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(Refer to Figure 12). The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means |
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(Refer to Figure 12). What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)? |
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110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is |
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Definition
light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are |
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Definition
080° at 21 knots and -7°C. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct? |
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(Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? |
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(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? |
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(Refer to Figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? |
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(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR-DME (area 2)? |
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(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a |
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(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip the weather minimums are |
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Definition
1 statute mile visibility. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 -- Fuel, 48 gal 288 -- Oil, 8 qt -- -- |
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(Refer to Figure 35.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Temperature + 29°C Manifold pressure 21.3" Hg Wind Calm |
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(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed? |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be |
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Definition
on a runway, about to clear. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 67.) What effect does a 30-gallon fuel burn have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,784 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,222 at takeoff? |
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Definition
Moment will decrease to 2,087 lbs-in. |
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Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90°F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55°F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude? |
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(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff? |
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Definition
Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. |
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Term
(Refer to figure 61.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank? |
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Term
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by |
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Definition
slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. |
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Term
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than |
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An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? |
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Term
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding |
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Definition
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Term
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in |
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Definition
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. |
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Term
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will |
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Definition
remain the same regardless of altitude. |
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Term
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as |
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Definition
standing lenticular clouds. |
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Term
During a cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to |
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Definition
use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. |
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Term
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by |
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Definition
ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. |
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Term
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during |
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Definition
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Term
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? |
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Definition
Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. |
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Term
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster |
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Definition
groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point. |
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Term
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight, |
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Definition
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. |
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Term
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have |
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Definition
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. |
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Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when |
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Definition
the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading. |
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Term
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the |
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Term
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as |
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Definition
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Term
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by |
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Definition
terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. |
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Term
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the |
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Definition
difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet. |
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Term
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? |
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Definition
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. |
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Term
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane |
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Definition
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Term
To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every |
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Definition
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Term
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? |
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Definition
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Term
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? |
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Definition
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. |
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Term
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? |
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Definition
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. |
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Term
What clouds have the greatest turbulence? |
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Definition
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Term
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms? |
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Definition
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers. |
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Term
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? |
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Definition
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. |
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Term
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? |
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Definition
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. |
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Term
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? |
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Definition
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. |
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Term
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying? |
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Definition
Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. |
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Term
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? |
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Definition
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. |
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Term
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall |
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Definition
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. |
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Term
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed |
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Definition
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot. -- A constant gliding speed should be maintained because variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot. |
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Term
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? |
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Definition
During the first 5 minutes after the hour. |
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Term
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state |
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Definition
whether they intend to fly VFR only. |
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Term
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read |
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Definition
0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. |
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Term
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? |
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Definition
Flight control system malfunction or failure. |
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Term
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? |
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Definition
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed. |
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Term
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? |
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Definition
Precipitation beginning to fall. |
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Term
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be |
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Definition
more susceptible to icing. |
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