Term
| The ability of body systems to increase their function given the need to adapt is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can ensure that the systems that are essential to adaptation function adequately? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| two most common manifestations of an alteration in the sleep—wake cycle are? |
|
Definition
insomnia
sleep deprivation or increased somnolence |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
describes a personality characteristic that includes
a sense of having control over the environment,
a sense of having a purpose in life,
an ability to conceptualize stressors as a challenge rather than a threat |
|
|
Term
| Core body temperature is maintained within a range of? |
|
Definition
| 97.0 - 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit |
|
|
Term
| Properly protected, the body can function in environmental conditions that range from? |
|
Definition
| -58 degrees Fahrenheit to +122 degrees Fahrenheit |
|
|
Term
| What is the thermal control center of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Core temperatures above________ or below ________usually mean that the body’s ability to thermoregulate has been impaired. |
|
Definition
Above 105.8 degrees F
Below 93.2 F |
|
|
Term
| Spinal cord injuries that transect the cord where, can seriously impair temperature regulation and why? |
|
Definition
at T6 or above
because the thermoregulatory centers in the hypothalamus can no longer control skin blood flow and sweating. |
|
|
Term
| The body contracts or dilates superficial blood vessels for heat loss? |
|
Definition
| Dilates the blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| What are the responses of the body to being over heated? |
|
Definition
Superficial blood vessel dilation
Sweating |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitters are released when the body needs an increase in body temperature, to shift body metabolism to heat production rather than energy generation? |
|
Definition
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between hyperthermia and fever? |
|
Definition
Fever is due to an upward displacement of the thermostatic set-point
Hyperthermia is where the set-point is unchanged, but the mechanisms that control body temperature are ineffective |
|
|
Term
| Phagocytic cells digest the bacterial products and then release what? |
|
Definition
| Pyrogenic cytokines: principally interleukin-1 (IL-1), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor –alpha (TNF-alpha) |
|
|
Term
| What is considered to be the final fever mediator in the hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) is a metabolite of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rhinoviruses responsible for the common cold are cultured best at what temp? Which is similar to the temperature where in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intermittent fever is what? |
|
Definition
| One in which temperature returns to normal at least once every 24 hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the temperature does not return to normal and varies a few degrees in either direction |
|
|
Term
| sustained or continuous fever is what? |
|
Definition
| the temperature remains above normal with minimal variations (usually less than 1 degree F) |
|
|
Term
| recurrent or relapsing fever is what? |
|
Definition
| one in which there is one or more episodes of fever, each as long as several days, with one or more days of normal temperature between episodes. |
|
|
Term
| Normally, a 1 degree F raise in temperature produces what increase in HR? |
|
Definition
| 10 bpm increase in heart rate |
|
|
Term
| A heart rate that is slower than anticipated relative to the fever can occur with what disease? |
|
Definition
Legionnaire’s disease
Drug fever |
|
|
Term
| A heart rate that is more rapid than anticipated relative to the fever can be caused by what? |
|
Definition
Hyperthyroidism
Pulmonary embolism |
|
|
Term
| Fever of unknown origin (FUO) is defined as? |
|
Definition
| A temperature elevation 101 degrees F or higher that is present for 3 weeks or longer |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of FUO? |
|
Definition
Malignancy
Drug fever
HIV/TB, abscessed infections
Cirrhosis
Gallbladder disease (most common) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of FUO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of heat exhaustion, in order of severity? |
|
Definition
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke |
|
|
Term
| Malignant hyperthermia describes a rare genetic disorder of? |
|
Definition
| anesthetic-related hyperthermia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The temperature that the body senses when both the temperature and humidity are combined. |
|
|
Term
| What is the rectal temp, usually, during heat exhaustion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the individual has water depleted heat exhaustion and is hypernatremic, rehydration needs to occur at a regulated rate to reduce what? |
|
Definition
| Development of iatrogenic cerebral edema |
|
|
Term
| The core body temp during a heat stroke is usually what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 reasons infants or young children cannot lower body temp as quickly as adults? |
|
Definition
lack sufficient body surface area to dissipate excess heat,
have a lower rate of sweating,
have a slower rate of acclimatization |
|
|
Term
| Tissue damage ensues when core temperature rises above? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of drug fever is? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity reaction |
|
|
Term
| How long must you be exposed to a medication before developing drug fever? Does it depend on the dose of the drug? |
|
Definition
Several weeks
It is not dose dependent |
|
|
Term
| Malignant hyperthermia is usually associated with what type of anesthetic agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Strenuous exercise lowers the production of what nonessential amino acid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hypercoagulablility state
Vessel injury
Stasis of venous flow |
|
|
Term
| What two striated muscles provide for movement of the eyelids |
|
Definition
Levator palpebrae superioris
Orbicularis oculi |
|
|
Term
| levator palpebrae superioris, innervated by, what cranial nerve, serves to raise the upper lid? |
|
Definition
| Oculomotor nerve (CN III) |
|
|
Term
| orbicularis oculi muscle, which is supplied by what cranial nerve, closes the eyelids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is delicate mucous membrane that lines the anterior surface of both eyelids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of the conjunctiva? |
|
Definition
| its main function is the production of a lubricating mucus that bathes the eye and keeps it moist. |
|
|
Term
| A major part of the refraction (i.e. bending) of light rays and focusing of vision occurs in the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the cornea obtain nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Corneal epithelium is heavily innervated by what sensory neurons? |
|
Definition
| Trigeminal nerve (CN V), ophthalmic division (CN V1) |
|
|
Term
| The uveal tract is made up of what 3 sections? |
|
Definition
Iris
Ciliary body
The choroid |
|
|
Term
| Changes in pupil size are controlled by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is miosis? What nervous system produces this? |
|
Definition
Pupillary constriction
Parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
| What is mydriasis? What nervous system produces this? |
|
Definition
Pupillary dilation
Sympathetic |
|
|
Term
| Intraocular pressure is largely regulated by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| aqueous humor is produced by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aqueous humor leaves through the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intraocular pressure maintained within a normal range of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes open-angle glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| Abnormality of the trabecular meshwork that controls the flow of aqueous humor into the canal of schlemm |
|
|
Term
| A lesion on the right optic nerve causes a vision loss on which side? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The external acoustic meatus is what shape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The middle ear is connected anteriorly with the nasopharynx by what? |
|
Definition
| Eustachian tube, also called the pharyngotympanic tube |
|
|
Term
| What are the three tiny bones of the ear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 basic functions of the eustachian tube? |
|
Definition
Ventilation of pressures
Drainage of secretions of the nasopharynx
Protection |
|
|
Term
| Receptors for hearing are contained in the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the receptive organs that generate nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is sense in the vestibular apparatus? |
|
Definition
| Acceleration and head position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of neurons and what do they do? |
|
Definition
Afferent (sensory neurons) - carry information to the CNS
Efferent (motor neurons) - carry information from CNS to effector organs |
|
|
Term
| interneurons or internuncial neurons) do what? |
|
Definition
| modulate and control the body’s response to sensory input from the internal and external environments |
|
|
Term
| what produces the myelin? |
|
Definition
| oligodendrocytes in the CNS and Schwann cells in the PNS |
|
|
Term
| Myelin has a high_________content, which gives it what color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what pathologic conditions is the myelin degenerated or destroyed? |
|
Definition
Multiple sclerosis in the CNS
Guillain-Barre syndrome in the PNS |
|
|
Term
| nervous system appears in what developmental stage? |
|
Definition
| very early in the embryonic development |
|
|
Term
| What becomes functional approximately the second year of life, and it includes the pathways needed for bladder training? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spinal cord terminates at where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dorsal horns contain what? |
|
Definition
| IA neurons that receive afferent impulses through the dorsal roots and other connecting neurons |
|
|
Term
| Ventral horns contain what? |
|
Definition
| OA neurons and the efferent LMNs that leave the cord thorough the ventral roots |
|
|
Term
How many spinal nerves are at each section?
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sarcral, coccygeal? |
|
Definition
Cervical - 8
Thoracic - 12
Lumbar - 5
Sacrum - 5
Coccygeal - 2 |
|
|
Term
| The myostatic or stretch reflex does what? |
|
Definition
| Controls muscle tone and helps maintain posture |
|
|
Term
| All surfaces of the spinal cord, brain, and segmental nerves are convered with a delicate connective tissue layer called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A second, very delicate, nonvascular, and waterproof layer, called the what , encloses the entire CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In the subarachnoid space. |
|
|
Term
| Immediately outside the arachnoid is the continuous sheath of strong connective tissue,_______________ , which provides the major protection for the brain and spinal cord |
|
Definition
| The dura matter (i.e. “tough layer”) |
|
|
Term
| What two carriers, provide the means for maintaining the stable chemical environment of the brain? |
|
Definition
| Blood brain barrier and the CSF-brain barrier |
|
|
Term
| Only what enters the brain with relative ease? |
|
Definition
| water, carbon dioxide, and oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What division of the ANS is responsible for the Fight or Flight response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What division of the ANS is responsible for conservation of energy and resource replenishment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the neurotransmitter for the preganglionic neurons for both ANS divisions as well as the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the neurotransmitters for most sympathetic post ganglionic neurons? |
|
Definition
| Norepinephrine and epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| Two types of cholinergic receptors are known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sweat glands are innervated by what nervous system? |
|
Definition
| the sympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| These receptors are found in the autonomic ganglia and the end plates of skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acetylcholine is excitatory to most muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, except those where? |
|
Definition
| in the heart and lower esophagus, where it has an inhibitory effect. |
|
|
Term
| The drug ___________ is an antimuscarinic or muscarinic cholinergic blocking drug that prevents the action of acetylcholine at excitatory and inhibitory muscarinic receptor sites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| vascular smooth muscle, excitation of alpha receptors causes vaso___________, and excitation of beta receptors causes vaso___________ |
|
Definition
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation |
|
|
Term
| Beta receptors are most prevalent where? |
|
Definition
| Heart, the blood vessels of skeletal muscle, and the bronchioles |
|
|
Term
| Alpha 1 summary, where do they act, what do they do? |
|
Definition
| Peripheral vascular - constriction |
|
|
Term
| b-adrenergic receptors are found primarily where? |
|
Definition
| in the heart - increase HR |
|
|
Term
| Beta 2-adrenergic receptors are found where? |
|
Definition
in the bronchioles, dilate
Peripheral vasculature - dilate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________order neurons transmit sensory information from the periphery to the CNS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________order neurons communicate with various reflex networks and sensory pathways in the spinal cord and travel directly to the thalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________order neurons relay information from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three families of endogenous opioid peptides have been identified, what are they? |
|
Definition
enkephalins
endorphins,
dynophins |
|
|
Term
| This region of the brain is responsible for higher levels of thought, understanding, speaking, remembering, motor function, visualizing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diencephalon is made up of what? |
|
Definition
| Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus |
|
|
Term
| Brain stem is made up of what? Cranial nerves are intimately associated with this area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This region of the brain is responsible for coordination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lobe of the brain deals with learning and language? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lobe of the brain deals with integration of sensory information (shape, size, weight, texture, temperature = metal key)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lobe of the brain is responsible for hearing and equilibrium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lobe of the brain is responsible for vision? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What region of the brain is responsible for taste and autonomic functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hemisphere: logical, linear thinking and mathematical calculations, problem solving, language-motor and interpretive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hemisphere: Spatial, three-dimensional function as in drawing, painting, especially recognizing faces. Musical ability as in playing musical instruments and singing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Emotional tone added to language in which hemisphere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What area controls the larynx, lips and tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient may speak fluently although content may be unrelated to current conversation because they cannot understand spoken words, not even their own speech, what area has been injured? |
|
Definition
| Wernicke - Sensory aphasia |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory rhythm control centers, cardiac rate control centers, sleep/wakefulness cycling, is the main functions for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The hallmark of a brainstem lesion is what? |
|
Definition
| paralysis of one side of the head with paralysis of the contralateral side of the torso |
|
|
Term
| What inhibits unwanted movements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's Disease- degeneration of substantia nigra, because of what neurotransmitter deprivation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| loss of coordination, especially of rapid hand and finger movements, intention tremor, would come from damage to which tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| lesion from which tract can result in nystagmus (oscillatory eye movements), vertigo (dizziness), ataxic (staggering) gait? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cerebellar lesions have what type of deficits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cerebral hemisphere is connected via motor tracts to which side of the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN II-XII emerge from where? |
|
Definition
| diencephalon and brain stem |
|
|
Term
| What matter contains Neuronal cell bodies and synapses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A LMN lesion would be ipsilateral or contralateral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which tract does not cross over? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spinocerebellar lesion would affect which side |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which tract deals with Pain and temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A lesion of the spinothalamic tract results in a loss of pain/temperature sensation to which side below level of lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the Posterior (Dorsal) Columns System cross? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Biceps and brachioradialis reflexes assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Triceps reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patellar reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Achilles reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the Posterior (Dorsal) Columns System cross? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Biceps and brachioradialis reflexes assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Triceps reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patellar reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Achilles reflex assess what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| granular cells are the cells that secrete what hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What reabsorbs about two thirds of the filtered water, sodium, and chloride. |
|
Definition
| proximal tubule (convoluted and straight portions) |
|
|
Term
| Cells of the cortical collecting tubule are strongly responsive to and are regulated by what hormones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A typical glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is what? mL/min |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors determine GFR? |
|
Definition
Permeability of glomerular capillary walls
Net filtration pressure
vascular pressure |
|
|
Term
| Typical glomerular pressures are near what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| peritubular pressures are closer to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the 2 resistances both change in the same direction, the most common state of affairs, their effects on RBF will be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Constriction of the efferent arteriole _________ resistance to outflow from the glomeruli and ___________ the glomerular pressure and GFR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Constriction of the afferent arteriole causes a __________ in the renal blood flow, glomerular filtration pressure, and GFR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Angiotensin II
___________afferent and efferent arterioles and __________ RBF and GFR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The gold standard for measuring GFR is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site of action of aldosterone (sodium reabsorption) and ADH (water reabsorption)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The gold standard for measuring GFR is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site of action of aldosterone (sodium reabsorption) and ADH (water reabsorption)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nervous system promotes bladder emptying? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nervous system promotes bladder filling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the muscle of micturition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reason females more likely to have urinary tract infections (UTI) is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Assessment of a patient's acid–base status requires measurement of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| High pH + High Bicarb = ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary respiratory disorders affect blood acidity by changes in_________, and primary metabolic disorders are disturbances in __________ concentration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the anion gap equation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Male gonads have what function? |
|
Definition
the production of germ cells (gametogenesis)
the secretion of sex hormones |
|
|
Term
| secretion of testosterone is under the control of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| testes are normally maintained at a temperature of about what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hereditary baldness often fails to develop unless what is present? |
|
Definition
| dihydrotestosterone (DHT) |
|
|
Term
| most potent naturally occurring estrogen in humans is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In postmenopausal women, the principal source of circulating estrogen is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the principal source of circulating estrogen premenopausal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| GnRH causes the release of what hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Corpus luteum produces large amounts of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is a narrow "window of implantation," spanning days ________of the endometrial cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
