Term
What is the cause of diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
type 1: a deficiency of insulin
type 2: a resistance to insulin's actions |
|
|
Term
What does having diabetes mellitus put an indivicual at risk for? |
|
Definition
HTN, heart disease, renal failure, blindness, neuropathy, amputations, impotence, stroke |
|
|
Term
Diabetes mellitus is the __#_ leading cause of death. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What % if diabetics have type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What % of diabetics have type 2 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
90-95% (19,000,000 people) |
|
|
Term
When is the typical age of onset for someone with type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
childhood/adolescence, <30 |
|
|
Term
How fast is the progression of symptoms for type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How fast is the progression of symptoms for type 2 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes type 1 diabets mellitus? |
|
Definition
destruction of pancreatic beta cells, autoimmune |
|
|
Term
What causes type 2 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
insulin resistance, impaired insulin secretion |
|
|
Term
Which type of diabetes mellitus is linked to body weight? |
|
Definition
type 2 diabetes mellitus is linked with obesity |
|
|
Term
Which type of diabetes mellitus is linked with having a family history? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is insulin dependent? |
|
Definition
type 1 is insulin dependent, type 2 is usually not insulin dependent |
|
|
Term
Which type of diabetes can be insulin resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of diabetes mellitus has decreased or defective insulin receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the plasma insulin produced in type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the plasma insulin production in type 2 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dietary modifications are necessary for people with type(s) _____ diabetes mellitus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for people with type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
weight reduction, exercise, diet, oral hypoglycemic agents, insulin |
|
|
Term
What is a normal range for blood glucose? |
|
Definition
70-100mg/dl, readings >126=diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do you get a fasting blood glucose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the biggest disadvantage of urinary glucose monitoring? |
|
Definition
it takes too long. the reading doesn't come quickly enough. |
|
|
Term
What is hemoblobin HBA^1c? |
|
Definition
it is the index of average glucose levels over the prior 2-3 months. it is a snapshot of how the diabetes mellitus has been for the last couple of months. |
|
|
Term
Where is the hormone insulin synthesized? |
|
Definition
the beta cells of the pancreas |
|
|
Term
When is the hormone insulin released? |
|
Definition
when blood glucose is elevated |
|
|
Term
What does the hormone insulin do? |
|
Definition
promotes consevation of energy and building of energy stores by: stimulating cellular transport of glucose, amino acids, nucleotides, potassium and by synthesis of glycogen, amino acids, proteins, fatty acids, triglycerides |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for the drug insulin? |
|
Definition
Type 1 diabetes Mellitus, Type 2 diabetes mellitus (stress, pregnancy, surgery, infection) |
|
|
Term
What unit is the drug insulin measured in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many units are in a mL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of syringes must the drug insulin be administered with? |
|
Definition
insulin specific syringes (they have orange caps) |
|
|
Term
How are the different insulin drugs categorized? |
|
Definition
the duration of action (short acting, intermediate acting, long acting) |
|
|
Term
What are the different sources of the drug insulin, and which is used more today? |
|
Definition
synthetic, pork, beef. the synthetic source insulin is what we use now. |
|
|
Term
How is the drug insulin administered? Where? |
|
Definition
subcutaneously, usually in the abdomen by the patient |
|
|
Term
How should the drug insulin be stored? |
|
Definition
avoid sun and extreme heat. Refrigerate unopened vials. They can remain at room temperature for 1 month. |
|
|
Term
Which insulin drugs are rapid acting? |
|
Definition
lispro (Humalog), aspart (Novolog), glulisine (Apidra) |
|
|
Term
Which insulin drugs are short acting? |
|
Definition
regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin R) |
|
|
Term
Which insulin drugs are intermediate acting? |
|
Definition
NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N)
Humulin 70/30 |
|
|
Term
Which insulin drugs are long acting? |
|
Definition
ultralente (Humulin U)
insulin glargine (Lantus) insulin detemir (Levemir) |
|
|
Term
Which two insulin drugs are clear? |
|
Definition
regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin R) and insulin glargine (Lantus) |
|
|
Term
How many times daily is insulin glargine (Lantus) generally administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many times a day is insulin detemir (Levemir) generally administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the onset time for rapid acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the onset time for short acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the onset time for intermediate acting insulin? |
|
Definition
NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N)= 1.5-2 hours
Humulin 70/30= 30 minutes |
|
|
Term
When is the onset time for long acting insulin? |
|
Definition
ultralente (Humulin U)= 4-6 hours
insulin glargine (Lantus), insulin detemir (Levemir) = 1.5 hours |
|
|
Term
When is the peak time for rapid acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the peak time for short acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the peak time for intermediate acting insulin? |
|
Definition
NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin R)= 4-12 hours
Humulin 70/30= 2-12 hours |
|
|
Term
What is the peak time for long acting insulin? |
|
Definition
ultralente (Humulin U)= 19-24 hours
insulin glargine (Lantus), insulin detemir (Levemir)= no peak due to continuous effect |
|
|
Term
How long does rapid acting insulin last (duration)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does short acting insulin last (duration)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does intermediate acting insulin last (duration)? |
|
Definition
NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N)= 18-24 hours
Humulin 70/30= 24 hours |
|
|
Term
How long does long acting insulin last (duration)? |
|
Definition
ultralente (Humulin U)= 36 hours
insulin glargine (Lantus), insulin detemir (Levemir)= 24 hours |
|
|
Term
Which type of insulin could cause an allergic reaction? |
|
Definition
NPH insulin, made with protamine |
|
|
Term
What are the contents of Humulin 70/30? |
|
Definition
NPH + regular insulin
premixed insulins: 70/30 NPH/regular, 50/50 NPH/regular |
|
|
Term
Which insulin cannot be mixed with any other insulins? |
|
Definition
insulin glargine (Lantus) |
|
|
Term
What are the routes for insulin administration? |
|
Definition
SC, IV (regular only), insulin pump, no oral administration |
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for insulin? |
|
Definition
- monitor blood glucose as ordered and prn
- monitor injection sites for lipohypertrophy (rotation of sites to decrease damage, injections in the abdomen are most rapidly absorbed, staying within the same anatomical area decreased fluctuations)
- technique for mixing insulins
- encourage patient to wear a Medic-Alert bracelet
- carry glucose at all times
|
|
|
Term
What are the delivery methods for insulin? |
|
Definition
traditional needle and syringe, insulin pumps (looks like a beeper), pen injectors, jet injectors, inhalation insulin |
|
|
Term
What is human insulin (Exubera)? |
|
Definition
an inhaled, dry powder formulation of rapid acting human insulin |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for human insulin (Exubera)? |
|
Definition
type 1 and 2 diabetes mellitus |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of human insulin (Exubera)? |
|
Definition
hypoglycemia, mild to moderate cough, long term pulmonary effects unknown |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for human insulin (Exubera)? |
|
Definition
smoking (increasees effect of inhaled drug), asthma, COPD, lung diseases |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does hypoglycemia occur? |
|
Definition
- too much insulin given
- meals are missed or delayed
- excessive exercise
- vomiting or diarrhea
- side effect of another drug
- drinking alcohol
|
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
- shakiness
- headache
- cold sweats, clammy
- pale, cool skin
- anxiety, irritability
- difficulty concentrating
- confusion, drowsiness
- blurred vision
- nausea
- increased appetite
|
|
|
Term
How is hypoglycemia treated? |
|
Definition
take 15 grams of CHO, if no improvement in sxs in 15 minutes, take another 15 grams |
|
|
Term
What are sources of 15 grams of CHO? |
|
Definition
- 4-6 oz fruit juice or soft drink
- 2 tbsp raisins
- 8 oz low fat or skim milk
- 1 tbsp honey
- 3-4 glucose tablets
- 1/2-1 tube glucose gel
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does hyperglycemia occur? |
|
Definition
- not enough insulin used
- eat large amounts of food
- little exercise
- side effect of another drug
- fever or illness
|
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
Classic triad: increased thirst, increased hunger, increased urination
drowsiness, red/dry skin, dry mouth, fuity breath odor, rapid, deep breathing, rapid weight loss, N, V |
|
|
Term
What are treatments for hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
administer insulin to metabolize excessive glucose |
|
|
Term
Finish this saying: Hot and dry... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Finish this saying: Cold and clammy... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are oral hypoglycemic agents used? |
|
Definition
type 2 diabetes mellitus
insulin resistance, high hepatic glucose production, low insulin secretion |
|
|
Term
What drugs are sulfonylureas? |
|
Definition
1st generation: tolbutamide (Orinast)
2nd generatin: glipizide (Glucotrol), glyburide (Micronase), glimepiride) |
|
|
Term
What do sulfonylureas [1st gen: tolbutamide (Orinase), 2nd gen: glipizide (Glucotrol), glyburide (Micronase), glimepiride (Amaryl)] do? |
|
Definition
promote insulin release from the pancreas (dependent on functioning beta cells) |
|
|
Term
When are 1st generatino sulfonylureas [tolbutamide (Orinase)] used? Why? |
|
Definition
rarely used, complications |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of sulfonylureas [1st gen- tolbutamide (Orinase), 2nd gen- glipizide (Glucotrol), glyburide (Micronase), glimepiride (Amaryl)]? |
|
Definition
hypoglycemia (especially in with renal or hepatic failure), cardiac ischemia (glyburide), weight gain |
|
|
Term
What do meglitinides [rapaglinide (Prandin), nateglinide (Starlix)] do? |
|
Definition
stimulate the release of insulin from pancreas |
|
|
Term
What is a side effect of meglitinides [rapaglinide (Prandin), nateglinide (Starlix)]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a contraindication for meglitinides [rapaglinide (Prandin), nateglinide (Starlix)]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are meglitinides [rapaglinide (Prandin), nateglinide (Starlix)] administered? |
|
Definition
before each meal. must eat within 30 minutes of administration |
|
|
Term
What drug is a biguanide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a possible indication for biguanides [metformin (Glucophage)]? |
|
Definition
delay of development of type 2 diabetes |
|
|
Term
What are effects of biguanides [metformin (Glucophage)]? |
|
Definition
- decreased hepatic glucose output (decreased gluconeogenesis)
- increased peripheral glucose utilization (insulin sensitizer)
|
|
|
Term
What are side effects of biguanides [metformin (Glucophage)]? |
|
Definition
anorexia, N, diarrhea, decreased absorption of B12 and folic acid |
|
|
Term
What drugs are thiazolidinediones (TZDs)? |
|
Definition
rosiglitazone (Avandia), pioglitazone (Actos) |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of thiazolidinediones (TZDs) [rosiglitazone (Avandia), pioglitazone (Actos)]? |
|
Definition
increases insulin sensitivity of adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, and liver |
|
|
Term
How long does it take for thiazolidinediones (TZDs) [rosiglitazone (Avandia), pioglitazone (Actos)] to achieve effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of thiazolidinediones (TZDs) [rosiglitazone (Avandia), pioglitazone (Actos)]? |
|
Definition
fluid retention, high LDL, high HDL, high triglycerides, hepatoxicity |
|
|
Term
What are nursing implications for thiazolidinediones (TZDs) [rosiglitazone (Avandia), pioglitazone (Actos)]? |
|
Definition
monitor LFTs, educate about signs of heart failure |
|
|
Term
What drugs are alpha-glucosidase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
acarbose (Precose), miglitol (Glyset) |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors [acarbose (Precose), miglitol (Glyset)]? |
|
Definition
delay absorption of carbohydrates in intestines, which leads to a lowered postprandial blood glucose |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors [acarbose (Precose), miglitol (Glyset)]? |
|
Definition
flatulence, cramps, abdominal distention, borborygmus, diarrhea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are nursing implications for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors [acarbose (Precose), miglitol (Glyset)]? |
|
Definition
monitor LFTs, administer before meals |
|
|
Term
What is exenatide (Byetta)? |
|
Definition
alternative to starting insulin in type 2 patients, SC injection |
|
|
Term
What is pramlintide (Symlin)? |
|
Definition
synthetic analog of human amylin, a hormone like insulin secreted by the beta cells, SC injection |
|
|
Term
What is sitagliptin (Januvia)? |
|
Definition
DPP-4 blocker, once a day pill |
|
|
Term
What are combination oral hypoglycemic agents? |
|
Definition
- metformin/glyburide (Glucovance)
- metformin/glypizide (Metaglip)
- metformin/rosiglitazone (Avandamet)
|
|
|
Term
What are nursing implications for all oral hypoglycemic agents? |
|
Definition
- encourage diet restrictions and exercise to maintain glycemic control
- weigh at least once per week
- test blood glucose regularly
- assess DM complications: skin for poor healing, renal function, etc
- monitor for signs of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
- follow-up with physician for lab studies
- contraindications: alcohol (increased risk of altering blood glucose and source of calories), anticoagulants, beta-blockers
- monitor for symptoms of iver function problems
- encourage patient to carry glucose source at all times
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for glucagon? |
|
Definition
insulin overdose- used in emergencies to restore consciousness in diabetics experiencing extreme hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of glucagon? |
|
Definition
- breakdown of glycogen
- decreased glycogen synthesis
- stimulates biosynthesis of glucose
|
|
|
Term
What are the routes of administration for glucagon? |
|
Definition
IV, IM, SC (IV glucose preferred before use of glucagon) |
|
|
Term
When is the onset time for glucagon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for glucagon? |
|
Definition
- assess for hypoglycemia
- monitor blood glucose before and after administration and up to four hours after patient regains consciousness
- document VS and LOC
- may interace with anticoagulants to produce bleeding
- monitor respirations, risk for aspiration- turn patient on side
- if LOC permits, administer glucose via the oral route
|
|
|
Term
What are the actions of thyroid hormone? |
|
Definition
- stimuation of energy use (basal metabolic rate, temperature regulation)
- stimulation of the heart (increased force and contraction of the heart, increase for oxygen demand)
- promotion of growth and development (development of the CNS (brain), growth and maturation of skeletal muscle, carbohydrate, lipid, protein metabolism, gastrointestinal function, fluid balance)
|
|
|
Term
What is the formation of thyroid hormone dependent on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) secreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is thyroid-stimulating hormone secreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ acts on the thyroid to release _______________. |
|
Definition
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A mild deficiency in thyroid hormone |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
- changes in facial expression
- cold/dry skin
- brittle hair
- hair loss
- decreased heart rate
- hypothermia
- lethargy
- fatigue
- intolerance to cold
- constipation
- increased weight
|
|
|
Term
What causes hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
chronic autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease) |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
replacement of thyroid hormone deficiency |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothroid)? |
|
Definition
hypothyroidism, goiter, cretinism, myxedema, thyroid function diagnostic testing, postthyroidectomy for thyroid cancer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
severe deficiency in thyroid hormone |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothroid)? |
|
Definition
thyrotoxicosis (tachycardia, angina, tremor, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, heat intolerance, sweating) |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothroid)? |
|
Definition
- decreases absorption (calcium supplemens, aluminum antacids, iron supplements)
- increases absorption (Coumadin, Dilantin, Tegretol, Zoloft, phenobarbital, catecholamines)
|
|
|
Term
What are nursing implications for levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothroid)? |
|
Definition
- life long therapy
- take on an empty stomach, in morning before breakfast
- take at the same time each day
- routine blood studies (TSH= 1-3mU/L) to determine effectiveness
- educate patient about symptoms to report
- inform physician before surgeries or treatments
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
excessive levels of thyroid hormone, Graves' disease |
|
|
Term
What are clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
- increased heart rate
- hysrhythmias
- angina, nervousness, insomnia, muscle weakness/atrophy
- increased BMR
- hyperthermia
- intolerance to heat
- warm/moist skin
- decreased weight
- increased appetite
- diarrhea
- protruding eyes
|
|
|
Term
What is the cause of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
- surgical removal of the thyroid
- ablation of thyroid with radioactive iodine
- anti-thyroid drugs
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for propylthiouracil (PTU)? |
|
Definition
- hyperthyroidism
- adjunct to radiation therapy
- preoperative suppression of gland before removal surgery
- thyrotoxic crisis
|
|
|
Term
What is radioactive Iodine (131-I) used for? |
|
Definition
destory thyroid tissue for patients with overproduction, cancer |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of radioactive iodine (131-I)? |
|
Definition
low cost, avoid surgery, low risk- complications, no other tissue exposure |
|
|
Term
What are the disadvantages of radioactive iodine (131-I)? |
|
Definition
delay in action (2-3 months), permanent hypothyroidism (greater risk in children) |
|
|
Term
What is iodine solution (Lugol's Solution)? |
|
Definition
- elemental iodine + potassium iodide
- suppressant effect on the thyroid before surgery
- can be toxic
|
|
|
Term
What are the actions of growth hormone? |
|
Definition
- promotion of growth- increased bone length, increased muscle mass
- promotion of protein synthesis by holding on to nitrogen
- alteration of carbohydrate metabolism- high blood glucose, high insulin levels
|
|
|
Term
deficiency of growth hormone results in ___________; excess results in ___________ |
|
Definition
dwarfism
giantism, acromegaly |
|
|
Term
What is somatrem (Protropin), somatotropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
equivalent to growth hormone from the pituitary |
|
|
Term
What is the primary indication for somatrem (Protropin), somatropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
pediatric growth hormone deficiency |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of somatrem (Protropin), somatropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
- hyperglycemia
- hypothyroidism
- interaction with glucocorticoids
|
|
|
Term
What are the routes of administrations for somatrem (Protropin), somatropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for somatrem (Protropin), somatropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
malignancies/tumors, diabetes |
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for somatrem (Protropin), somatropin (Humatrope, Nutropin)? |
|
Definition
- monitor for growth rate and weight during therapy
- examine annually for epiphyseal closure
- warn of pain and swelling at injection site
- monitor for hypothyroidism
- refrigerate any unused reconstituted medication, do not use if cloudy or contains particulate matter, mix gently/do not shake
|
|
|
Term
What are the actions of vasopressin (Pitression), desmopressin (DDAVP)? |
|
Definition
acts on the kidney to cause reabsorption of water
renal conservation of water leads to decreased urine output, increased gastrointestinal motility, vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for vasopressin (Pitression), desmopressin (DDAVP)? |
|
Definition
- diabetes insipidus (decreased ADH)
- esophageal varices
- noctural enuresis
|
|
|
Term
What are side effects of vasopressin (Pitression), desmopressin (DDAVP)? |
|
Definition
- monitor for chest pain, MI, HTN, SOB
- carefully assess fluid status (I&O, urine specific gravity, weight)
- monitor EKG and serum electrolytes
- caution with patients with CAD and other vascular disease
|
|
|
Term
What are the physiological effets of glucocortioids? |
|
Definition
- carbohydrate metabolism
- protein metabolism
- fat metabolism
- CV system
- skeletal muscles
- CNS
- stress
- inflammatory process
they are secreted when needed by negative feedback: hypothalamus to CRF to anterior pituitary to ACTH to adrenal cortex to cortisol and glucocorticoids |
|
|
Term
What is Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the clinical manifestations of Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
- truncal obesity
- thinning of extremities
- hyperglycemia
- glycosuuria
- edema (sodium/water retention)
- HTN
- osteoporosis
- muscle weakness
- myopathy
- hirsutism
- menstrual irregularities
- decreased resistance to infection
- fluid/fat redistribution (moon face, buffalo hump)
- mood changes
|
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for Cushing's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
surgical removal of tumor, cancer |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for betamethasone, dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (solu-Medrol), prednisone? |
|
Definition
Chronic replacement therapy- adrenal cortical insufficiency nonendocrine diseases (anti-inflammatory properties): (rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, allergic reactions, asthma, skin conditions, neoplasms, suppression of organ/tissue rejection, general inflammatory conditions.) |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of betamethasone, dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), prednisone? |
|
Definition
- osteoporosis
- infection
- high glucose
- myopathy
- fluid (sodium/water retention ) changes
- electrolyte disturbance (decreased potassium)
- growth retardation
- psychological changes
- cataracts, glaucoma
- PUD
- poor wound healing
- Cushing's syndrome
|
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for betamethasone, dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), prednisone? |
|
Definition
- NSAIDs
- digoxin, diuretics
- vaccines
- diseases- HTN, DM, CHF, PUD, HIV/AIDS
|
|
|
Term
What are the nursing interventions for betamethasone, dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), prednisone? |
|
Definition
- do not administer to patients with fungal or TB infections, AIDS
- carefully monitor blood glucose
- caution with patients who have GI inflammation or ulcers- bleeding
- monitor fluid status
- avoid administering vaccinations during treatment
- caution with the elderly (HTN, osteoporosis)
- eye exams are recommended when therapy persists over 6 weeks
- monitor growth rate in children
- may prescribe sodium restrictions, potassium supplements
- educate patient about reporting any signs of infection
- discuss drug-induced body image disturbances
|
|
|
Term
How is betamethasone, dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), prednisone administered? |
|
Definition
- prescribe the lowest dose for the shortest duration
- complex dosing schedule must be followed
- do not abruptly discontinue, taper steroids when discontinuing
- alternate-day therapy
|
|
|
Term
What is Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
aldosterone and adrenocortical insufficiency |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
fludrocortisone- it is the only mineralocorticoid available |
|
|
Term
What does aldosterone do? |
|
Definition
renal processing of sodium, potassium, hydrogen
promotes sodium reabsorption; secretion of potassium, hydrogen increases water reabsorption |
|
|
Term
What are the actions of calcium? |
|
Definition
skeletal system- bone nervous system- axonal excitability, transmission muscular system- contraction CV system- myocardial contraction, coagulation |
|
|
Term
Where does the body store calcium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What regulate calcium levels? |
|
Definition
parathyroid hormone vitamin D calcitonin |
|
|
Term
How does the parathyroid regulate calcium? |
|
Definition
decreased plasma calcium levels cause a release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) to be released from the parathyroid. the result is increased calcium levels in the blood
calcium reabsorption from the bone caldium reabsorption from the kidney (decreased excretion) activation of Vitamin D leads to absorption from intestines decreased phosphate |
|
|
Term
How does Vitamin D regulate calcium? |
|
Definition
similar to PTH, increases phosphate. |
|
|
Term
How does calcitonin regulate calcium? |
|
Definition
calcitonin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. it decreases calcium levels in the blood when levels are too high. |
|
|
Term
What are 6 calcium related diseases? |
|
Definition
- hypercalcemia
- hypocalcemia
- rickets
- Paget's disease of the bone
- hypoparathyroidism
- hyperparathyroidism
|
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
- usually asymptomatic
- kidney drainage
- dysrhythmias
- calcium deposits
|
|
|
Term
What is the cause of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
- cancer
- hyperparathyroidism
- vitamin D toxicity
|
|
|
Term
What is the treatment fo hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
drug therapy- IV saline fluids, loop diuretics, calcitonin |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
increaseed neuromuscular excitability (tetany, convulsions, spasms) |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
deficiency of dietary calcium, PTH, vitamin D |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
IV calcium for severe cases, oral calcium supplements with vitamin D |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of rickets? |
|
Definition
- defective bone growth
- skeletal deformities
|
|
|
Term
What are causes of rickets? |
|
Definition
- deficiency of vitamin D
- limited exposure to sunlight
|
|
|
Term
What is treatment for rickets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of Paget's disease of the bone? |
|
Definition
- increased bone reabsorption
- abnormal bone formation
- asymptomatic
|
|
|
Term
What are the causes of Paget's disease of the bone? |
|
Definition
unknown, possibly a latent viral infection |
|
|
Term
What is treatment of Paget's disease of the bone? |
|
Definition
- analgesics
- antiinflammatories
- calcitonin
|
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
Hypocalcemia [increased neuromuscular excitability (tetany, convulsions, spasms)] |
|
|
Term
What causes hypoparathyriodism? |
|
Definition
decreased PTH, removal of parathyroid glands |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hypoparathyriodism? |
|
Definition
calcium supplements with vitamin D |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms for hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
hypercalcemia (usually asymptomatic, kidney damage, dysrhythmias, calcium deposits), increased calcium in the urine |
|
|
Term
What causes hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
parathyroid adenoma, increased levels of PTH |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
surgical removal of the parathyroid glands, drug therapy |
|
|
Term
What is the indication for calcium carbonate (Tums, Caltrate, Oscal, Viactiv), calcium citrate (Citracal), calcium gluconate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the routes of administration for calcium carbonate (Tums, Caltrate, Oscal, Viactiv), calcium citrate (Citracal), calcium gluconate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of calcium carbonate (Tums, Caltrate, Oscal, Viactiv), calcium citrate (Citracal), calcium gluconate? |
|
Definition
- hypercalcemia
- po- constipation, increased gastric acid secretion
|
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for calcium carbonate (Tums, Caltrate, Oscal, Viactiv), calcium citrate (Citracal), calcium gluconate? |
|
Definition
- prednisone, tetracyclines, thyroid hormone, thiazide diuretics
- decreased calcium absorption- spinach, beets, bran/whole grain cereals
|
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for calcium carbonate (Tums, Caltrate, Oscal, Viactiv), calcium citrate (Citracal), calcium gluconate? |
|
Definition
- do not administer with bran cereals, indicated drugs (several hours apart)
- chewable tablets are preferred
- take no more than 600 mg at one time
- do not switch between brands (not equivalent)
- take with large glass of water, with or after meals
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
low bone mass, increase bone fragility which leads to fractures of the vertebra, forearm, hip, ribs |
|
|
Term
How many women have osteoporosis, and how many have a risk for developing it? |
|
Definition
10 million (80% older women) 34 million have risk for developing |
|
|
Term
How is osteoporosis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
- bone densitometry (all women beginning at age 60-65)
- presenting symptoms
- thorough patient history, family history
|
|
|
Term
What are the nonmodifiable risk factors for osteoporotic fractures? |
|
Definition
- personal history of fracture as an adult
- history of fracture in close relative
- Caucasian/Asian race
- advanced age
- female gender
- dementia
- poor health, frailty
|
|
|
Term
What are the potentially modifiable risk factors for osteoporotic fractures? |
|
Definition
- current cigarette smoking
- low body weight (<127 lbs)
- estrogen deficiency (menopause)
- low calcium intake
- alcoholism
- impaired eyesight
- recurrent falls
- inadequate physical activity
- poor health, frailty
|
|
|
Term
What drugs are biophosphates? |
|
Definition
- alendronate (Fosamax)
- risedronate (Actonel)
- ibandronate sodium (Boniva)
|
|
|
Term
What is the action of alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate sodium (Boniva)? |
|
Definition
suppresses resorption of bone by decreasing osteoclast function remains active in bone for several weeks, months |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate sodium (Boniva)? |
|
Definition
- prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis
- male osteoporosis
- glucocorticoid-induced ostoeoporosis
|
|
|
Term
What are the dosing schedules for alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate sodium (Boniva)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate sodium (Boniva)? |
|
Definition
- esophagitis, gastritis, ulcers
- gas production
- acid reflux
- Actonel- arthralgia, diarrhea, HA, rash, N, GI upset
|
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate sodium (Boniva)? |
|
Definition
- administration protocol- give with 8 ounces of water, do not eat for 30 minutes, remain upright for at least 30 minutes [pill must pass esophagus]
- avoid chewing or sucking tablet
- report any adverse GI symptoms to physician
- contraindicated in patients who have swallowing problems
- maintain calcium intake in presence of drug
|
|
|
Term
What are the instructions for Once-a-Month Boniva? |
|
Definition
- take Boniva as instructed by your healthcare provider
- take Boniva first thing in the morning
- wait at least 1 hour before eating or drinking anything except plain water
- swallow Boniva whole (do not chew or suck) with at least 6 to 8 ounces of plain water
- do not take Boniva with mineral water, sparkling water, coffee, tea, milk, or juice
- avoid taking any other oral medicine, including calcium, antacids, or vitamins
- avoid lying down for at least 60 minutes after taking Boniva to help decrease the risk of stomach problems
|
|
|
Term
What is raloxifene (Evista)? |
|
Definition
- prevention and treatment of osteoporosis, alternative to estrogen
- selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
- preserves bone mineral density and lowers cholesterol
- side effect- DVT and PE
- less risk of breast and endometrial cancer
- obtain baseline BMD
- ensure adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D
|
|
|
Term
What is teriparatide (Forteo)? |
|
Definition
- form of PTH
- only drug for osteoporosis that increases bone formation (not bone resorption)
- daily SC injections
|
|
|
Term
What are other drug therapies for osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
- raloxifene (Evista)
- teriparatide (Forteo
- estrogen therapy
- daily calcium supplemetns and daily vitamin D supplements
|
|
|
Term
The physician writes an order for the following: 30 units of regular insulin with 70 units of NPH at 0700. When administering the insulins, the nurse would be careful to: |
|
Definition
draw the regular insulin into the syringe before the NPH |
|
|
Term
The most comprehensive evaluation of diabetic control is with which of the following labatory tests? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nurse is preparing to administer somatrem (Protropin) to an 11-year-old male patient at the endocrine clinic. The appropriate nursing action is to: |
|
Definition
rotate the vial gently between the palms of the hands before withdrawl |
|
|
Term
Which of the following findings would alert the nurse that steroids are problematic for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, congestive heart failure, and hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hemostasis (process that spontaneously stops blood loss from damaged blood vessels) |
|
|
Term
What are the steps of the cessation of bleeding? |
|
Definition
- constriction of blood vessels to slow blood loss
- formation of a platelet plug- platelets adhere to site of vessel injury which leads to platelet aggregation. the plug is unstable, reinforced with fibrin
- coagulation- the production of fibrin clot
- removal of clots
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus? |
|
Definition
a thrombus is a stationary clot, and an embolus is on the move |
|
|
Term
What are the mechanisms of action for heparin? |
|
Definition
- suppresses coagulation by helping antithrombin inactivate clotting facots, prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin which leads to the inhibiting of the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen
- no fibrinolytic activity (does not dissolve existing clots but can prevent the extension of existing clots)
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for heparin? |
|
Definition
- prophylaxis of venous thrombosis (especially postoperatively)
- diseases: pulmonary embolism, emerging stroke, DVT- better than anticoagulants in preventing pulmonary complications with thrombophlebitis
- prevent blood clotting in surgery of the heart or blood vessels, blood transfusions, hemodialysis
- adjunct to thrombolytic treatment
|
|
|
Term
What is the route of administration for heparin? |
|
Definition
injection only (IV, SC)- rapid onset of action |
|
|
Term
What is the half-life of heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What needs to be assessed when on heparin? |
|
Definition
- obtain baseline vitals for BP, HR, CBC, platelets, H & H, PTT
- determine preexisting health conditions that would contraindicate heparin (ex: active hemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, hemophilia, PUD)
- determine current medicine regimens- any other druginteractions or other anticoagulants/platelet inhibitors(ex: ASA, NSAIDs- risk of hemorrhage; nitroglycerin diminishes heparin's effectiveness)
- ask about heparin allerty (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia- HIT)
- assess for factors that increase the risk for bleeding such as elderly, HTN, CVD, liver or renal failure, GI bleed
- clotting studies
|
|
|
Term
What is a heparin allergy? |
|
Definition
- heparin-induced thrombocytopenia -HIT)
- potentially fatal immune-mediated disorder
- low platelet counts- (type 1- 100,000 to 150,000) (type 2 <100,000) + thrombosis. monitor platelet counts during heparin therapy (2-3 times a week).
- incidence of type 2 is 1-3% among patients who receive heparin for more than 4 days.
- signs: cyanosis of fingers and toes, limb ischemia, CVA, MI, PE
- can lead to digit or limb amputation, organ failure, death
- treatment- stop heparin, and administer lepirudin (Refludan), agatroban (Acova). the most common side effect of this antidote is bleeding. monitor PTT.
|
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of heparin? |
|
Definition
hemorrhage. 10% of patients develop bleeding, at any site, can be fatal early signs of bleeding- (skin- ecchymosis [bruising], petechia, hematomas), (nosebleeds, excessive bleeding from gums/cuts/wounds/tube insertion sites/menses/eyes), (internal bleeding- abdomin pain/swelling, backache, dizziness, headache, hematemesis, hematuria, hemoptysis, bloody/black stools, swollen/stiff/painful joints) check urine and stools for occult blood daily and monitor the platelet count other side effects: cold, cyanotic, painful, tingling hands and feet, chest pain, chills, increased temperature, wheezing, rash, pruritis, hives, rhinitis, anaphylaxis, local irritation at injection site |
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for heparin? |
|
Definition
- dispensed in Units, check the haparin concentration on the vial carefully
- subcutaneous route- smallest gauge needle (25 or 27g), 1/2-5/8 inch needle, syringe selection (1cc or 3cc?), bunching technique, inject deep into fatty tissue above the iliac crest or into the abdomen, avoid injecting inside a 2 inch radius around the umbilicus; away from scars or lesions, DO NOT aspirate or massage the site, withdraw needle slowly and gently, apply direct pressure to site after needle removed for 1-2 minutes prn, document location, rotate sites, onset delayed by 1-2 hours, usual dosing: 5000-10000 Units SC q8-12h
- intravenous route (intermittent or continuous)- loading dose before continuous infusion of heparin, dosed according to weight, must use an infusion pump for precision, apply pressure to any venipuncture or injection sites, heparinized versus nonhaparinized flush solution controversy, stop heparin immediately when signs of bleeding occur (chills, low back pain [abdominal bleeding], or spontaneous bleeding), dosing; bolus of 5000 Units followed by 30,000 Units/day
|
|
|
Term
What is the overdose antidote for heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs are low-molecular weight heparin? |
|
Definition
- enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- dalteparin (Fragmin)
- ardeparin (Normifo)
- tinzaparin (Innohep)
|
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normfo), tinzaparin (Innohep)? |
|
Definition
- more solubility so rapid onset
- greater bio-availability after SC injection and longer half-life which means it is more predictable
- fewer incidences of hemorrhage complications
- daily coagulation studies (aPTT) are not needed- predictable antithrombotic effect
- standard fixed dose (1 mg/kg administered once a day or twice a day SC)
- first dose received 12 to 24 hours after surgery
- therapy continues at home for a total of 7-10 days of treatment up to 3 weeks, safe for outpatient use
- easy to self-administer by patients
- less likely to cause thrombocytopenia
- LMW heparin once or twice daily as safe and effective as IV heparin
- more expensive
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normifo), tinzaparin (Innohep)]?
|
|
Definition
- first lint therapy for prevention of DVT: following hip or knee replacement surgeries, general surgery, cardiovascular surgery, trauma patients, without preventative anticoagulant treatment, up to 40-70% of patients havign major orthopedic procedures and 15-30% of patients with abdominal surgery will develop DVT.
- treat established DVT
- ischemic stroke, PE, MI
|
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normifo), tinzaparin (Innohep)]? |
|
Definition
- bleeding- slightly fewer hemorrhagic complications than heparin
- same as heparin
- HIT- 10 times lower incidence than with heparin
|
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normifo), tinzaparin (Innohep)]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normifo), tinzaparin (Innohep)]? |
|
Definition
- administer SC based on body weight
- comes in prefilled syringes
- injection: stored at room temperature, supine position with abdomen visible, administer the correct dosage, DO NOT expel the air bubble in the syringe before injection, inject in right or left side of abdomen in "love handles," insert the needle in a 90 degree angle, DO NOT aspirate or massage te site, take at the same time each day
- assess abdomen for bruising after injections
|
|
|
Term
What is the overdose antidote for low-molecular weight heparin [enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), ardeparin (Normifo), tinzaparin (Innohep)]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs are heparinoids/antithrombotics? |
|
Definition
- fondaparinus (Arixtra)
- danaparoid (Organon)
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for the heparinoids/antithrombotics [fondaparinus (Arixtra), danaparoid (Organon)]? |
|
Definition
more selective inhibition of thrombin |
|
|
Term
What is the indication for heparinoids/antithrombotics [fondaparinus (Arixtra), donaparoid (Organon)]? |
|
Definition
prevention of DVT following hip fracture surgery, hip or knee replacement surgery |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of heparinoids/antithrombotics [fondaparinus (Arixtra), danaparoid (Organon)]? |
|
Definition
- bleeding- may cause more bleeding than LMWHs
- anemia, fever, N, V
- does not cause HIT
|
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for heparinoids/antithrombotics [fondaparinus (Arixtra), danaparoid (Organon)]? |
|
Definition
severely impaired kidney function, weight less than 110 lbs (50 kg), elderly, spinal anesthesia/puncture leads to permanent paralysis [black box]; platelets <100,000 |
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for heparinoids/antithrombotics [fondaparinus (Arixtra), danaparoid (Organon)]? |
|
Definition
- administered once each day
- clotting lab studies are not needed
|
|
|
Term
What is the indication for protamide sulfate? |
|
Definition
severe heparin overdose only (frank hemorrhage, elevated PTT) by IV administration with minor overdoses, stop the drug infusion |
|
|
Term
What is the aciton of protamine sulfate? |
|
Definition
binds with heparin to inactivate it by forming a heparin/protamine complex devoid of anticoagulant properties |
|
|
Term
What is the duration of action for protamine sulfate? |
|
Definition
2 hours. re-administer as needed |
|
|
Term
What drug is an oral anticoagulant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- suppresses coagulation by acting as an antagonist of vitamin K
- interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver
- no fibrinolytic activity (does not dissolve existing clots but can prevent the extension of existing clots)
|
|
|
Term
How is warfarin (Coumadin) given with heparin? |
|
Definition
- usually started on the day that heparin is started
- given concurrently with heparin for at least 3 to 5 days while heparin is tapered off [until INR remains within the recommended range for 24-36 hours]
- onset of action for oral anticoagulant drugs is slow- 99% bound to protein
- anticoagulant effects are delayed, duration is prolonged
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
long term prophylaxis of thrombosis (drug of choice) DVT, pulmonary thromboemboli heart valve replacement surgery atrial fibrillation prevent TIAs, recurrent MI |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
effective oral route, given one time each day, long term therapy |
|
|
Term
What are the disadvantages of warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
not used for emergency use ASA may be more effective when preventing a stroke |
|
|
Term
What is the route of administration for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you need to assess for a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- similar to heparin therapy
- determine the concurrent administration of contraindicated drugs
- obtain baseline values for BP, HR, CBC, platelets, H & H, PT
- clotting studies
|
|
|
Term
What are the two types of clotting studies used for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
PT (prothrombin time) normal = 12 seconds 1.3-1.5 times normal control- prevention 1.5-2 times normal control- high risk INR (international normalized value) 2-3 normal (2,5-3,5 for valve replacements, recurrent MI) more accurate than PT standardized values, mathematical correction to PT ratio (WHO) measured daily during initial 5 days, 2x/week for next 1-2 weeks, 1x/week for next 1-2 months, every 2-4 weeks after home testing |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- hemorrhage/bleeding- any bleeding that does not stop, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, red or pink-tinged urine, red or black stools, faintness/weakness, headaches stomach pain, skin rask, skin changes (bruising)
- anorexia, abdominal cramps, leukopenia, N, V, diarrhea, hematuria, alopecia
|
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- severe thrombocytopenia
- uncontrollable bleeding
- spinal procedures
- hemophilia
- PUD
- surgical procedures
- liver disease
- alcoholism
|
|
|
Term
What are nursing implications for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- taper gradually over 3 to 4 weeks
- avoid giving injections, venipuncture if possible
- monitor PT/INR as indicated
- encourage compliance and safety through patient education
|
|
|
Term
What is part of patient education for warfarin (Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
- follow strict adherence to dosing schedule
- able to recognize excessive bleeding and bruising- report to MD
- take anticoagulant at same time each day
- change dose only if directed
- wear medical ID bracelet
- avoid other medications unless ordered by MD
- do not take ASA or ibuprofen
- avoid multivitamins or foods containing vitamin K (consistent intake of green leafy vegetables)
- drink adequate amount of fluids
- use an electric razor for shaving
- if cut, apply pressure for 5 to 10 minutes
- avoid/limit alcohol
- inform dentist/physicians about anticoagulant use
- avoid constrictive clothing, crossing legs, sitting or standing for long periods (promotes slow blood circulation, do not walk barefoot
- regular exercise but avoid hazardous activities (such as contact sports of active sports)
- smoking increases dose requirements
- must monitor PT routinely
|
|
|
Term
What are considerations for older patients and anticoagulants? |
|
Definition
- more susceptible to effects of anticoagulants leads to lower maintenance dose required
- close supervision and monitoring
- monitor for prolonged bleeding from gums/skin/nose, bruising, blood in urine/stool
- carry Medic-Alert bracelet/card
- careful with any drug that causes gastric irritation leads to a risk of GI bleed
- limit alcohol, causes liver disease and an increased sensitivity to anticoagulants
- caution: increased effect with malnurtrition, diarrhea
- caution: decreased effect with consumption of vitamin K containing foods
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for vitamin K- phytonadione (AquaMephyton)? |
|
Definition
- antidote for warfarin overdose by antagonizing warfarin's actions and reversing warfarin-induced inhibition of clotting factors
- prevent hemorrhage in neonates
|
|
|
Term
What are the routes of administration for vitamin K- phytonadione (AquaMephyton)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of vitamin K- phytonadione (AquaMephyton)? |
|
Definition
- severe anaphylactoid reaction (flushing, hypotension, SV collapse)
|
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for vitamin K- phytonadione (AquaMephyton)? |
|
Definition
- monitor PT
- dilute IV and give slowly over 2-3 hours
- large doses can lead to resistance to warfarin
- if vitamin K therapyis unsuccessful, infust clotting factors
|
|
|
Term
What are the antiplatelet drugs? |
|
Definition
- ASA
- clopidogrel (Plavix)
- aspirin/extended-release dipyridamole (Aggrenox)
|
|
|
Term
What are the actions of antiplatelet drugs? |
|
Definition
- suppress platelet aggregation
- prevention of thrombosis in arteries
|
|
|
Term
When are antiplatelet drugs contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does a single dose of ASA have an effect for on platelets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the indications for ASA? |
|
Definition
- primary prevention of first MI and recurrent MI
- prevention of stroke with history TIAs
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- low dose- 81 mg
- high dose- 325 mg
research suggests same effect of both doses |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of ASA? |
|
Definition
- GI bleeding
- hemorrhagic stroke
|
|
|
Term
What are the nursing implications for ASA? |
|
Definition
- use enteric-coated, buffered forms
- monitor for bleeding
- use only under physician supervison
- avoid other anticoagulant agents
- cessation before surgery?
|
|
|
Term
What are the indications for clopidogrel (Plavex)? |
|
Definition
prevention of ischemic stroke and MI |
|
|
Term
How long does it take for effects of clopidogrel (Plavex) to start? |
|
Definition
effects begin in 2 hours after the firstdose, therapeutic level in 3-7 days |
|
|
Term
What is the dose of clopidogrel (Plavex)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of clopidogrel (Plavex)? |
|
Definition
- same as ASA
- abdominal pain
- dyspepsia
- diarrhea
- rash
|
|
|
Term
What is the indication for aspirin/extended-release dipyridamole (Aggrenox)? |
|
Definition
prevent recurrent ischemic stroke in patients with previous stroke or TIA by suppressing platelet aggregation (synergistic effect) which prevents clots |
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Term
How does aspirin/extended-release dipyridamole (Aggrenox) compare to ASA? |
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Definition
it prevents 2x as many strokes as ASA alone in patients with a prior stroke |
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Term
What are the side effects of aspirin/extended-release dipyridamole (Aggrenox)? |
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Definition
- HA, dizziness
- GI upset (N,V, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dyspepsia)
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Term
What is unique about thrombolytic drugs? |
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Definition
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Term
What drugs are the thrombolytic drugs? |
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Definition
- streptokinase (Streptase)
- alteplase (tPA, Activase)
- tenecteplase (TNKase)
- reteplase (Retavase)
- anistreplase (Eminase)
- urokinase (Abbokinase)
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Term
What do thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplasee (tPA, Activase), tenecteplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)] do? |
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Definition
dissolve thrombi that have already formed (degrades fibrin matrix |
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Term
What is a risk for thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplase (tPA, Activase), tenecteplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)]? |
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Definition
serious bleeding. these drugs must only be administered by skilled clinicians |
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Term
What are the indications for thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplase (tPA, Activase), tenectplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)]? |
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Definition
- Streptase= acute MI (infuse within 4-6 hours through a catheter into the occluded coronary artery), DVT, PE
- tPA= acute MI, PE, ischemic stroke
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Term
What are the side effects for thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplase (tPA, Activase), tenectplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)]? |
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Definition
- bleeding (recent wounds, sites of needle puncture, invasive procudure)(severe bleeding- stop infusion, pressure dressings, blood replacement)(lower risk of bleeding- minimize physical movement, avoid SC/IM injections, avoid invasive procedures, avoid anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents
- intracranial hemorrhage
- at beginning of treatment- allerrgic reactions/anaphylaxis (if this happens, discontinue infusion and give epinephrine, antihistamines, and steroids
- hypotension
- fever
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Term
What needs to be assessed for thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplase (tPA, Activase), tenecteplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)]? |
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Definition
- contraindicated in any patient with active bleeding, recent surgery, uncontrolled hypertension (cerebral hemorrhage possible)
- perform coagulation tests before administratio, H & H, platelets
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Term
What are the nursing implementations for thrombolytic drugs [streptokinase (Streptase), alteplase (tPA, Activase), tenecteplase (TNKase), reteplase (Retavase), anistreplase (Eminase), urokinase (Abbokinase)]? |
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Definition
- careful nursing assessment for complications of bleeding
- monitor thrombin time (TT), APTT, PT, H & H, platelet count
- observe extremities and palpate pulses of affected extremities for signs of circulatory failure
- heparin therapy follows treatment
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Term
What are hematopoietic and thrombopoietic growth factor drugs? |
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Definition
- epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin](Epogen, Procrit)
- darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)
- filgrastim (Neupogen)
- pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
- oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)
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Term
What are the reasons for needing for epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
- chemical that is identical to human eyrthropoietin- stimulates erythropoietin in the bone marrow (for increasing RBCs)
- no kidney function or poorly functioning kidneys- little or no erythropoietin is manufactured- decreased RBC production (anemia)
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Term
What are the indications for epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
- anemia with chronic renal failure
- severe anemia with AIDS, chemotherapy treatment
- elective non-cardiac surgery (decreases the need for transfusions)
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Term
When do effects occur with epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
higher RBC, H & H (hematocrit level between 30-33%) in 2 to 6 weeks |
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Term
What is the general route and frequency of epoetin alfa [Eruthropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
administered 3x/week-- SC or prn based on lab values, IV |
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Term
What are the side effects of epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
- hypertension related to high H & H-- high blood viscosity (polycythemia)-- high blood pressure, tachycardia
- joint and bone pain, muscle weakness, chest pain, edema, weight gain, HA
- N, V, diarrhea
- seizures
- clotting of shunt for dialysis
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Term
What are the nursing implications for epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin] (Epogen, Procrit)? |
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Definition
- determine hematocrit before treatment begins and twice weekly until target level is reached and maintenance dose is established
- contraindicated for hypertensive patients-- monitor blood pressure and treat with HTN drugs
- cost: 8-weeks treatment for a 70 kg patient with the starting dose of 150 Units/Kg 3x/week dose= $3000
- need for iron supplements
- perform neurological exams fo the risk of seizures
- do not shake vial, give only one dose/vial, store in refrigerator
- patient education (dietary sources of iron, folic acid, B12; monitor BP routinely; self administation techniques)
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Term
What is darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)? |
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Definition
- long acting erythropoietin with longer half-life (2 days)
- given less frequently
- only indication-- CRF
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Term
What is filgrastim (Neupogen)? |
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Definition
granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) |
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Term
What are the indications for filgrastim (Neupogen)? |
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Definition
- high neutrophil count in cancer patients
- treatment of severe chronic neutropenia
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Term
What are the routes of administration for filgrastim (Neupogen)? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the side effects of filgrstim (Neupogen)? |
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Definition
- bone pain (25%)- dose related, mild to moderate
- leukocytosis
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Term
What are the nursing implicattions for filgrastim (Nneupogen)? |
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Definition
- store at room temperature up to 6 hours
- do not shake
- obtain CBC prior to initial administration and twice weekly after
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Term
What is pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)? |
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Definition
- long acting G-CSF
- dosing- one SC dose injected 24 hours after each round of chemotherapy every 2 weeks
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Term
What is oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)? |
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Definition
thrombopoietic growth factor, stimulate production of platelets |
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Term
What are the indications for oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)? |
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Definition
- patients taking myelosuppressive chemotherapy
- lessen need for platelet transfusions
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Term
What is the route of administration for oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the side effects of oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)? |
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Definition
- fluid retention (edema, anemia)
- cardiac dysrhythmias (tachhycardia, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter)
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Term
What are the nursing implications for oprelvekin (Interleukin-11, Neumega)? |
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Definition
- do not shake
- must be used within 3 hours after reconstitution
- store in refrigerator
- monitor baseline CBC and platelet counts, fluid/electrolyte status
- administerr 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy until platelet count reaches about 50,000/mm^3
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Term
A patient who is taking heparin 5000 Units SC BID requests an aspirin for his headache. The nurse would: |
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Definition
contact the physician for an analgesic that does not contain aspirin |
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Term
Before discharge, a patient begins oral anticoagulant therapy while he is still taking heparin. He questions the nurst about being on both of the medications. The nurse's best response would be: |
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Definition
"It takes a few days for the Coumadin to work, so we need to keep you on the heparin." |
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Term
During streptokinase (Streptase) administration, it is important to carry out which of the following nursing interventions? |
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Definition
monitor for any signs of blood loss |
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Term
For which condition would the use of anticoagulants be contrindicated? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion is complaining of a chill and low back pain. The most appropriate nursing action would be to: |
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Definition
discontinue the heparin infusion |
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Term
What are the indications for intravenous therapy? |
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Definition
- replacement of fluids and electrolytes [must maintain a balance of fluids and electrolytes in the intracellular and extracellular spaces]
- correction of acid base imbalances
- administration of medications [immediate, predictable action]
- access for emergency situations
- measurement of blood pressure [arterial pressure monitoring]
- administration of essential nutrients
- blood products
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Term
What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? |
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Definition
- highly concentrated, hypertonic solution to provide nutrition when the GI route is not accessible [calories, fluids/20-70% dextrose, electrolytes, vitamins, minerals, trace elements, amino acids, lipids/flat emulsions]
- long term administration through a central line
- nutritionally complete
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Term
What is enteral nutrition? |
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Definition
- provision of nutrients via the GI tract (feeding by tube)
- indicated for patients with a healthy GI trract but cannot or will not ingest enough nutrition and patients with a digestive or absorptive disorder that does not allow use of the GI tract
- It is composed of amino acids, carbohydrates, fats, other (electrolytes, vitamins, trace elements)
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Term
What are the different types of blood products? |
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Definition
- whole blood= all blood components
- plasma fractions (FFP)= plasma + plasma proteins + clotting factors
- packed red blood cells (PRBC)= red blood cells + 100cc plasma
- platelets
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Term
What is intracellular fluid? |
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Definition
fluid found inside the cells, 40% of body weight |
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Term
What is extracellular fluid? |
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Definition
fluid found outside the cells [interstitial + intravasclar], 20% of the body weight |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What causes overhydration/hypervolemia? |
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Definition
- CHF
- too much fluid (IV fluid overdose)
- accumulation of fluid in cavities
- renal problems
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Term
What are the symptoms of overhydration/hypervolemia? |
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Definition
- edema
- weight gain
- JVD
- moist skin
- a lot of urine output
- high BP (HTN)
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Term
What will lab values for overhydration/hypervolemia look like? |
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Definition
they will be low, dilluted out |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What are the causes of dehydration/hypovolemia? |
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Definition
- sweating (diaphoresis)
- excessive urination
- GI losses
- hemorrhage
- diuretics
- lack of fluid intake
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Term
What are the symptoms of dehydration/hypovolemia? |
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Definition
- poor skin turgur
- dry skin/hair
- dizziness
- headache
- hypotension
- fatigue
- decreased weight
- sluggish cap refill
- dry mucous membranes
- decreased urine output
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Term
In dehydration/hypovolemia, what will your lab values look like? |
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Definition
they will be hgh due to hemoconcentration |
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Term
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Definition
- passive movement of fluid across a membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration- balancing the solutes between areas by moving fluids [solutes= dextrose, electrolytes]
- trying to maintain an equilibrium between fluids and solutes
- albumin (protein) attracts water ["water magnet"] and holds it inside the blood vessel
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Term
How many commercially prepared IV fluids are there? |
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Definition
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Term
What is an isotonic solution? |
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Definition
- match
- same solute concentration as another solution
- equally concentrations between 2 compartments, already in balance
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Term
What is a hypotonic solution? |
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Definition
- low
- lower solute concentration than another solution
- fluid shifts from a hypotonic solution into a more concentrated area to equalize concentrations
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Term
What is a hypertonic solution? |
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Definition
- high
- a higher solute concentration than another solution
- fluid will move from an area of low concentration to dilute or equalize the area of high concentration
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Term
Isotonic solutions range from _____ to ______ mOsm. |
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Definition
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