes, the later of which inhibits the reflex tachycardia! |
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Term
Describe the activation and pathway of the renin-angiotensin system. |
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Definition
Decreased blood pressure results in a decreased GFR. More Na+ is absorbed in the proximal tubule, less Na+ reaches the macula densa. The macula densa's job is to sense the Na+ concentration of the tubular fluid. A lack of Na+ at the macula densa signals the juxtaglomerular cells to release renin. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. ACE enzymes convert angiotensin I into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes preferential contraction of the efferent arterioles in the glomerulus, restoring GFR. It also stimulates aldosterone release, promoting reuptake of salt and water by the kidney, which also restores BP and GFR.
Renin release can also be stimulated by Beta-1 receptors of the juxtaglomerular cells, and stretch receptors in the afferent arterioles. |
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Term
What is the second messenger system of the angiotensin II AT1 receptor? |
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Definition
IP3/DAG
Recall that this leads to the opening of Ca++ channels, which explains why it causes vasoconstriction, and increased release of catecholamines and aldosterone from the adrenals.
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Term
What are the angiotensin II receptor antagonists? |
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Definition
The angiotensin II receptor antagonists are the "sartans", for example Losartan.
(AngiotensinReceptorAntagonist)
These drugs selectively block the AT1 receptor, the receptor responsible for the majority of angiotensin II effects, resulting in vasodilation and salt/water loss. These "sartan" drugs block angiotensin II more fully than ACE inhibitors.
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Term
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Definition
Captopril
Enalaprilat
lisinopril
"___pril" |
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Term
What is the MoA of Captopril? |
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Definition
Captopril is an orally administered ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension. Along with lisinopril and enalaprilat, captopril is an active drug that does not need to be metabolized by the liver. It inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, which is responsible for converting AT1 into AT2. This blocks the renin-angiotensin system and also leads to increased levels of bradykinin because another function of ACE is to breakdown bradykinin. (bradykinin is a vasodilator). |
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Term
What antihypertensives cause a dry cough? |
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Definition
A dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. This is probably due to the accumulation of bradykinin and substance P in the lungs. |
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Term
What are some important side effects of ACE inhibitors? |
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Definition
Postural hypotension (first dose phenomenon)
Dry cough
Hyperkalemia (because blocks aldosterone)
Angioedema (rare), due to bradykinin, which may lead to airway obstruction and suffocation! The skin of the face, the throat, and the tongue swell up over the period of minutes to hours. Remember that bradykinin is a potent vasodilator that also increases vascular permeability. One of the actions of ACE is to breakdown bradykinin: therefore its accumulation in patients on ACE inhibitors.
Fetotoxic, so avoid in pregnancy |
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Term
What are contraindications for captopril? |
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Definition
Captopril is an ACE inhbitors. All ACE inhibitors ("__prils") are contraindicated in:
Pregnancy! (category D drugs)
Renal artery stenosis = requires renin-angiotensin system to maintain GFR by preferential angiotensin-II-mediated efferent arteriole constriction. Here it is absolutely contraindicated, as you will kill the patient if you administer it.
Hyperkalemia (because it blocks aldosterone)
History of angioedema |
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Term
Which antihypertensives are also beneficial in hyperaldosteronism? |
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Definition
ACE inhibitors can be used in hyperaldosteronism because they block the renin-angiotensin system. Aldosterone is a final product of this pathway. |
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Term
What are contraindications for angiotensin II receptor antagonists? |
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Definition
Angiotensin II receptor antagonists, like losartan, have similar contraindications to ACE inhibitors because the effects and system they act on are the same.
Absolutely contraindicated in renal artery stenosis!
Do not use in hyperkalemic patients.
Do not use in pregnancy (category D drugs)
They are not associated with a dry cough or angioedema because they do not prevent ACE metabolism of bradykinin.
"sartans" are often combined with thiazide diuretics
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Term
What is the first step in the treatment of a patient with stage 1 hypertension? |
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Definition
First try lifesyle modifications: weight loss, reduced dietary sodium, stop smoking, exercise more.
Then , if it doesn't respond, start on one of the first choice antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors, Diuretics, Ca++ channel blockers) |
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Term
How would you start pharmacological treatment of a patient with stage 2 hypertension? |
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Definition
A patient with stage 2 hypertension requires treatment with a two drug combination. One of these drugs is a thiazide diuretic. The other can be an ACE inhibitor, AT receptor antagonist, or Ca++ channel blocker.
If this fails to achieve the blood pressure goals, add another drug of a different MoA. |
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Term
What antihypertensive can cause a positive direct coomb's test and hemolytic anemia? |
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Definition
Methyldopa, a drug of choice for hypertension during pregnancy. |
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Term
If you are giving a vasodilator, name two other drugs that you might give to minimize adverse effects. |
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Definition
Vasodilators can cause reflex tachydardia and salt/water retention. Therefore, they are often coadministered with a beta-blocker and a diuretic. (The salt and water retention causes edema. This is counteracted by the diuretic.) |
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