Term
Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
Critical engine failure speed.
Rotation speed.
Accelerate-stop distance. |
|
Definition
Critical Engine Failure Speed
Critical engine failure speed (i.e., takeoff decision speed or V1) is the speed to which the airplane can be accelerated, lose an engine, and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining engine(s) or stop, in the same total runway distance. Critical engine failure speed decreases as the airplane gross weight increases due to the increased mass that must decelerate and stop in the event of a rejected takeoff. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| VMC represents the minimum controllable airspeed with a critical engine inoperative. FAA regulations require that, in an airplane at VMC, the pilot must at least be able to stop the turn that results when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative within 20° of the original heading using max rudder deflection and a max bank of 5° into the operative engine. Also, after recovery, the pilot must maintain the airplane in straight flight with not more than 5° bank wing lowered toward the operating engine. This does not mean that the airplane must be able to climb or even to hold altitude. It means only that a heading can be maintained. |
|
|
Term
| What performance should a pilot of a light twin engine airplane be able to maintian at Vmc |
|
Definition
| Heading should be able to be maintained |
|
|
Term
| What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines? |
|
Definition
| Decreases with Altitude: For an airplane with unsupercharged engines, VMC decreases as altitude is increased; i.e., directional control can be maintained at a lower airspeed than at sea level. VMC is a function of power, which decreases with altitude. It is possible for the airplane to reach a stall speed prior to the loss of directional control. |
|
|
Term
| What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? |
|
Definition
| When one engine fails on a light twin, the climb performance loss is greater than 50% because climb performance is a function of thrust horsepower in excess of that required for level flight. When power is increased in both engines in level flight and airspeed is held constant, the airplane will climb at a rate depending on the power added. When one engine fails, however, not only does it lose power, but the drag increases considerably because of asymmetric thrust. The operating engine must carry the full burden alone, and climb performance may be reduced by 80% or more. |
|
|
Term
| What criteria determines which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine airplane |
|
Definition
| On twin-engine airplanes, if the propellers rotate in the same direction (most U.S.-designed engines rotate clockwise when viewed from the rear) and both engines develop an equal amount of thrust, the asymmetric propeller thrust, or “P-factor,” results in a center of thrust at the right side of each engine. The turning (or yawing) force of the right engine is greater than the left engine because the center of thrust is much farther away from the centerline of the fuselage; it has a longer arm. Thus, when the right engine is operative and the left engine is inoperative, the turning (or yawing) force is greater than with a good left engine and an inoperative right engine. Directional control may be difficult when the left (or critical) engine is suddenly inoperative. |
|
|
Term
| In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines |
|
Definition
| Flight tests have shown that holding the ball of the turn coordinator in the center while maintaining heading with wings level increases VMC as much as 20 kt. due to increased drag. Banking into the operative engine sufficiently to achieve zero sideslip (usually 5° or less) reduces VMC and ensures that the airplane will be in a minimum drag configuration for best climb performance. Engine-out flight with the ball centered is never advisable. |
|
|
Term
| Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed |
|
Definition
| Slush on the runway may dictate adjustments, such as a reduction in critical engine failure speed (V1), an increase in required runway length, or a penalty in runway limited weight. An inoperative antiskid system may have the same requirements according to the airplane flight manual or company operations manual |
|
|
Term
| If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? |
|
Definition
| When an engine failure occurs at an altitude above the single-engine ceiling, altitude will be lost. In an airplane not capable of maintaining altitude with an engine inoperative under existing circumstances, the airspeed should be maintained at VYSE so as to conserve altitude as long as possible |
|
|
Term
| How does VNE change with altitude? |
|
Definition
| VNE decreases with altitude and is of special interest to helicopter pilots due to the increasing risk of a retreating blade stall at higher altitudes when flying at or near VNE in gusty conditions. |
|
|
Term
| Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? |
|
Definition
| There is a relatively slow rise in temperature as the air passes through the compressor inlet to the compressor discharge. The air is discharged into the combustion chamber. At the front of the combustion chamber are the fuel spray nozzles. The temperature increases rapidly in the combustion chamber and is cooled by a secondary airflow. The turbine inlet is subjected to the highest temperature in the turbojet engine. High-temperature, high-energy combustion gas is delivered through the turbine inlet from the combustion chamber. The temperature decreases through the turbine and exhaust nozzle. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Off-route obstruction clearance altitude provides 1000ft in nonmountainous and 2000 in designated mountainous terrain in areas within the US |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-ft. buffer in nonmountainous terrain areas and a 2,000-ft. buffer in designated mountainous areas within the U.S. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigation systems, ATC radar, or communications coverage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inertial Navigation System (INS) is a totally self-contained system comprised of gyros, accelerometers, and a navigation computer that provides airplane position and navigation information in response to signals resulting from inertial effects on system components and does not require information from external sources. INS may be approved as the sole means of navigation or may be used in combination with other systems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Research has shown that the margin of safety is seriously reduced when descending at greater than 1,000' per minute during the final stages of any instrument approach procedure. Thus, the stabilized approach concept states that descents above this rate should not be attempted during this critical stage of flight. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The mileage readout on the DME is the direct distance from the airplane to the VORTAC and is commonly referred to as slant-range distance. The difference between a measured distance on the surface and the DME slant-range is known as slant-range error and is greatest at high altitudes close to the VORTAC. |
|
|
Term
| VOR identifyer during maintenance |
|
Definition
| The only positive method of identifying a VOR is by its Morse code identification or by the recorded automatic voice identification, which is always indicated by the use of the word “V-O-R” following the range’s name. During periods of maintenance, the facility may radiate a T-E-S-T code, or the identification code would be removed. |
|
|
Term
| maximum authorized altitude (MAA) |
|
Definition
| the highest altitude at which the airway can be flown without receiving conflicting navigation signals from NAVAIDs operating on the same frequency. Chart depictions appear as “MAA-15000.” |
|
|
Term
| A maximum authorized altitude (MAA) |
|
Definition
| is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. It is the highest altitude on a Federal airway, jet route, RNAV low or high route, or other direct route for which an MEA is designated at which adequate reception of navigation signals is assured. MAAs represent procedural limits determined by technical limitations or other factors such as limited airspace or frequency interference of ground based facilities. |
|
|
Term
| NDB, NDB-DME max range by category |
|
Definition
MH - Non-directional radio beacon, power less than 50 watts (25 NM).
H - Non-directional radio beacon, power 50 watts to less than 2000 watts (50 NM).
HH - Non-directional radio beacon, power 2000 watts or more (75 NM). |
|
|
Term
| VOR, VOR-DME, VORTAC, TACAN max range by category |
|
Definition
HA - Normal anticipated interference-free service below 14,500’ AGL - 40 NM; 14,500’ - 60,000’
AGL 100 NM (contiguous 48 states only); 18,000’ - 45,000’ AGL 130 NM.
L - Normal anticipated interference-free service 40 NM up to 18,000’ AGL.
T - Normal anticipated interference-free service 25 NM up to 12,000’ AGL.
U - Unknown. |
|
|
Term
| What is an SDF and what is the differences Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) |
|
Definition
The SDF provides a final approach course similar to that of the ILS localizer. It does not provide glide slope information. A clear understanding of the ILS localizer and the additional factors listed below completely describe the operational characteristics and use of the SDF.
b. The SDF transmits signals within the range of 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
c. The approach techniques and procedures used in an SDF instrument approach are essentially the same as those employed in executing a standard localizer approach except the SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider, resulting in less precision.
d. Usable off-course indications are limited to 35 degrees either side of the course centerline. Instrument indications received beyond 35 degrees should be disregarded.
e. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline. Because of this, the angle of convergence between the final approach course and the runway bearing should be determined by reference to the instrument approach procedure chart. This angle is generally not more than 3 degrees. However, it should be noted that inasmuch as the approach course originates at the antenna site, an approach which is continued beyond the runway threshold will lead the aircraft to the SDF offset position rather than along the runway centerline.
f. The SDF signal is fixed at either 6 degrees or 12 degrees as necessary to provide maximum flyability and optimum course quality.
g. Identification consists of a three-letter identifier transmitted in Morse Code on the SDF frequency. The appropriate instrument approach chart will indicate the identifier used at a particular airport. |
|
|
Term
| In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL? |
|
Definition
| Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II operation unless each ground component required for the operation is installed and operating |
|
|
Term
| Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? |
|
Definition
| Category II ILS operations require these ground components to be operative: LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lights, high-intensity runway lights (HIRL), touchdown zone lights (TDZL), runway centerline lighting system (RCLS), and runway visual range (RVR). If any of these is inoperative, an increase in DH and/or visibility may be required |
|
|
Term
| How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC |
|
Definition
| The localizer-type directional aid (LDA) is of comparable utility and accuracy to a localizer but is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA does not have to be aligned with the runway. The straight-in minimum may be published if alignment does not exceed 30° between the course and the runway. ILS localizers are aligned with the runway |
|
|
Term
| What is the controlling factor for starting an instrument approach |
|
Definition
| In order to execute an instrument approach under Part 121 or 135, the conditions at the airport of landing must be at or above landing minimums. Refer to the minimums section of the approach chart in Fig. 134, which shows that for the converging ILS RWY 9R approach, the decision height will be 721 ft. with visibility of 2 1/2 SM and a HAT of 700 ft. Since visibility is the controlling factor for starting an approach, 2 1/2 mile visibility is the best answer |
|
|
Term
| Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath? |
|
Definition
| As a general rule, you can calculate the approximate rate of descent required for a 3° glide slope by multiplying your groundspeed (in knots) by 5. |
|
|
Term
| The rate of descent for a 3.5° angle of descent glideslope is |
|
Definition
| Reference the rate of descent table in the instrument approach chart legend (). Match “3.5” in the left most column with “120” in the upper most row to determine a rate of descent of 740 ft/min. |
|
|
Term
| What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach |
|
Definition
| A compass locator or precision radar (PAR) may be substituted for the middle marker. Since an inoperative middle marker does not affect the straight-in minimums of an ILS approach, no substitution is required. |
|
|
Term
| What is Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) |
|
Definition
| Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is a RADAR system with a high update rate that closely monitors approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. PRM is certified to produce simultaneous independent approaches to closely spaced parallel runways |
|
|
Term
| Precision runway monitoring requires |
|
Definition
| The PRM requires pilots to monitor both the primary and the monitor frequencies. This system prevents missed calls due to a blocked frequency. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Required navigation performance (RNP). A specified level of accuracy defined by a lateral area of confined airspace in which an RNP-certified aircraft operates. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pilots are responsible for knowing if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called a radius-to-a-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have the capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible for knowing if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc or not. Aircraft speeds, winds, and bank angles have been taken into consideration in the development of the procedures. |
|
|
Term
| How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles? |
|
Definition
| If there is penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), the published visibility for the ILS approach can be no lower than 3/4 SM. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| LORAN-C is a pulsed, hyperbolic system radiated by a chain of stations operating in the 90-110 kHz frequency band. |
|
|
Term
| What documents the authorized operational level of LORAN-C |
|
Definition
| A pilot must be aware of the authorized operational approval level of the receiver installed in his/her aircraft. This information is contained in the airplane flight manual supplement or FAA Form 337, as appropriate. These documents are the only reliable means of determining FAA-approved LORAN-C operations |
|
|
Term
| Which class of NOTAM gives the latest information on LORAN-C chain or station outages? |
|
Definition
| Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are issued for LORAN-C chain or station outages. LORAN NOTAMs (D) are issued under the identifier “LRN.” Pilots may obtain these NOTAMs from FSS briefers upon request. |
|
|
Term
| To find the correct LORAN frequency (chain) to use, look to the heading section of the approach chart. Toward the center of this section appears MWX 9940, which identifies the stations and the group repetition interval (GRI) to identify the LORAN chain to be used for the approach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is provided by the Microwave Landing System (MLS) precision navigation system? |
|
Definition
| The MLS (microwave landing system) provides precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descent of aircraft on approach to a runway. It provides azimuth, elevation, and distance information. |
|
|
Term
| In addition to navigation information, what data is transmitted on the Microwave Landing System (MLS) frequencies |
|
Definition
| MLS provides data including meteorological information, runway status, MLS status, waypoint coordinates, ground equipment performance level, and airport conditions |
|
|
Term
| The MLS has the capability to meet a variety of needs; for example, curved and segmented approaches, selectable glide path angles, accurate three-dimensional positioning of aircraft in space, and the establishment of boundaries to ensure clearance of obstructions in the terminal area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference, if any, between the front and back azimuth of the Microwave Landing System (MLS)? |
|
Definition
| The back azimuth transmitter is essentially the same as the approach azimuth transmitter. However, the equipment transmits at a lower data rate, and the guidance accuracy requirements are not as stringent |
|
|
Term
| The standard MLS capabilities can be expanded to include back azimuth, auxiliary data transmissions (including refined airborne positioning, meteorological information, etc.), and larger proportional guidance (wider azimuth and steeper approach elevation). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The MLS provides precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descent of aircraft on approach to a runway. It provides azimuth coverage laterally 40° each side, vertically 15° to 20,000 ft., and a range of 20 NM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will |
|
Definition
| When within 2 NM of the final approach waypoint with the approach mode armed, the approach mode will switch to active, which results in RAIM changing to approach sensitivity and a change in CDI sensitivity. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during an approach will cancel the approach mode annunciation |
|
|
Term
| In order to use GPS/WAAS instrument approaches, pilots employed by an air carrier or in commercial operations must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by |
|
Definition
| GPS instrument approach operations outside the U.S. must be authorized by the appropriate sovereign authority |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A GPS missed approach requires that you take action to sequence the receiver past the missed approach waypoint (MAWP) to the missed approach portion of the procedure. You must be thoroughly familiar with the activation procedure for the particular GPS receiver installed in the airplane and must initiate appropriate action after the MAWP. |
|
|
Term
| The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) CDI sensitivity, and the navigation routes must be contained in the database in order to fly published IFR charted departures and SIDs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not require the use of GPS. The exception to that rule applies to RNAV systems using WAAS equipment. |
|
Definition
| WAAS stands forWide area augmentation system (WAAS). A differential global positioning system (DGPS) that improves the accuracy of the system by determining position error from the GPS satellites, then transmitting the error, or corrective factors, to the airborne GPS receiver. |
|
|
Term
| To conduct a localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) RNAV (GPS) approach, the aircraft must be furnished with |
|
Definition
| An approach system with an RNP of 0.3. The United States currently supports three standard RNP levels. The 0.3 tolerance indicates a 0.3-NM distance on either side of a specified flight path centerline, which is established for aircraft and obstacle separation |
|
|
Term
| Pilots using DME/DME/IRU without GPS/GNSS must ensure the aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of the takeoff roll |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the event of a two-way communication failure, ATC service will be provided on the basis that the pilot is operating in accordance with |
|
Definition
| FAR 91.185. If the failure occurs after takeoff on RWY 13L at Chicago Midway, while in IMC, the pilot should follow the departure route description for the Midway Four Departure. The flight plan in Fig. 94 indicates the airplane is RNAV equipped (/R); thus it has DME. The pilot should complete the initially assigned turn within 4 DME of Midway and maintain 3,000 ft. or an assigned lower altitude. Then 10 min. after departure, (s)he should climb to FL 190, direct to GIJ VORTAC, and follow the flight plan route |
|
|
Term
| What is Tower Enroute Control |
|
Definition
| In United States aviation, tower en route control (TEC) is a collection of published low-altitude, short-distance IFR routes through large metropolitan areas that require no level of air traffic control higher than approach-control facilities. |
|
|
Term
| RVR reading to statute mile conversion |
|
Definition
RVR Value Conversions
RVR Visibility (statute miles)
1600 1/4
2400 1/2
3200 5/8
4000 3/4
4500 7/8
5000 1
6000 1 1/4 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A visual maneuver
accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an
instrument approach to permit a straight-in landing
on a parallel runway not more than 1,200 feet to either
side of the runway to which the instrument approach
was conducted. |
|
|
Term
| TQ when to Start a Sidestep Maneuver |
|
Definition
Pilots are expected to commence the side-step maneuver as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. Compliance with minimum altitudes associated with stepdown fixes is expected even after
the side−step maneuver is initiated. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The OM normally indicates a position at
which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the
localizer course will intercept the ILS glide path. |
|
|
Term
| The middle marker defines... |
|
Definition
The MM indicates a position approximately 3,500 feet from the landing threshold. This is
also the position where an aircraft on the glide path
will be at an altitude of approximately 200 feet above
the elevation of the touchdown zone. |
|
|
Term
| The Inner Marker Defines... |
|
Definition
The IM will indicate a point at which an
aircraft is at a designated decision height (DH) on the
glide path between the MM and landing threshold. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The Simplified Directional Facility provides a final approach course
similar to that of the ILS localizer. It does not provide glide slope information. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline.
This angle is generally not more than 3 degrees. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Localizer type directional aid: The LDA is of comparable use and accuracy
to a localizer but is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course usually provides a more precise approach course than the similar Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) installation, which may have a course width of 6 or 12 degrees.
2. The LDA is not aligned with the runway. Straight−in minimums may be published where alignment does not exceed 30 degrees between the course and runway. Circling minimums only are published where this alignment exceeds 30 degrees. |
|
|
Term
| Part 135 says what about approach mins if you have yet to fly 100hrs in type? |
|
Definition
| FAR 135.225 requires that, if the PIC of a turbine-powered airplane has less than 100 hr. as PIC in that type of airplane (i.e., BE 1900), the MDA or DH is increased by 100 ft., and the visibility by 1/2 SM (or 2,400 ft. RVR). |
|
|
Term
| How to calculate specific range |
|
Definition
| Specific range or specific air range is the distance aircraft can be reached for every weight of fuel burned. The unit is used commonly in nautical miles per pound (nm/lb). |
|
|
Term
| Calculate Specific Range part II |
|
Definition
To achieve the best possible SAR we need to get the best TAS / fuel flow ratio and as fuel flow relates to power we can also say TAS / power ratio.
Engine gross fuel consumption or fuel flow (GFC) depends on how much power is requested related to its specific fuel consumption (SFC), thus GFC = SFC x power. Combining these formula results in: SAR = TAS/power x 1/SFC.
Thus, we need to fly the aircraft to its maximum airframe efficiency TAS / power and engine efficiency 1 / SFC. Maximum airframe efficiency is at the speed for minimum drag or maximum L/D ratio. Usually equal to VY. For aircraft handling the best range speed is about 10% higher, sometimes known as the 'long range cruise speed'. |
|
|
Term
| Simple way to calculate Specific Range |
|
Definition
| True Airspeed (TAS) / Fuel Flow (pph) divided by 1000 |
|
|
Term
| Know how to calculate A/C Category |
|
Definition
Determine the aircraft category by using the higher of 1.3 VS0 or VREF
Then A/C cats are determined using
CAT A <90
CAT B 91 - 120
CAT C 121 - 140
CAT D 141 - 165
CAT E 166 or more |
|
|
Term
| A grouping of aircraft based on a speed of VRef, if specified, or if VRef is not specified, 1.3 x VS0 at the maximum certificated landing weight. VRef, VS0, and the maximum certificated landing weight are those values as established for the aircraft by the certification authority of the country of registry. An aircraft shall fit in only one category. If it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of a speed range for a category, the minimums for the next higher category should be used. |
|
Definition
1] The categories are as follows:
Category A: Speed less than 90 knots.
Category B: Between 91 and 120 knots.
Category C: Between 121 and 140 knots.
Category D: Between 141 knots and 165 knots.
Category E: Speed 166 knots or more. |
|
|
Term
When a T appears in the Notes section, it signifies the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums.
CIVIL USERS NOTE: FAR 91 prescribes standard
take-off rules and establishes take-off minimums for certain
operators as follows: (1) Aircraft having two engines
or less - one statute mile. (2) Aircraft having more than
two engines - one-half statute mile. These standard minima
apply in the absence of any different minima listed in
Section C of the TPP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Maximum authorized altitude (MAA). A published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment |
|
|
Term
| What is the MAA on a Jet route where the MAA is not specifically listed on the chart?? |
|
Definition
| The jet route system consists of routes established from 18,000 ft. MSL to 45,000 ft. MSL inclusive. Jet routes are identified by the letter “J” followed by the airway number. Since there is no lower MAA specified on the chart, the MAA is the upper limit of the jet route. |
|
|
Term
| If the PIC has not served 100 hr. as PIC in the type of airplane (s)he is operating under Part 121, the MDA or DH must be increased by 100 ft., and the visibility by 1/2 SM (or 2,400 ft. RVR). However, the PIC time requirement may be reduced (not more than 50%) by substituting one landing in that type of airplane, while operating under Part 121, for one required hour of PIC time, if the PIC has at least 100 hr. as PIC in another type of airplane while operating under Part 121 |
|
Definition
| Since the PIC has over 100 hr. as PIC in the L-1011 while operating under Part 121, (s)he can substitute each landing in the B-767 for one required hour of PIC time. Thus, the PIC meets the 100-hr. PIC requirement and can use the published minimums of 5567/18 for the ILS/DME RWY 35R approach at DEN. |
|
|
Term
| PAPI (P4R)means what to me? |
|
Definition
| means that the PAPI is a four-light system installed on the right side of the runway. Thus, when on the glide slope, the pilot will see two red and two white lights, in a row, on the right side of the runway. |
|
|
Term
| In block 3 of the flight plan, there is the following entry: B/B747/R. What does the prefix “B” indicate? |
|
Definition
| In a flight plan, a prefix “B” before the airplane type in block 3 indicates that the airplane is TCAS equipped and heavy. |
|
|
Term
| Wake Turbulence Category. |
|
Definition
Insert an oblique stroke followed by one of the following letters to indicate the wake turbulence category of the aircraft:
(1) H — HEAVY, to indicate an aircraft
type with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 300,000 pounds (136 000 kg), or more;
(2) M — MEDIUM, to indicate an aircraft
type with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of less than 300,000 pounds (136,000 kg), but more than 15,500 pounds (7,000 kg);
(3) L — LIGHT, to indicate an aircraft type with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 15,500 pounds (7,000 kg) or less. |
|
|
Term
| Flight Plan suffix /R means |
|
Definition
Required Navigational Performance (RNP). The aircraft meets the RNP type prescribed for the route segment(s),
route(s) and/or area concerned. |
|
|
Term
| Flight Plan Suffix /B means |
|
Definition
| Transponder with no Mode C |
|
|
Term
| Flight Plan suffix /A means |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| /W means on a flight plan |
|
Definition
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUM (RVSM) capable aircraft. Prior to conducting RVSM operations within the
U.S., the operator must obtain authorization from the FAA or from the responsible authority, as appropriate. |
|
|
Term
| "Standard Alternate Minimums are??: |
|
Definition
| Below the minimums section (lower left corner), there is a black triangle with a white “A” inside, which indicates nonstandard alternate minimums. Fig. 183 lists the nonstandard alternate minimums for ACY. Since the nonstandard alternate minimums for the ILS RWY 13 apply to Cat. D and E aircraft only, a Cat. C aircraft can use the standard alternate minimums for a precision approach of 600-2 |
|
|
Term
| Pilot with less than 100 hours diverts, what is the minimum weather required for him to start down the approach? |
|
Definition
| If the PIC has not served 100 hours as PIC in that type of airplane, the minimum landing visibility at an alternate airport cannot be less than 1 SM (or 5,000 ft. RVR). |
|
|
Term
| If the PIC has not served 100 hours as PIC in the type of airplane (s)he is operating under Part 121, the MDA or DH and visibility |
|
Definition
| need not be increased above those applicable to the airport when used as an alternate, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 ft. and 1 SM (or 5,000 ft. RVR). |
|
|
Term
| Determine the change over point (COP) |
|
Definition
| The changeover point is located midway between the navigation facilities for straight route segments, or at the intersection of radials or courses forming a dogleg. When the COP is not located at the midway point, the chart will depict the COP location and give the mileage to the radio aids. |
|
|
Term
| What directions are given winds in (i.e. convert from what to what) |
|
Definition
| Wind direction and speed at altitude are given in TRUE measurement and have to be converted to magnetic based on the mag var of the geo location. Surface winds are given in magnetic. |
|
|
Term
| Pilots can receive the latest NOTAMS for their flight by... |
|
Definition
| Contacting the nearest FSS in person, telephoning or contacting on radio. |
|
|
Term
| If you see ADCUS available what does that mean |
|
Definition
| ADCUS means to "advise custons" of an internatioanl flight and is handled by an FSS, not by a tower! |
|
|
Term
| Cut and paste Sec 121.652 highlights, rules about weather required at your alternates if you have less than 100 hours... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the PIC has not served 100 hours as PIC in the type of airplane (s)he is operating under Part 121, the MDA or DH and visibility need not be increased above those applicable to the airport when used as an alternate, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 ft. and 1 SM (or 5,000 ft. RVR). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By definition, does teh basic operating weight include the crew weight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If given BAsic empty weight as part of the weight and balance calculations, what do you have to add to get to the basic operating weight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To calculate a CG shift in a word problem do what |
|
Definition
| Take the change in moment arm times the amount of weight moving in the neumerator and divide it by the total Weight |
|
|
Term
| Two scenarios for calculating shift in CG. One is if the weight is moved but the total weight remaines the same. |
|
Definition
CG = M1 ± ΔM
W1 ± ΔW
Since current CG location is unknown, M1 = 0, and there is no change in weight so W = 0.
CG shift = ΔM
W1 |
|
|
Term
| When utiliing performance data charts for time and distance to descend, what does it mean when distance is given in nautical air miles (NAM)?? |
|
Definition
| It means that the distance has been adjusted for wind effect. |
|
|
Term
| how do you sue time distnace to descend charts |
|
Definition
| Find the difference between the time fuel and distance values at your present altitude and the altitude to which you wish to descend, similarly to the use of the time, fuel, and distance to climb chart. |
|
|
Term
| How many pencils does it take to stick in your eye while studying for an ATP test |
|
Definition
| It depends, are you right handed or left handed (a little steinf15 humor) KEEP Studying!! |
|
|
Term
| Sweptwing airplanes express CG as a percent of what? |
|
Definition
| MAC; mean aerodynamic chord. It relates to sweptwing planes and is a distance. The MAC is the width of a mean aerodynamic chord usually given in inches. |
|
|
Term
| What does LEMAC stand for |
|
Definition
| the leading edge of the MAC, i.e. the forward edge of MAC. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Percent fo MAC is the number of inches the CG is aft of the front edge of the man aerodynamic chord divided by the total distance of MAC. |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate CG change after a weight shift knowing the percent MAC already |
|
Definition
CG change (in.)=(weight shifted)times(distance of shift) /divided by aircraft weight or
Change (in percent if MAC) you take the MAC (prev. percent MAC)+- (net CG change in in.) divided by MAC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g. apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane in the remaining runway.
It is also the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engien at Vef, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve teh required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the rotation speed - when you rotate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is takeoff safety speed--airspeed necessary for the climb profile |
|
|
Term
| Alternate planning; distance is given as NAM (nautical air miles). what does this mean to you |
|
Definition
| NAM has already been determined by dividign the TAS by the GS (using wind and temperature at altitude) and multiplying this amount by the nautical ground miles (NGM), or NAM = NGMx(TAS/GS). Thus, NMA accounts for the wind component ("you will not be tested on this) |
|
|
Term
| B737 questions: What is EPR |
|
Definition
| Engine-Pressure ratio: it indicates the thrust being developed by the engine; it is the pressure differential between the engine inlet and the turbine exhaust. |
|
|
Term
| knowing distance and avg wind component, they ask trip time corrected for wind. Use a table to find TAS. what equation do you use to find change in trip time? |
|
Definition
| Time given times wind component divided by TAS given equals change in time (+ or - based on HW or TW) |
|
|
Term
| They ask for estimated fuel consumption adjusted for wind. Use the fuel used off the table, the TAS given, the Distance given and wind speed given |
|
Definition
| The change in fuel from a no wind condition is found by multiplying the fuel needed no wind times wind component divided by the TAS |
|
|
Term
| B737 term; what is drift down performance? |
|
Definition
| Drift-down performance provides a means of operating to the critical engine altitude to maximize range, i.e., after an engine malfunction. |
|
|
Term
| Gross Weight Index is defined as: |
|
Definition
| This is simply the total moment (the column that sums up all (Arms*Weights) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Engine-Pressure ratio. It indicates thrust being developed y the engine: the pressure differential between the engine inlet and the turbine exhaust. |
|
|
Term
| What speed is the takeoff safety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
"GuS wears a HAT" is a useful acronym to figure out a VDP. Take the Height Above Touchdown (HAT) divided by the Glideslope angle. HAT/GS = VDP
An easy example: We know that for a 3 degree glidepath we want 300 feet per mile. So, if we have a 600' HAT we would want a VDP of 2 miles from the end of the runway. 600/3 = 2 "GuS wears a HAT" |
|
|
Term
| Define Transition Distance as well as Air & Transition distance on landing distance charts (B727) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a feature of a stationary front? |
|
Definition
| The opposing forces exerted by adjacent air masses of different densities are such that the frontal surface between them shows little or no movement and a stationary front results. The surface winds tend to flow parallel to this frontal zone. |
|
|
Term
| In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form? |
|
Definition
| Frontal waves and areas of low pressure usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or on stationary fronts. |
|
|
Term
| What the hell is frontolysis |
|
Definition
| Frontolysis is the process in which the adjacent air masses modify, and as temperature and pressure equalize across a front, causing the front dissipates. |
|
|
Term
| Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band |
|
Definition
| An instability line is a narrow, nonfrontal line or band of convective activity. If this activity is fully developed thunderstorms, it is called a squall line. |
|
|
Term
| What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the frictiondecreases windspeed and Coriolis force. |
|
Definition
| Surface friction decreases the wind speed and Coriolis force but does not affect pressure gradient force. The stronger pressure gradient turns the wind across the isobars toward lower pressure |
|
|
Term
| The Coriolis force affects the wind direction everywhere except immediately at the Equator. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Warm air flowing over a colder lake may become saturated by evaporation from the water while also becoming cooler in the low levels by contact with the cooler water. Fog often becomes extensive and dense to the lee side of the lake. The lee side is the side to which the wind is going. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does adiabatic heating and cooling of the atmosphere mean. |
|
Definition
| when air expands, it cools; when compressed, it warms. These changes are adiabatic, meaning that no heat is removed from or added to the air. |
|
|
Term
| What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge? |
|
Definition
| The altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge is where convective cloud bases form. Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about 3.0°C (5.4°F) per 1,000 ft.; dew point decreases at about 5/9°C (1°F) per 1,000 ft. When they converge, cloud bases form. |
|
|
Term
| What is Katabatic wind and why does it form |
|
Definition
| Katabatic wind forms because cold, heavy air spills down sloping terrain displacing warmer, less dense air ahead of it. The cold, heavy air is adiabatically heated and dried as it flows downslope because of heating due to the downward air being compressed by increasing pressure. |
|
|
Term
| Stable air resists convection. If a parcel of air is lifted, it is cooler than the surrounding air and will return to its original position when the lifting force is removed. Spontaneous convection is impossible in stable air. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases |
|
Definition
| When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat known as the “latent heat of vaporization.” The water removal cools the air from which the water is removed. |
|
|
Term
| Ambient temperature lapse rate. |
|
Definition
| The difference between the ambient temperature lapse rate of a given mass of air and the adiabatic rates of cooling in upward-moving air determines the stability of the air. For example, surface heating or cooling aloft tends to make the air unstable, while surface cooling or warming aloft tends to make the air more stable. |
|
|
Term
| What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion? |
|
Definition
| An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is relatively calm. The ground radiates heat and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold, while the temperature a few hundred feet above changes very little. |
|
|
Term
| If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL 350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude |
|
Definition
| Density altitude, by definition, is pressure altitude adjusted for nonstandard temperature. When the ambient air temperature is warmer than standard, the expanded air is lighter in weight per unit volume than on a cold day, and the pressure levels are raised. Thus, the pressure level where the altimeter indicates FL 350 is higher on a warm day than under standard conditions. |
|
|
Term
| What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? |
|
Definition
| Corrected altitude is the indicated altitude of an airplane’s altimeter corrected for temperature variation from standard atmospheric temperature. This is an approximation of true altitude. |
|
|
Term
| Which pressure is defined as station pressure |
|
Definition
| Pressure can be measured only at the point of measurement. The pressure measured at a station or airport is “station pressure,” or the actual pressure at field elevation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm? |
|
Definition
| In a thunderstorm, the updrafts (lifting action) result in water vapor changing to liquid or condensation. Condensation releases latent heat to the atmosphere, which partially offsets cooling in the saturated updraft and increases buoyancy within the cloud. |
|
|
Term
| Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? |
|
Definition
| A stratus layer may sometimes form in a mildly stable layer while convective clouds penetrate the layer and possibly form thunderstorms. These thunderstorms may be almost or entirely embedded in a massive stratus layer and pose an unseen threat to instrument flight. |
|
|
Term
| Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? |
|
Definition
| The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins when rain begins falling at the surface. This means that downdrafts have developed sufficiently to carry water all the way through the thunderstorm. |
|
|
Term
| Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous |
|
Definition
| During the mature stage, cold rain in the downdraft slows compressional heating, and the downdraft remains colder than the surrounding air. Thus, its downward speed is accelerated and may exceed 2,500 fpm. |
|
|
Term
| Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes |
|
Definition
| Funnel clouds or tornadoes normally form with steady-state thunderstorms associated with cold fronts or squall lines. The mature stage updrafts in a steady-state thunderstorm are stronger and last longer than those in air mass storms and may persist for several hours. |
|
|
Term
| What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm |
|
Definition
| The rain associated with an air mass thunderstorm falls through or immediately beside the updraft. Falling precipitation induces frictional drag, retards the updraft, and reverses it to a downdraft. During a steady-state thunderstorm, precipitation falls outside the updraft, allowing the updraft to continue unabated. |
|
|
Term
| Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds? |
|
Definition
| Cumulonimbus mamma is a cumulonimbus cloud having hanging protuberances like pouches, testes, or udders on the underside of the cloud, usually indicative of severe turbulence. This type of cloud can produce a tornado. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A squall line is a nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Most often squall lines develop ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air. |
|
|
Term
| technique as to how high to fly over a thunderstorm (I don't recommend ever doing this) |
|
Definition
| The top of a known or suspected severe thunderstorm should be cleared by at least 1,000 ft. of altitude for each 10 kt. of wind speed at the cloud top. In some severe thunderstorms, this clearance may exceed the altitude capability of most aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces |
|
Definition
| On clear nights with stable air and light winds. Frost will most likely form on aircraft surfaces on clear nights with stable air and light winds. These are conditions that in all other respects make weather ideal for flying. |
|
|
Term
| charicteristic of supercooled water droplets |
|
Definition
| Water droplets that are colder than 0°C are considered supercooled. When they strike an exposed object, they freeze on impact. Aircraft icing results if supercooled water strikes an airplane. |
|
|
Term
| this is slightly a gotch question; What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? |
|
Definition
| Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight: (1) The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets, and (2) the temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0°C or colder. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice? |
|
Definition
Residual ice increases with an decrease in airspeed or temperature
The FAA recommends that the deicing system be activated at the first indication of icing. Because some residual ice continues to adhere between pneumatic boot system cycles, the wing is never entirely “clean.” The amount of residual ice increases as airspeed and/or temperature decrease due to the more favorable conditions for ice accumulation associated with these conditions. At airspeeds typical of small airplanes, it may take many boot cycles to effectively shed the ice. |
|
|
Term
| The most susceptible surface of the aircraft for ice accumulation is the |
|
Definition
| Tailplane. On most aircraft the tailplane is not visible to the pilot, who therefore cannot observe how well it has been cleared of ice by any deicing system. Both the main wings and the windshield are in plain view of the pilot, making awareness of ice accumulation more obvious. Also, the thinness of the tailplane over the main wings and its simple shape compared to the windshield make it a more efficient ice collector. |
|
|
Term
| When conditions favoring the formation of ice are present, pilots should check for ice accumulation prior to flight. The best way to do this is by |
|
Definition
| Using a flashlight and looking for light reflections indicating ice. Because ice, particularly clear ice, is difficult to detect on the aircraft’s surface, you can shine a flashlight along all visible surfaces of the aircraft and watch for light reflections. This would be an indication of ice on the aircraft’s surface. |
|
|
Term
| To recover from a tailplane stall brought on by ice accumulation, the pilot should |
|
Definition
| When a tailplane stall occurs, the pilot should immediately return the flaps to the previously selected position. Tailplane stalls are aggravated by an increase in flap extension. You will need to increase power to compensate for the reduction in lift caused by raising the flaps, but be careful to not increase power too drastically because an increase in airspeed can also aggravate a tailplane stall. |
|
|
Term
| Tailplane icing can be detected by a(n |
|
Definition
| A sudden uncommanded nose-down pitch is a symptom of tailplane icing that has caused a tailplane stall. The correct pilot reaction, unlike in a main wing stall, is to apply full aft-control pressure along with a reduction of the wing flaps to the last safe position. |
|
|
Term
| indications of tailplane iceing |
|
Definition
| Elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations as well as any other unusual or abnormal pitch anomalies (possibly resulting in pilot induced oscillations) are indicative of tailplane ice accumulation. If installed, anti-ice equipment should be activated. If no anti-ice system is installed or if the accumulation is not sufficiently combated by the anti-ice system, the pilot should exit icing conditions immediately. |
|
|
Term
| A tailplane stall as the result of ice accumulation is most likely to occur during |
|
Definition
| Approach and Landing. An ice-contaminated tailplane stall typically occurs either while extending the wing trailing edge flaps to the landing position or with the flaps already extended to that position when operating in, or departing from, icing conditions. Since flaps are normally only extended to the landing position during final approach to landing, tailplane stalls as the result of ice accumulation are most common in this phase of flight. |
|
|
Term
| Troposphere charicteristics... |
|
Definition
| e troposphere is the layer from the surface to an average altitude of 7 mi. It is characterized by an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude. |
|
|
Term
| Kinda trick question: Q:Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A: Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate. Note the other side of this card for full description of tropopause. |
|
Definition
| The tropopause is characterized by an abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. The temperature above the tropical tropopause increases with height, and the temperature above the polar tropopause remains about constant with height. |
|
|
Term
| Where are jetstreams normally located |
|
Definition
| In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. The jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds extending around the Earth in a wavelike pattern. The jet stream typically occurs in a break in the tropopause in an area of intensified temperature gradients characteristic of the break. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts? |
|
Definition
| The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. Strong, long-trajectory jet streams usually are associated with well-developed surface lows and frontal systems beneath upper troughs or lows. The jet stream is to the north as a surface low develops, and the low moves nearer the jet stream as the low deepens. The occluding low moves north of the jet stream, and the jet stream crosses the frontal system near the point of occlusion. |
|
|
Term
| Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream |
|
Definition
Occluded front.
The development of a surface low usually is south of the jet stream and moves nearer as the low deepens. The occluding low moves north of the jet stream, and the jet stream crosses the frontal system near the point of occlusion. |
|
|
Term
| Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. |
|
Definition
| Air travels in a “corkscrew” path around the jet stream with upward motion on the equatorial side. Thus, when high-level moisture is available, cirrus clouds form on the equatorial side of the jet stream. |
|
|
Term
| A strong wind shear can be expected |
|
Definition
| on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core. Wind speed decreases outward from the jet stream core, and the rate of decrease is greater on the polar (low-pressure) side than on the equatorial (high-pressure) side. Thus, a strong wind shear can be expected on the low-pressure side of a 100-kt. jet stream core. |
|
|
Term
| Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems? |
|
Definition
Arctic and subtropical. The high-pressure belt at about 30° north latitude forces air outward at the surface to the north and to the south. The southward moving air is deflected by the Coriolis force, becoming the well-known subtropical northeast (moving northeast to southwest) trade winds.
In the arctic region (60° north latitude and above), the heavier, denser air moves south at a low level toward the Equator but is turned to the right by the Coriolis force, causing the low-level polar easterlies (moving east to west). |
|
|
Term
Light Turbulence definition=
Intermittant is defined as: |
|
Definition
| Light turbulence is defined as turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. Intermittent is defined as occurring from one-third to two-thirds of the time. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Light chop is turbulence that causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude. Occasional is defined as occurring less than one-third of the time. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Moderate turbulence is defined as turbulence that causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Continuous is defined as occurring more than two-thirds of the time. |
|
|
Term
| The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of |
|
Definition
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast service over selected VORs of in-flight weather advisories, i.e., SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, severe weather forecast alerts (AWW), and center weather advisories (CWA).
***Note: the other answers in the practice exam has Wind Shear Advisories in the wrong answers. use that as a differentiator. |
|
|
Term
| What is EFAS and what is it useful for? |
|
Definition
| En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot-reported weather information (PIREP). |
|
|
Term
| Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on |
|
Definition
| En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying 5,000 ft. AGL to 17,500 ft. MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz. EFAS is normally available from 6 a.m. to 10 p.m. |
|
|
Term
| What is HIWAS and how do you receive HIWAS |
|
Definition
| HIWAS is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of in-flight weather advisories including AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, center weather advisories, urgent PIREPs, and summarized severe weather forecast alerts. |
|
|
Term
| How can the pilot obtain TWEB Route Forecast information? |
|
Definition
| A pilot can obtain TWEB (Transcribed Weather Broadcasts) Route Forecast information by telephone access to the TWEB (TEL TWEB), at selected locations. These numbers are found in the FSS and National Weather Service telephone numbers section of the Airport/Facility Directory. A pilot can also obtain TWEB information from radio broadcasts over selected low-frequency navigational aids and VORs. |
|
|
Term
| The TWEB Route Forecasts and Synopses are issued by the Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs) four times per day. The TWEB forecast is valid for a(n) |
|
Definition
| The TWEB Route Forecasts and Synopses are issued by Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs) four times per day, and the forecast is valid for a 12-hr. period. |
|
|
Term
| The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) recordings are provided by selected Automated Flight Service Stations and |
|
Definition
| TIBS recordings contain area briefings that may encompass a service area that has been configured to meet the individual facility’s needs, e.g., encompassing a 50 NM radius. In some instances, the service area is not defined by a nautical mile radius but rather as a geographic location, such as Northwest Nebraska. |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are indicated on a Weather Depiction Chart? |
|
Definition
| The weather depiction chart is computer prepared from the observations reported by both manual and automated observation locations to provide a broad overview of observed conditions as of the time the chart was prepared. The chart indicates actual sky cover, visibility restrictions, and type of precipitation at reporting stations. |
|
|
Term
| Beware, this question is a pick the best/most complete answer vs only one of the questions being correct: What is indicated on the Weather Depiction Chart by a continuous smooth line enclosing a hatched geographic area? |
|
Definition
Reporting stations within the enclosed area are all showing IFR conditions at the time of the report.
A continuous smooth line enclosing a hatched area indicates that all reporting stations within the enclosed area are reporting IFR weather conditions at the time of the report. Even though the map key says "Shaded Areas...IFR with cig less than 1000ft and/or vsby less than 3 mi. |
|
|
Term
| Weather depiction charts show obscuration and fog via what symbols? |
|
Definition
| The chart shows obscured skies, by the “X” in the station circle, and fog, by the “=” symbol to the left of the station circle. Since the area is shaded, the conditions are IFR. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| On the 12-hour significant weather prognostic chart (panel A of Fig. 151), the symbol "looks like a hat ” indicates moderate turbulence. The expected top and base of the turbulent layer appear above and below a short line in hundreds of ft. MSL. Absence of a figure below the line (as here) indicates turbulence from the surface up. No figure above the line indicates turbulence extending above the upper limit of the chart. Thus, in southern California, moderate turbulence is expected from the surface up to 12,000 ft. MSL. |
|
|
Term
| The U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions |
|
Definition
that are forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.
A low-level prognostic chart contains four panels: the two on the left are for 12 hr. after the time of issuance, and the two on the right are for 24 hr. after issuance. The two on the top are significant weather progs, and the two on the bottom are surface progs. |
|
|
Term
| WOW. NEVER HEARD OF THIS! What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) report for FL 390 - “731960”? |
|
Definition
| The first two digits are the direction group, and since it is greater than 36, the wind speed must be 100 kt. or greater. Subtract 50 from the direction group to determine wind direction of 230° (73 – 50 = 23). The second two digits are the wind speed; since it was determined that the wind was 100 kt. or greater, add 100 to this group. Thus, the wind speed is 119 kt. (100 + 19 = 119). |
|
|
Term
| Wow #2; read this one also: A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature –51°C at FL 390. How would this data be encoded in the FD? |
|
Definition
| At FL 390, a 280° wind at 205 kt. is encoded as 789951. The first two digits are the direction. The second two digits are velocity. When wind speed is forecast at 200 kt. or greater, the wind group is coded as 99, and 50 is added to the direction code. Here the direction is 78 for 280°. The last two digits indicate the temperature, and minus signs are omitted above 24,000 ft. MSL. |
|
|
Term
| TRICKY QUESTION: Calculating ISA above 36K ft you use a constant temp of -56 vs continuing to calculate lapse rate. TRICK QUESTION |
|
Definition
| To compare the temperature to standard temperature, remember that the temperature in the tropopause (36,000 ft. MSL and above) is approximately –56°C. Thus, –50°C is ISA +6°C. (ISA is the International Standard Atmosphere. ISA temperature at sea level is 15°C and decreases at a rate of 2°/1,000 ft. up to 36,000 ft. MSL.) |
|
|
Term
| SPECI in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) means what and is used for what purpose |
|
Definition
| An aviation selected special weather report. In this practice question there is a slight trick in the wording. At 1818Z (or 1818 UTC), KLBB issued a SPECI report, which is an aviation selected special weather report. The SPECI is a nonroutine aviation weather report taken when any of the SPECI criteria have been observed. Pressure changes are not an item that would require a SPECI. Also, a SPECI is technically an aviation selected special weather report, not a special METAR. A SPECI may additionally be used for other than weather changes such as volcanic eruptions or aircraft mishaps... |
|
|
Term
| Peak wind reports; interesting fun facts, note it is in true not mag (I don't know why...yet) |
|
Definition
| Whenever the peak wind exceeds 25 kt., PK WND will be included in the remarks with three digits for direction and two or three digits for speed followed by the time (in hours and minutes or just minutes past the hour) of occurrence. The time of the METAR report for KAMA is 1755Z, and the remark PK WND 32039/43 means the peak wind 320° true at 39 kt. occurred at 43 min. past the hour, or at 1743Z. |
|
|
Term
| does AUTO mean it is an ASOS (Automated Automated Surface observing System) and how do I know if it has a precipitation descriminator?? |
|
Definition
| After the date/time group on the METAR for the airfield you are looking at might be the contraction AUTO, which means that the METAR is a fully automated report. Currently, an ASOS is the only automated station that performs the basic observing functions necessary to generate a METAR report. Additionally, the remark A02 means the automated station has a precipitation discriminator. |
|
|
Term
| SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA |
|
Definition
| The remarks (RMK) section of the SPECI report at KGLS indicates rain began at 57 min. past the hour (RAB57); wind shear occurred during takeoff on RWY 09L (WS TKO RW09L); and the wind shifted in direction at 58 min. past the hour due to a frontal passage (WSHFT 58 FROPA). |
|
|
Term
| "If it is written it is True" Converting True to Mag... |
|
Definition
Find the true course of that radial using the plotter and then subtract or add the variation found nearby by referencing the isogonic lines (dashed magenta) to get the magnetic course.
TC -/+ Variation = MC
To find your Magnetic Heading (MH) you would also have to account for winds which are given in reference to true north so then it would be:
TC -/+ WCA = True Heading (TH)
TH -/+ Var = Magnetic Heading (MH)
MH -/+ Dev = Compass Heading (CH) |
|
|
Term
METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005.
SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000.
What change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC? |
|
Definition
| The special report (SPECI) for KSPS at 1820 UTC reports that a funnel cloud (FC) was observed |
|
|
Term
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A02 $. |
|
Definition
| The answer is less than a quarter mile. The M in the M1/4 means less than versus what most of us would think is measured! PPrevailing visibility is reported in statute miles with a space and then fractions of statute miles, as needed, with SM appended to it. This METAR was produced at an automated station, as indicated by the modifier AUTO. At an automated station, visibility of less than 1/4 SM is reported as M1/4SM. |
|
|
Term
The VV001 in the following METAR indicates
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $ |
|
Definition
| The sky condition in the METAR is shown as VV001, which means a vertical visibility (spoken as an indefinite ceiling) of 100 ft. |
|
|
Term
The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR indicates that
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A02 $. |
|
Definition
| A maintenance indicator (dollar) sign, $, is included when an automated weather reporting station detects that maintenance is needed on the system. |
|
|
Term
| What parameters need be met to qualify a weather phenomenon as a Squal? |
|
Definition
| A squall is a sudden increase of at least 16 kt. in average wind speed to a sustained speed of 22 kt. or more for at least 1 minute. Squalls are reported in the METAR as weather phenomena by the code SQ. |
|
|
Term
| Obscure info on weather remarks in the METAR. What does SLP993 mean to you? |
|
Definition
| In the remarks (RMK) section of the METAR, the coded group SLP993 means the sea-level pressure (SLP) is 999.3 hectopascals. A coded element beginning with the number 6 indicates the 3- and 6-hr. precipitation amount. The “6” is followed by four digits indicating precipitation about using tens, units, tenths, and hundredths of an inch. When an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred, four forward slashes will follow the number 6 (6////). |
|
|
Term
| Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to |
|
Definition
| thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less). Manual weather augmentation remarks added to an AWOS-generated METAR are located in the remarks section. As a general rule, the manual remarks are limited to thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to vision when the visibility is 3 SM or less. |
|
|
Term
| Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport at the ETA? |
|
Definition
| A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an airport during a specified period (usually 24 hr.). Thus, a TAF contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport at the ETA. |
|
|
Term
| Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters “VC.” When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of |
|
Definition
| When VC appears in a TAF, it applies to weather conditions expected to occur in an area within a 5-to-10 SM radius of the airport, but not at the airport itself. |
|
|
Term
| What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? |
|
Definition
| The term VC (vicinity) applies to weather conditions expected within a 5-to-10 SM radius of the airport, but not at the airport itself. Thus, VCTS in a TAF means thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity of the airport. |
|
|
Term
| Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? |
|
Definition
| If cumulonimbus clouds are expected at the airport, the contraction CB is appended to the cloud layer that represents the base of the cumulonimbus cloud(s). Cumulonimbus clouds are the only cloud type forecast in the TAF. |
|
|
Term
| In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a calm wind that is forecast is encoded as 00000KT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of |
|
Definition
Thunderstorms or other precipitation:
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in a TAF indicates the probability of thunderstorms or other precipitation events. The PROB group is used when the occurrence of thunderstorms or precipitation is in the 30% to less than 50% range; thus, the probability value of 40 is appended to the PROB contraction. PROB40 is followed by a four-digit group giving the beginning time (HH) and ending time (hh) of the period during which thunderstorms or precipitation is expected. |
|
|
Term
| In-flight aviation weather advisories provide information on volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
at the surface or reduced to sea level?? |
|
Definition
| Isobars on a surface analysis (weather) chart represent the sea level pressure pattern, usually spaced at 4-mb, or 4-hPa, intervals. This allows a comparison to be made of pressure reports by stations at various altitudes. |
|
|
Term
| Prognostic charts show conditions as they are forecast to be at the valid time (UTC or Zulu) for the chart. The charts are issued four times daily. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For international flights, a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart is prepared for use between what and what altitudes? |
|
Definition
| between 25,000 feet and 60,000 feet pressure altitude. Numerous High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Charts are produced by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC) for international flights. They are prepared for flights between 25,000 ft. and 60,000 ft. pressure altitude (or FL 250 to FL 600). |
|
|
Term
| Another question references the NECP...Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an international flight may be obtained by consulting Winds and Temperatures Aloft Charts prepared by the U.S. National Centers for Environmental Prediction (NCEP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| No clue on this one: How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart? |
|
Definition
APCHG within any area.
On a Severe Weather Outlook Chart, an area will be labeled APCHG to indicate probable general thunderstorm activity that may approach severe intensity. Approaching means winds greater than or equal to 35 kt., but less than 50 kt., and/or hail greater than or equal to 1/2 in. in diameter, but less than 3/4 in. (surface conditions). |
|
|
Term
What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
Note the strange wording in the answer: |
|
Definition
It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.
The convective outlook describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hr. Areas with a high, moderate, or slight risk of severe thunderstorms are included, as well as areas where thunderstorms may approach severe limits. |
|
|
Term
| Most accurate sources of icing information. |
|
Definition
| Pilot reports (PIREPs) can reflect the most current icing conditions for a specific area, including type and intensity. AIRMET Zulu is for icing and freezing levels for a specified time and normally an outlook. A SIGMET is issued for areas of severe icing. |
|
|
Term
| Constant pressure analysis charts contain contours and isotherms, and some contain isotachs. Contours are lines of equal height and depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft in the same manner as isobars on the surface chart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in analysis over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation is plotted using a star at the cloud top location, with the cloud height, wind estimate, and time of report. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using a square at the aircraft location, with the flight level of aircraft, temperature, and wind data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ) Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is |
|
Definition
| The vertical wind shear critical for probable turbulence is 6 kt. or more per 1,000 ft. |
|
|
Term
| The horizontal wind shear critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) is greater than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained? |
|
Definition
| By contacting the nearest AFSS. Pilots, upon hearing the alert notice, if they have not received the advisory or are in doubt, should contact the nearest FSS and ascertain whether the advisory is pertinent to their flights. |
|
|
Term
| What weather conditions will trigger a convective SIGMET? |
|
Definition
| Convective SIGMETs are issued for (1) severe thunderstorm due to surface winds greater than 50 kt., hail at the surface equal to or greater than 3/4 in. in diameter, or tornadoes; (2) embedded thunderstorms; (3) line of thunder-storms; or (4) thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 square mi. |
|
|
Term
| A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface winds are greater than or equal to 58 mph (50 kt.), hail at the surface is greater than or equal to 3/4 in. in diameter, or tornadoes are present. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What time period is covered by the outlook section of the Convective SIGMET? |
|
Definition
| 2 to 6 hours after the valid time. |
|
|
Term
| The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Services Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data on a common frequency to flight crews from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The FAA’s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides, free of charge, METARs, SPECIs, TAFs (and their amendments), SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, PIREPs (both urgent and routine), and AWWs (issued by the FAA or NWS). |
|
Definition
| METARs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, and AIRMETs. |
|
|
Term
| FISDL products, such as ground-based radar precipitation maps, are not appropriate for use in tactical severe weather avoidance, such as negotiating a path through a weather hazard area. FISDL supports strategic weather decision making, such as route selection to avoid a weather hazard area in its entirety. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Wind shear is the rate of change of wind velocity. The differences may be in wind speed, wind direction, or both. An important characteristic is that wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. |
|
|
Term
| Which is a definition of “severe wind shear”? |
|
Definition
| severe wind shear is defined as a rapid change in wind direction or velocity causing airspeed changes greater than 15 kt. or vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS). This system detects the possibility of low-level wind shear over or near the airport. The system compares the wind measured around the airport with the wind measured at the center field location. When conditions exist, the tower controller will provide the site’s location and wind. Note that the transmission in the question indicates wind from different directions at the airport. |
|
|
Term
| Wind Shear Condition (usually based on an LLWAS comparison) |
|
Definition
| When the tower reports more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport, it means that wind shear is probable. Various sensors of the Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System measure the wind, and when differences become excessive, the tower will provide more than one wind condition at different positions. |
|
|
Term
| What indications do you expect when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind |
|
Definition
| When a tailwind shears to a constant headwind, the indicated airspeed will initially increase, then decrease. The vertical speed will decrease, and pitch attitude will increase. Initially, thrust will be reduced to slow the airspeed, then increase as more power and a slower rate of descent are needed to maintain the glide slope in a constant headwind. |
|
|
Term
| LOOK at this one: Not intuitave...What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? |
|
Definition
| Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications |
|
|
Term
| What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? |
|
Definition
| A preferred location of clear air turbulence is in an upper trough on the polar side of the jet stream. Cold and warm advection along with strong wind shears develop near the jet stream, especially where the curvature of the jet stream sharply increases in deepening upper troughs. |
|
|
Term
| Which type jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? |
|
Definition
| Cold outbreaks colliding with warm air from the south intensify weather systems in the vicinity of the jet stream along the boundary between cold and warm air. Cold and warm advection along with strong wind shears (turbulence) develop near the jet stream, especially where curvature of the jet stream sharply increases in deepening upper troughs |
|
|
Term
| CAT caused by mountain waves can be found where |
|
Definition
| Mountain waves can create clear air turbulence (CAT). Mountain wave CAT may extend from the mountain crests to as high as 5,000 ft. above the tropopause and can range 100 mi. or more downstream from the mountains. |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? |
|
Definition
| When constant pressure charts show 20-kt. isotachs less than 60 NM apart, there is sufficient horizontal shear for CAT. These conditions normally occur on the polar side of the jet stream. |
|
|
Term
| What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? |
|
Definition
| When encountering the first ripple of clear air turbulence (CAT), it is appropriate to reduce airspeed to that recommended for rough air. This action decreases the amount of stress that is put on the airplane while in turbulence. |
|
|
Term
| If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? |
|
Definition
| When severe turbulence is encountered, as in a thunderstorm, it is almost impossible to hold a constant altitude. Maneuvering in an attempt to do so greatly increases stress on the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| Which action is recommended if jet stream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind? |
|
Definition
| If jet stream turbulence with direct tailwinds or headwinds is encountered, a change of altitude or course should be initiated since these turbulent areas are elongated with the wind and are shallow and narrow |
|
|
Term
| Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jet stream turbulence? |
|
Definition
| If turbulence is due to a sloping tropopause, watch the temperature gauge. The point of coldest temperature will be the tropopause penetration. Turbulence will be more pronounced in the temperature-change zone on the stratospheric (upper) side of the sloping tropopause. To get out of this turbulence, descend if the ambient temperature is falling, and climb with a rising temperature |
|
|
Term
| microburst worst weather conditions can be : |
|
Definition
| Downdrafts in a microburst can be as strong as 6,000 fpm. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 kt., resulting in a 90-kt. wind shear. The strong horizontal winds occur within a few hundred feet of the ground. |
|
|
Term
| What is the expected duration of a microburst? |
|
Definition
| An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 min. from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. The horizontal winds continue to increase during the first 5 min., with maximum-intensity winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 min. |
|
|
Term
| An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of |
|
Definition
| If a headwind in a microburst is 45 kt., the wind will be going in the opposite direction on the other side of the microburst at presumably the same 45 kt., resulting in a wind shear between the headwind and tailwind of 90 kt. |
|
|
Term
| Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is |
|
Definition
Developing Lift
Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differential over the wing’s, or other airfoil’s, surface. The lowest pressure occurs over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air masses trailing downstream from the wingtips. An airplane’s wake consists of two counter-rotating vortices. |
|
|
Term
| Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? |
|
Definition
Surprise: it is Heavy, Slow and Gear and FLAPs UP!
The strength of a vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any aircraft can be changed by extension of flaps and landing gear, as well as by changes in speed. The greatest vortex strength of a large jet airplane occurs when the airplane is heavy, slow, and clean (gear and flaps up). |
|
|
Term
| What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? |
|
Definition
| When vortices of large aircraft sink close to the ground (within about 200 ft.), they tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of about 2 or 3 kt. in the direction of each generating wing. Thus, the downwind vortex on a crosswind is blown away quickly, but the upwind vortex remains on the runway longer. |
|
|
Term
| To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should |
|
Definition
| A departing jet airplane’s rotation point is where full vortices are first generated. On your takeoff, rotate prior to that point. Climb above and remain upwind of the jet airplane’s flight path to avoid the descending wingtip vortices. Avoid subsequent headings which will cross below and behind the jet airplane (i.e., the jet will climb faster than a propeller airplane). |
|
|
Term
| If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off |
|
Definition
| You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 min. has elapsed before your takeoff behind a heavy jet that has just landed. Note the point where the heavy jet touched down and plan to lift off beyond that point. The vortices developed by the heavy jet will no longer be generated when lift is no longer produced (which is at the point of touchdown of the jet’s nose gear). |
|
|
Term
| To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly |
|
Definition
| To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake vortices, which include heavy and large jet aircraft, should fly on the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or the extended centerline of the runway. |
|
|
Term
| Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? |
|
Definition
| Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs |
|
|
Term
| Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude. With the decrease in barometric pressure, less oxygen is absorbable by the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? |
|
Definition
| Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, drowsiness, and dizziness. Pilots should be alert to the possibility that they may be experiencing carbon monoxide poisoning. Carbon monoxide poisoning generally occurs as a result of a defective cabin heater. |
|
|
Term
| Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? |
|
Definition
Book answer: Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
Long explanation: Hyperventilation results from an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs. It can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered. The result is an excessive amount of carbon dioxide removed from the body. The symptoms are lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling of the extremities, and coolness. |
|
|
Term
| Studies show that the amount of time the pilot spends on visual tasks inside the cabin should be no more than one-fourth to one-third of scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5 seconds on the instrument panel for every 16 seconds of outside scanning when in VFR conditions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using the Earth’s horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft |
|
Definition
| Many pilots use the horizon as a reference point to determine the relative altitude of other aircraft. If the aircraft is above the horizon, it is probably on a higher flight path than you. An aircraft that appears to be below the horizon is probably flying at lower altitude. Accordingly, an airplane that appears to be on the horizon and does not show much relative movement may be at your altitude. Any aircraft which appears to increase in size is coming toward you. |
|
|
Term
| A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when............body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. |
|
Definition
| Spatial disorientation is a state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs. Using body sensations to interpret flight attitudes makes pilots more susceptible to spatial disorientation. |
|
|
Term
| What is a somatogravic illusion. |
|
Definition
| The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude. The disoriented pilot could push the airplane into a nose-low or dive attitude. |
|
|
Term
| While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as |
|
Definition
| The Coriolis Illusion. The disoriented pilot could maneuver the aircraft in a dangerous attitude in an attempt to stop rotation. This effect may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions. |
|
|
Term
| In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as |
|
Definition
| autokinesis. In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for many seconds. The disoriented pilot may lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the light. |
|
|
Term
| When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often quite abruptly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height above the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aeronautical decision making (ADM) can be defined as a |
|
Definition
| systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances. |
|
|
Term
| Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? |
|
Definition
| Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. |
|
|
Term
| Pilots have been known to fall into a number of classic behavioral traps. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and do what it takes to “get the job done.” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? |
|
Definition
| The five hazardous attitudes addressed in the ADM process are antiauthority, impulsivity, invulnerability, macho, and resignation. |
|
|
Term
| Hazardous attitudes, which contribute to poor pilot judgment, can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should label it as hazardous; then correct the attitude by stating the corresponding antidote. Antidotes should be memorized for each of the hazardous attitudes so that they automatically come to mind when needed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hazardous attitudes, which contribute to poor pilot judgment, can be effectively counteracted by redirecting them so that appropriate action can be taken. When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should label it as hazardous; then correct the attitude by stating the corresponding antidote. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CRAP answer but apparently if you want to pass the test you have to buy into this: |
|
Definition
| If you hope to succeed in reducing stress associated with crisis management in the cockpit, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of your life. |
|
|
Term
| To help manage cockpit stress, you must condition (teach) yourself to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Expect Departure clearance Time is the runway release time assigned to an aircraft included in traffic management programs. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier than 5 min prior to adn no later than 5 min after the EDCT. |
|
|
Term
| what is an ATC Safety Alert |
|
Definition
| ATC issues safety alerts if the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle |
|
|
Term
| In what airspace with ATC not authorize VFR-on-top? |
|
Definition
Class A Airspace (which is 18ooo to FL 600)
A pilot may maintina VFR on top by maintianing VFR altitudes and cloud clearances and also comply with applicable IFR rules.
Pilot must maintain VFR clearance requirements from clouds but the clearance can be above, below or between layers. |
|
|
Term
| Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will |
|
Definition
| cancel the approach mode annunciation. |
|
|
Term
| For flight above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember? |
|
Definition
|
|
