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Private Pilot
725 Questions
725
Aviation
Undergraduate 1
01/04/2021
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Term
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
 Definition
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
Term
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of:
 Definition
propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
Term
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:
 Definition
improved engine performance.
Term
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent upon:
 Definition
the circulation of lubricating oil.
Term
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will:
 Definition
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
Term
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the: initial corrective action to take would be to
 Definition
lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
Term
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
 Definition
detonation.
Term
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
 Definition
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Term
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
 Definition
loss of RPM.
Term
What is one purpose for using reciprocating engines?
 Definition
They are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.
Term
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
 Definition
the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
Term
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
 Definition
the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
Term
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
 Definition
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
Term
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
 Definition
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
Term
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
 Definition
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
Term
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
 Definition
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
Term
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
 Definition
Owner or operator.
Term
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
 Definition
The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
Term
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
 Definition
immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
Term
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
 Definition
When at high angles of attack.
Term
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
 Definition
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
Term
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
 Definition
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Term
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
 Definition
The pilot in command.
Term
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
 Definition
difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
Term
The use of carburetor heat tends to
 Definition
decrease engine performance.
Term
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
 Definition
be at the controls in the cockpit.
Term
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
 Definition
the oil level being too low.
Term
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
 Definition
pre-ignition
Term
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
 Definition
decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
Term
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
 Definition
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
Term
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
 Definition
more susceptible to icing.
Term
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
 Definition
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Term
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
 Definition
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
Term
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
 Definition
The next higher octane aviation gas.
Term
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
 Definition
experience avionics equipment failure.
Term
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
 Definition
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
Term
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
 Definition
high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
Term
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
 Definition
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
Term
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
 Definition
Enrichen the fuel mixture.
Term
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
 Definition
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
Term
Applying carburetor heat will
 Definition
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
Term
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
 Definition
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
Term
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
 Definition
Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.
Term
Carburetor icing can occur with an OAT as high as
 Definition
20° C and high relative humidity.
Term
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
 Definition
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
Term
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates
 Definition
14,500 feet.
Term
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
 Definition
The elevation of the departure area.
Term
Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
 Definition
miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
 Definition
the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
Term
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates
 Definition
10,500 feet.
Term
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
 Definition
Air temperature warmer than standard.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
 Definition
165 to 208 knots.
Term
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
 Definition
magnetic variation.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?
 Definition
The red radial line.
Term
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
 Definition
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
 Definition
55 to 100 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
 Definition
208 knots.
Term
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
 Definition
18,000 feet MSL.
Term
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
 Definition
Maneuvering speed.
Term
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
 Definition
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
Term
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
 Definition
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
Term
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
 Definition
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
Term
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
 Definition
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
Term
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
 Definition
V(X).
Term
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
 Definition
700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
Term
(Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
 Definition
1 and 2 only.
Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
 Definition
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
 Definition
correctly when on a north or south heading.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
 Definition
The white arc.
Term
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
 Definition
Never-exceed speed.
Term
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates
 Definition
9,500 feet.
Term
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
 Definition
Airspeed.
Term
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
 Definition
At standard temperature.
Term
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
 Definition
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
Term
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
 Definition
certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
Term
(Refer to Figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
 Definition
periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
Term
(Refer to Figure 82.) Altimeter 3 is indicating a VFR cruising altitude for which direction?
 Definition
080 degrees magnetic.
Term
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
 Definition
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
 Definition
165 knots.
Term
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
 Definition
When at sea level under standard conditions.
Term
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
 Definition
V(Y).
Term
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
 Definition
true altitude at field elevation.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
 Definition
Lower limit of the white arc.
Term
What is true altitude?
 Definition
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
Term
(Refer to Figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
 Definition
movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
Term
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
 Definition
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Term
V(NO) is defined as the
 Definition
maximum structural cruising speed.
Term
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
 Definition
V(LE).
Term
What is density altitude?
 Definition
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
Term
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
 Definition
In colder than standard air temperature.
Term
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
 Definition
Airspeed indicator.
Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
 Definition
a left turn is entered from a north heading.
Term
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
 Definition
V(FE).
Term
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
 Definition
V(A).
Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
 Definition
a right turn is entered from a north heading.
Term
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
 Definition
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
Term
(Refer to Figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
 Definition
By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
 Definition
100 knots.
Term
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
 Definition
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
Term
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
 Definition
Lower limit of the green arc.
Term
V(SO) is defined as the
 Definition
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
Term
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
 Definition
magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
Term
What is pressure altitude?
 Definition
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
Term
What is absolute altitude?
 Definition
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
Term
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
 Definition
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
Term
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
 Definition
To control yaw.
Term
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
 Definition
aerodynamic balance and controllability.
Term
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
 Definition
light, quartering tailwind.
Term
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
 Definition
Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
Term
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
 Definition
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
Term
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
 Definition
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
Term
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
 Definition
Turns.
Term
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
 Definition
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
Term
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed
 Definition
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
Term
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
 Definition
heavy, clean, and slow.
Term
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as
 Definition
the angle of attack.
Term
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
 Definition
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Term
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
 Definition
Both wings are stalled
Term
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
 Definition
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
Term
(Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
 Definition
3,960 pounds.
Term
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at
 Definition
less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
Term
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
 Definition
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
Term
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
 Definition
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
Term
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
 Definition
require less effort to control
Term
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
 Definition
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
Term
(Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
 Definition
6,750 pounds.
Term
(Refer to figure 62.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°?
 Definition
Corners 1 and 4.
Term
The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle between the
 Definition
chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
Term
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
 Definition
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Term
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
 Definition
lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
Term
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
 Definition
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
Term
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
 Definition
developing lift.
Term
(Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of
 Definition
attack.
Term
The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle
 Definition
between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
Term
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
 Definition
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
Term
Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
 Definition
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Term
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
 Definition
Outward, upward, and around each tip.
Term
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
 Definition
groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
Term
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
 Definition
stall at a higher airspeed.
Term
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
 Definition
During unaccelerated flight.
Term
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
 Definition
less stable at all speeds.
Term
(Refer to figure 66.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn
 Definition
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
Term
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
 Definition
Stalled.
Term
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
 Definition
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
Term
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
 Definition
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
Term
What force makes an airplane turn?
 Definition
The horizontal component of lift.
Term
(Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
 Definition
4,600 pounds.
Term
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
 Definition
remain the same regardless of altitude.
Term
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
 Definition
speed of the airplane.
Term
What is ground effect?
 Definition
The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
Term
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
 Definition
visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
Term
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
 Definition
Denotes intersecting runways.
Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) Sign F confirms your position on
 Definition
runway 22
Term
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
 Definition
Student pilots.
Term
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
 Definition
Special Notices section of the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory or A/FD).
Term
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
 Definition
Human error
Term
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
 Definition
The pilot
Term
(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
 Definition
right-quartering headwind.
Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary?
 Definition
G
Term
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
 Definition
Identifies direction to take-off runways.
Term
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "macho"?
 Definition
Taking chances is foolish.
Term
(Refer to Figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
 Definition
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
Term
(Refer to Figure 49.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
 Definition
Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
Term
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
 Definition
Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
Term
How can a military airport be identified at night?
 Definition
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
Term
When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as
 Definition
hyperventilation
Term
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
 Definition
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
Term
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"?
 Definition
It could happen to me
Term
(Refer to Figure 78, 79 and Legend 3.) Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?
 Definition
East of runway 17-35.
Term
A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?
 Definition
Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.
Term
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
 Definition
Airport/Facility Directory.
Term
(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
 Definition
left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
Term
Which statement best defines hypoxia?
 Definition
A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
Term
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
 Definition
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
Term
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
 Definition
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Term
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
 Definition
Pilot-in-command
Term
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
 Definition
Quartering tailwind
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
 Definition
on the glide slope.
Term
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
 Definition
not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
Term
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
 Definition
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
Term
(Refer to Figure 52.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
 Definition
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
Term
(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions
 Definition
5 (Five).
Term
(Refer to Figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
 Definition
to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36.
Term
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
 Definition
Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
Term
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
 Definition
three white lights and one red light
Term
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
 Definition
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
Term
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
 Definition
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
Term
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
 Definition
that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
Term
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "resignation"?
 Definition
I am not helpless.
Term
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
 Definition
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
Term
(Refer to Figure 50.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
 Definition
Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.
Term
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within
 Definition
10 miles of any airport.
Term
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
 Definition
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Term
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
 Definition
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
Term
(Refer to Figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
 Definition
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Term
(Refer to Figure 49.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
 Definition
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Term
While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
 Definition
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
Term
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
 Definition
having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
Term
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
 Definition
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
Term
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
 Definition
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
Term
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?
 Definition
Not so fast, think first.
Term
(Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
 Definition
Left aileron down, elevator down.
Term
(Refer to Figure 64.) Which symbol indicates a taxiway/taxiway intersection hold position marking?
 Definition
E
Term
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
 Definition
Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
Term
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
 Definition
090° and 270° magnetic.
Term
(Refer to Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
 Definition
taxiing and takeoff.
Term
Most midair collision accidents occur during
 Definition
clear days.
Term
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
 Definition
Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability
Term
(Refer to Figure 50.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
 Definition
southeast of the airport
Term
(Refer to Figure 63.) What is the length of the displaced threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)?
 Definition
380 feet.
Term
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
 Definition
five times within five seconds
Term
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
 Definition
080° and 260° magnetic.
Term
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
 Definition
Sunset to sunrise
Term
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates
 Definition
runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) Sign E is a visual clue that
 Definition
confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway B.
Term
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"?
 Definition
Follow the rules.
Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) A left turn at the intersection depicting sign A would place the aircraft
 Definition
ready for a Runway 22 intersection takeoff.
Term
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
 Definition
Continual flight into instrument conditions.
Term
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
 Definition
Scud running.
Term
(Refer to Figure 48.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
 Definition
closed runway.
Term
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
 Definition
Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
Term
What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?
 Definition
Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
Term
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
 Definition
blue omnidirectional lights.
Term
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to
 Definition
rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
Term
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
 Definition
15,000 feet MSL
Term
(Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
 Definition
Left aileron down, elevator down
Term
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by
 Definition
slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
Term
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
 Definition
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
Term
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
 Definition
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
Term
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
 Definition
altitude increases.
Term
(Refer to Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
 Definition
C
Term
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
 Definition
When it will compromise safety.
Term
(Refer to Figures 76 and 77.) Inbound to Pierre Regional (PIR) from the southwest wind 240 at 12 knots expect to make
 Definition
left traffic for runway 25.
Term
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
 Definition
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
Term
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
 Definition
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
Term
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
 Definition
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
Term
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
 Definition
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
Term
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
 Definition
The other aircraft is flying away from you
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
 Definition
above the glide slope.
Term
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
 Definition
3 statute miles.
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
 Definition
below the glide path.
Term
(Refer to Figure 49.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
 Definition
cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
Term
(Refer to Figure 71, area 4 and Legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to
 Definition
the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory).
Term
(Refer to Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
 Definition
Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
Term
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
 Definition
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
Term
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished
 Definition
the same as during daytime.
Term
A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as
 Definition
spatial disorientation.
Term
(Refer to Figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?
 Definition
Right aileron up, elevator up.
Term
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
 Definition
Checklists.
Term
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
 Definition
in conditions of reduced visibility.
Term
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
 Definition
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
Term
Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in
 Definition
loss of muscular power.
Term
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
 Definition
pulsating red light.
Term
(Refer to Figure 65.) From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be
 Definition
on a runway, about to clear
Term
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
 Definition
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
Term
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
 Definition
look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
Term
(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
 Definition
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
Term
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
 Definition
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
 Definition
Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
 Definition
122.9 MHz.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
 Definition
126.0 MHz.
Term
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:'TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
 Definition
West.
Term
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
 Definition
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
Term
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
 Definition
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
Term
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
 Definition
Ground control, on initial contact
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 3.) If Dallas Executive (RBD) tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
 Definition
127.25 MHz.
Term
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
 Definition
1200
Term
When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?
 Definition
Mode A.
Term
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
 Definition
When departing from a runway intersection.
Term
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
 Definition
'ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.'
Term
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
 Definition
1200
Term
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
 Definition
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
 Definition
123.0 MHz.
Term
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
 Definition
When advised by the tower to do so
Term
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
 Definition
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
Term
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
 Definition
10 miles.
Term
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
 Definition
steady red.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31). At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
 Definition
122.8 MHz
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
 Definition
122.8 MHz.
Term
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester Flight Service is
 Definition
'MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?
 Definition
122.8 MHz.
Term
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
 Definition
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
Term
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
 Definition
Flashing green.
Term
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
 Definition
the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
Term
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
 Definition
return to the starting point on the airport
Term
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
 Definition
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
Term
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
 Definition
406 MHz
Term
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
 Definition
to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
Term
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
 Definition
After one-half the battery's useful life.
Term
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:'TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
 Definition
Northwest
Term
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
 Definition
1200
Term
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
 Definition
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
Term
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
 Definition
exercise extreme caution.
Term
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft`s
 Definition
ground track
Term
Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.
 Definition
123.05 and 123.075 MHz.
Term
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
 Definition
7500, 7600, 7700.
Term
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
 Definition
safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
Term
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
 Definition
7500
Term
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if re-chargeable?
 Definition
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?
 Definition
117.1 MHz.
Term
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: 'TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND… 'Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
 Definition
Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
Term
(Refer to Figure 51.) What information should be entered for Item 15, level, on the flight plan form?
 Definition
VFR cruising altitude.
Term
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
 Definition
is cleared to land.
Term
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
 Definition
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
Term
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
 Definition
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
Term
Why should you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA?
 Definition
To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency.
Term
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: 'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
 Definition
South.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
 Definition
122.8 MHz.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
 Definition
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Term
At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F?
 Definition
10,000 feet AGL
Term
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
 Definition
Towering cumulus clouds.
Term
During a cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to
 Definition
use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.
Term
If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
 Definition
Fog or low clouds.
Term
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
 Definition
In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
Term
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
 Definition
Actual lapse rate.
Term
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
 Definition
visible moisture.
Term
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
 Definition
height range.
Term
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
 Definition
a lenticular cloud.
Term
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
 Definition
cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.
Term
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
 Definition
Level flight attitude.
Term
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
 Definition
Lightning.
Term
Where does wind shear occur?
 Definition
At all altitudes, in all directions.
Term
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
 Definition
terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
Term
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
 Definition
Continuous updraft.
Term
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
 Definition
Warming from below.
Term
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with
 Definition
the start of precipitation
Term
What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'?
 Definition
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
Term
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
 Definition
25 knots.
Term
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F?
 Definition
6,000 feet MSL.
Term
he wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
 Definition
friction between the wind and the surface.
Term
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
 Definition
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
Term
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
 Definition
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
Term
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
 Definition
mature stage.
Term
How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
 Definition
Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
Term
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
 Definition
heat exchange.
Term
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
 Definition
unstable, moist air.
Term
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
 Definition
across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
Term
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
 Definition
air temperature.
Term
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
 Definition
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
Term
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
 Definition
water vapor condenses.
Term
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
 Definition
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
Term
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
 Definition
Wind-shear turbulence.
Term
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
 Definition
Advection fog and upslope fog.
Term
What is a characteristic of stable air?
 Definition
Stratiform clouds.
Term
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
 Definition
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
Term
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
 Definition
standing lenticular clouds.
Term
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
 Definition
an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
Term
What are characteristics of unstable air?
 Definition
Turbulence and good surface visibility.
Term
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
 Definition
Dissipating.
Term
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
 Definition
squall line thunderstorms.
Term
The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
 Definition
a rain cloud.
Term
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
 Definition
is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
Term
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
 Definition
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
Term
When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it
 Definition
produces stratus type clouds.
Term
A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a
 Definition
squall line.
Term
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
 Definition
Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.
Term
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
 Definition
A stable layer of air.
Term
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
 Definition
wind direction.
Term
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
 Definition
Freezing rain.
Term
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
 Definition
Poor surface visibility.
Term
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
 Definition
Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
Term
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
 Definition
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
Term
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
 Definition
Evaporation and sublimation.
Term
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
 Definition
Cumulonimbus.
Term
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
 Definition
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
Term
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
 Definition
Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
Term
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
 Definition
Steam fog.
Term
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
 Definition
Precipitation beginning to fall.
Term
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
 Definition
an outlook briefing.
Term
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
 Definition
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
Term
(Refer to Figure 12). The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
 Definition
rain began at 1835Z
Term
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
 Definition
True direction and knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.
 Definition
230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.
Term
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
 Definition
an outlook briefing.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
 Definition
overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
Term
(Refer to Figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
 Definition
KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.
Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
 Definition
505 feet AGL.
Term
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
 Definition
All aircraft.
Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
 Definition
7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
Term
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
 Definition
The intended route of flight and destination.
Term
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
 Definition
Standard briefing.
Term
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
 Definition
9900 and less than 5 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
 Definition
Greater than 6 statute miles.
Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
 Definition
light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
Term
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
 Definition
whether they intend to fly VFR only.
Term
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to
 Definition
Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA).
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
 Definition
cumulonimbus.
Term
(Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
 Definition
230° true at 39 knots.
Term
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
 Definition
the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
Term
AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMET's and are intended for dissemination to
 Definition
all pilots.
Term
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
 Definition
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does 'SHRA' stand for?
 Definition
Rain showers.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
 Definition
Variable in direction at 6 knots.
Term
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
 Definition
a standard briefing.
Term
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
 Definition
whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
Term
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
 Definition
An abbreviated briefing.
Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
 Definition
080° at 21 knots and -7°C.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
 Definition
180° at 10 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
 Definition
180° true at 4 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
 Definition
light to moderate rime.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
 Definition
12th 1800Z to 13th 2400Z.
Term
(Refer to Figure 12). What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
 Definition
110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be
 Definition
3 statute miles.
Term
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
 Definition
an abbreviated briefing.
Term
(Refer to Figure 12.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
 Definition
Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain.
Term
(Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.
 Definition
200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.
Term
(Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
 Definition
230° true at 32 knots.
Term
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
 Definition
Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
Term
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
 Definition
SIGMET.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
 Definition
2,991 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:Altimeter setting 29.25Runway temperature + 81°FAirport elevation 5,250 ft MSL
 Definition
8,500 feet MSL.
Term
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
 Definition
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
Term
(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.OAT 90°FPressure altitude 4,000 ftWeight 2,800 lbHeadwind component 10 kts
 Definition
1,775 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?
 Definition
The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.Pressure altitude Sea levelHeadwind 4 ktsTemperature Std
 Definition
401 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT Std Pressure altitude 10,000 ft. Weight 2,400 lb. Wind component Calm Obstacle 50 ft.
 Definition
1,925 feet.
Term
GIVEN:WEIGHT ARM MOMENT(LB) (IN) (LB-IN)Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 --Fuel (30 gal usable-no reserve) -- 96.0 --The CG is located how far aft of datum?
 Definition
CG 94.01.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
 Definition
1,341 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff.OAT 95°FPressure altitude 2,000 ftTakeoff weight 2,500 lbHeadwind component 20 kts
 Definition
650 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?Front seat occupants 425 lbRear seat occupants 300 lbFuel, main tanks 44 gal
 Definition
Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?
 Definition
Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.
Term
(Refer to Figure 60.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
 Definition
1 inch to the left.
Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000Empty weight 1,350 51.5Pilot and front passenger 380 --Fuel, 48 gal 288 --Oil, 8 qt -- --
 Definition
79.2, normal category.
Term
(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.OAT StdPressure altitude Sea levelTakeoff weight 2,700 lbHeadwind component Calm
 Definition
1,400 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) With the airplane loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance the airplane?Front seat occupants 411 lbRear seat occupants 100 lbMain wing tanks 44 gal
 Definition
Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage compartment.
Term
(Refer to Figure 35.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude 8,000 ft. Temperature 22°C Manifold pressure 20.8"Hg Wind Calm
 Definition
70.1 gallons.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots.
 Definition
35 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.
 Definition
21.0" Hg.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.Pressure altitude 5,000 ftHeadwind CalmTemperature 101°F
 Definition
545 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
 Definition
23 knots.
Term
If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
 Definition
15 gallons.
Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 310 --Rear passengers 96 --Fuel, 38 gal -- --Oil, 8 qt -- -0.2
 Definition
80.8, utility category.
Term
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
 Definition
An increase in ambient temperature.
Term
(Refer to figure 61.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
 Definition
300 pounds.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90°F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55°F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
 Definition
1,700-foot decrease.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
 Definition
19 knots.
Term
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
 Definition
It reduces climb performance.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
 Definition
3,527 feet MSL.
Term
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
 Definition
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
Term
(Refer to Figure 35.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F above standard?
 Definition
165 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits.Front seat occupants 350 lbRear seat occupants 325 lbBaggage 27 lbFuel 35 gal
 Definition
CG 83.4, within limits.
Term
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
 Definition
Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
Term
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
 Definition
It decreases performance.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
 Definition
Runway 14.
Term
(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land.OAT 90°FPressure altitude 3,000 ftWeight 2,900 lbHeadwind component 10 ktsObstacle 50 ft
 Definition
1,725 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope? WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 250 --Rear passengers 400 --Baggage -- --Fuel, 30 gal -- --Oil, 8 qt -- -0.2
 Definition
105 pounds.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 340 lb Rear seat occupants 295 lb Fuel (main wing tanks) 44 gal Baggage 56 lb
 Definition
20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 3,750 ft Headwind 12 kts Temperature Std
 Definition
816 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Headwind 8 kts Temperature 41°F Runway Hard surface
 Definition
956 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT 32°F Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Weight 2,600 lb Headwind component 20 kts Obstacle 50 ft
 Definition
1,400 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 35.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?
 Definition
11.2 gallons per hour.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.Pressure altitude 1,250 ftHeadwind 8 ktsTemperature Std
 Definition
366 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the moment with the following data: WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 --Fuel (std tanks) Capacity --Oil, 8 qt -- --
 Definition
74.9 pound-inches
Term
(Refer to Figure 35.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Temperature + 29°C Manifold pressure 21.3" Hg Wind Calm
 Definition
36.1 gallons.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?
 Definition
1,650-foot increase.
Term
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
 Definition
15°C and 29.92" Hg.
Term
(Refer to Figure 34.) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows? WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 --Rear passengers 310 --Baggage 45 --Oil, 8 qt -- --
 Definition
40 gallons.
Term
(Refer to Figure 67.) What effect does a 30-gallon fuel burn have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,784 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,222 at takeoff?
 Definition
Moment will decrease to 2,087 lbs-in.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 415 lb Rear seat occupants 110 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks 19 gal Baggage 32 lb
 Definition
Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
Term
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 7,500 ft Headwind 8 kts Temperature 32°F Runway Hard surface
 Definition
1,004 feet.
Term
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
 Definition
18.4 gallons.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
 Definition
Runway 32.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting 30.35 Runway temperature +25°F Airport elevation 3,894 ft MSL
 Definition
2,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
 Definition
1,000-foot increase.
Term
(Refer to Figure 36.) What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?
 Definition
24 knots.
Term
(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT Std Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,800lb. headwind component Calm
 Definition
1,750 feet.
Term
(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows? Front seat occupants 387lb. Rear seat occupants 293lb. Fuel 35 gal
 Definition
45 pounds.
Term
(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT = 100°F, Pressure altitude = 2,000 ft, Takeoff weight = 2,750, headwind component = Calm
 Definition
1,150 feet.
Term
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
 Definition
an emergency
Term
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding
 Definition
48 months.
Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
 Definition
An aircraft in distress.
Term
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
 Definition
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
Term
For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
 Definition
July 31, 2 years later.
Term
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
 Definition
10
Term
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
 Definition
local law enforcement officer.
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
 Definition
Owner or operator.
Term
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
 Definition
They are mandatory.
Term
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
 Definition
14 CFR Part 43.7.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip the weather minimums are
 Definition
1 statute mile visibility.
Term
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
 Definition
must be to a full stop.
Term
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
 Definition
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
Term
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
 Definition
immediately.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
 Definition
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
Term
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
 Definition
Air Traffic Control Tower.
Term
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
 Definition
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
Term
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
 Definition
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
Term
To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every
 Definition
48 months.
Term
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
 Definition
3 miles.
Term
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
 Definition
1 mile flight visibility.
Term
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
 Definition
The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
Term
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
 Definition
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
Term
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
 Definition
August 31, 2 years later.
Term
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
 Definition
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
Term
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
 Definition
500 feet.
Term
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
 Definition
Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
Term
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
 Definition
magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
 Definition
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Term
A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on
 Definition
August 31, 5 years later.
Term
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
 Definition
180 days.
Term
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
 Definition
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
Term
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
 Definition
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
 Definition
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
Term
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
 Definition
90 days.
Term
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
 Definition
August 31, 5 years later.
Term
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
 Definition
with passengers aboard.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
 Definition
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
Term
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
 Definition
60
Term
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
 Definition
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
Term
For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than
 Definition
5 passengers.
Term
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
 Definition
Private or Commercial Pilot.
Term
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is
 Definition
1 mile.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are
 Definition
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
Term
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
 Definition
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
Term
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
 Definition
3402.5 hours.
Term
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
 Definition
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
Term
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
 Definition
when requested.
Term
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
 Definition
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
 Definition
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
Term
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
 Definition
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
Term
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
 Definition
An in-flight fire.
Term
Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
 Definition
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
Term
(Refer to Figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)?
 Definition
Student Pilot Certificate.
Term
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
 Definition
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Term
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
 Definition
the pilot in command.
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
 Definition
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
 Definition
500 feet.
Term
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
 Definition
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
Term
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
 Definition
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
Term
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
 Definition
aircraft maintenance records.
Term
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
 Definition
Both pilots should give way to the right.
Term
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
 Definition
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Term
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
 Definition
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
Term
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
 Definition
90
Term
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
 Definition
ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
Term
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
 Definition
deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
Term
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
 Definition
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
Term
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
 Definition
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
Term
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
 Definition
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
Term
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
 Definition
1,000 feet.
Term
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
 Definition
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Term
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
 Definition
200 knots.
Term
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
 Definition
taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
Term
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
 Definition
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
 Definition
1 mile and clear of clouds.
Term
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
 Definition
1,000 feet.
Term
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
 Definition
1359.6 hours.
Term
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
 Definition
4,500 feet.
Term
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
 Definition
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
Term
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
 Definition
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Term
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
 Definition
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
Term
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
 Definition
8 hours.
Term
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
 Definition
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
Term
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
 Definition
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
Term
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
 Definition
takeoffs and landings.
Term
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
 Definition
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
Term
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
 Definition
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
Term
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
 Definition
pilot in command.
Term
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
 Definition
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
Term
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
 Definition
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Term
As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
 Definition
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
Term
Where may an aircraft`s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?
 Definition
Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
Term
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
 Definition
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
Term
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
 Definition
the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
Term
(Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
 Definition
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
Term
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
 Definition
review of the maintenance records.
Term
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
 Definition
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
Term
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
 Definition
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
Term
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
 Definition
Aircraft maintenance records.
Term
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months
 Definition
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
Term
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
 Definition
July 31, next year.
Term
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
 Definition
October 31, 5 years later.
Term
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
 Definition
The airship.
Term
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
 Definition
May 31, 2 years later.
Term
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
 Definition
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
Term
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
 Definition
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Term
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
 Definition
200 knots.
Term
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
 Definition
category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
Term
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
 Definition
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
Term
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
 Definition
3 miles.
Term
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
 Definition
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Term
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
 Definition
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
Term
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
 Definition
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
Term
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
 Definition
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
Term
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
 Definition
1929
Term
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
 Definition
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
Term
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
 Definition
250 knots.
Term
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
 Definition
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
Term
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
 Definition
The seaplane.
Term
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
 Definition
2,000 feet.
Term
While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
 Definition
121.5 MHz.
Term
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
 Definition
owner or operator.
Term
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
 Definition
medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
Term
An ATC clearance provides
 Definition
authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Term
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than
 Definition
September 30, 2016.
Term
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
 Definition
24 calendar months.
Term
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
 Definition
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Term
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
 Definition
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Term
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
 Definition
a biennial flight review.
Term
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
 Definition
Upon request.
Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
 Definition
Glider.
Term
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
 Definition
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
Term
The definition of nighttime is
 Definition
the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Term
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
 Definition
The pilot in command.
Term
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
 Definition
5,500 feet.
Term
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
 Definition
90 days.
Term
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
 Definition
Private Pilot Certificate.
Term
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
 Definition
70
Term
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
 Definition
owner or operator.
Term
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
 Definition
5 miles.
Term
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
 Definition
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
Term
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid? How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
 Definition
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
Term
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
 Definition
1 mile.
Term
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
 Definition
1-mile visibility and clear of clouds.
Term
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
 Definition
30 days after the date of the move.
Term
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
 Definition
200 knots.
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?
 Definition
Owner or operator.
Term
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
 Definition
Flight over a densely populated area.
Term
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
 Definition
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
Term
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
 Definition
24 calendar months.
Term
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
 Definition
0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?
 Definition
Southeast of Guyton.
Term
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
 Definition
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the VOR-DME at the Dallas-Fort Worth airport. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VOR-DME?
 Definition
East-northeast.
Term
(Refer to Figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245? radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140? radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
 Definition
Glenmar Airport.
Term
(Refer to Figure 24, and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?
 Definition
7
Term
(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 4.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
 Definition
North.
Term
(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
 Definition
Southeast.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
 Definition
359°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
 Definition
VOR/DME.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct?
 Definition
5
Term
(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR-DME (area 2)?
 Definition
101°.
Term
How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
 Definition
4
Term
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight,
 Definition
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct?
 Definition
5
Term
(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
 Definition
030°.
Term
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
 Definition
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
Term
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
 Definition
With the controlling agency's authorization.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 009° radial is
 Definition
454 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
 Definition
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
Term
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
 Definition
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
Term
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
 Definition
when the associated control tower is in operation.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Dallas Executive (area 3) to Fort Worth Meacham (area 4). The wind is from 030° at 10 knots, the true airspeed is 135 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
 Definition
286°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be
 Definition
1730 PST.
Term
(Refer to Figure 75, west of Area 6.) During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?
 Definition
On the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area.
Term
How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
 Definition
4.08 NM.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
 Definition
4,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
 Definition
1,403 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport.
 Definition
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
 Definition
2230Z.
Term
(Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
 Definition
329°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
 Definition
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than
 Definition
2,000 feet AGL.
Term
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
 Definition
4,000 feet AGL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
 Definition
MAKEEFF.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
 Definition
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
Term
(Refer to Figures 23 and 58.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, the true airspeed is 85 knots, and the magnetic variation is 5 degrees West.
 Definition
042°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
 Definition
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
Term
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
 Definition
all pilots.
Term
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
 Definition
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
Term
(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
 Definition
Class E.
Term
If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
 Definition
246° and 13 knots.
Term
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
 Definition
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
 Definition
Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
Term
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
 Definition
Class A.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26.) Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).
 Definition
153°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents
 Definition
true heading and airspeed.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
 Definition
1545Z.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
 Definition
47°25'N - 98°06'W.
Term
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
 Definition
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
 Definition
1030 MST.
Term
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
 Definition
primary airport's control tower.
Term
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
 Definition
18,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.
 Definition
352°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
 Definition
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
 Definition
075°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 59, area 3.) The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is
 Definition
surface area Class E airspace.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from
 Definition
2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 69.) What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?
 Definition
Two-way radio and Mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
 Definition
172°
Term
How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
 Definition
14.25 NM.
Term
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
 Definition
Class D.
Term
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
 Definition
add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
 Definition
1645 PST.
Term
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
 Definition
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.
 Definition
47 minutes.
Term
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
 Definition
1645Z.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)?
 Definition
3,549 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
 Definition
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
Term
(Refer to Figure 24, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
 Definition
1,273 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
 Definition
004°.
Term
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
 Definition
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
Term
(Refer to Figure 75.) What is the time en route from the Gila Bend VORTAC to Buckeye VOR along V461 at a TAS of 125 knots and forecasted winds from 180 at 17 knots?
 Definition
Approximately 13 minutes.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, the true airspeed is 90 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6 degrees West.
 Definition
209°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
 Definition
3,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to figure 25, area 7.) The airspace overlying Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
 Definition
2,900 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
 Definition
36°24'N - 76°01'W.
Term
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
 Definition
2,000 feet AGL.
Term
On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule. Distance between A and B 70 NM Forecast wind 310° at 15 kts Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Ambient temperature -10 °C True course 270° The required indicated airspeed would be approximately
 Definition
137 knots.
Term
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
 Definition
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Term
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
 Definition
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
 Definition
1,300 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.
 Definition
47°33'N - 116°11'W.
Term
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
 Definition
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
Term
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
 Definition
Class C.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
 Definition
1,548 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
 Definition
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
Term
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
 Definition
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
 Definition
Minot Intl. (area 1).
Term
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
 Definition
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
 Definition
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).
 Definition
332°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 23.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
 Definition
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
Term
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
 Definition
at all tower-controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
Term
(Refer to Figure 22.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
 Definition
121°.
Term
(Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents
 Definition
wind direction and velocity.
Term
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
 Definition
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Term
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
 Definition
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
Term
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
 Definition
20 NM.
Term
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
 Definition
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Term
(Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents
 Definition
groundspeed and true course.
Term
(Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
 Definition
Washburn.
Term
(Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
 Definition
1
Term
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
 Definition
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
Term
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
 Definition
propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
Term
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
 Definition
improved engine performance.
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