Term
What are the major reasons for the increase in reported cases of pertussis from 1000 in '76 to 26000 in '04? |
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Definition
- genetic changes in B. pertussis - decreased potency of vaccines - greater awareness of pertussis - improved dx tests - WANING IMMUNITY/INADEQUATE IMMUNIZATION |
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Term
What is the major systems barrier to immunization? |
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Definition
- lack of manufacturing capacity - misdistribution of vaccines |
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Term
What are major provider barriers to complete immunization of pts? |
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Definition
1) continuous, updates on immunization schedules 2) need for combination vaccines - cost/storage capacity/lack of access to prior records - lack of adequate reminder/recall systems - need for immunization registries |
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Term
What are major barriers to immunization by patients and parents? |
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Definition
1) lack of knowledge - fearful of safety - lack transportation - inconvenience - cost |
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Term
what are good examples of educational resources for parents w antivaccine misinformation |
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Definition
1) ImmunizationEd.org 2) vaccineinformation.org
*may be opposed to "official" sources* |
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Term
What are suggested measures for increased immunization rates? |
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Definition
- reminder/recall systems for all parties involved in pt healthcare - requirement as pre-req for enrollment in school and childcare - decreases out-of-pocket costs - standing orders for adult immunization |
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Term
Why have vaccines "become victims of their own success"? |
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Definition
1) attention shifts to the occasionally serious adverse events 2) physicians reluctant to admin immun b/c liability concerns |
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Term
What are common misconceptions about vaccines |
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Definition
- too many immunizations will weaken immune sx - vaccine-preventable dz already were disappearing prior to vaccines - vaccines are not "natural" - reliance on herd immunity |
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Term
What are the most common local reactions caused by vaccines? |
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Definition
1) redness 2) swelling 3) soreness at injection site |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): Compression |
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Definition
- overestimate frequency of rare risks and underestimate frequency of common risks |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): omission bias versus commission bias |
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Definition
1) may lead to vaccine refusal by parent who thinks "if my child gets a vaccine reaction, it's my fault; if my child gets a disease, it's an act of God or Nature" The parent feels less liable for guilty from an act of omission than from an act of commission |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): ambiguity aversion |
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Definition
- known risks may be more acceptable than unkown risks of lesser magnitude |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): natural risks |
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Definition
- more acceptable than man-made risks |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): availability heuristic |
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Definition
- an event that is available can lead to overestimation of its frequency |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): freeloading |
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Definition
- vaccine refusers rely on high vaccination rate and herd immunity to protect their unvaccinated loved ones. However, this increases the risk for everyone |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): bandwagoning |
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Definition
- vaccinate because everyone else is |
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Term
Define (in relation to vaccines): altruism |
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Definition
- accept personal risk to benefit community or society |
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Term
How can omission bias be overcome? |
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Definition
1) reframe the issue from the child's point of view - from the child's point of view, it would not matter whether injury resulted from a naturally occurring disease or a vaccine injury |
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Term
What are common vaccine risks |
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Definition
- pain - swelling - redness - sterile abscesses - fever and irritability |
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Term
What is the important fact regarding the temporal relation of adverse events to vaccine administration |
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Definition
- this does not prove causation - e.g.: vaccine given at a time when sisx of autism first become apparent |
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Term
What are the major allegations regarding each of the following vaccines:
MMR HepB thiomersal containing vaccines |
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Definition
1) autism; no causation re: Madsen et al 2) chronic fatigue syndrome, MS, AI dz 3) autism; IoM "no causation", but reduced thiomersal is common. |
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Term
What are the components of the routine newborn assessment? |
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Definition
- size - macrocephaly/microcephaly - changes in skin color - signs of birth trauma - malformations - evidence of Resp distress - level of arousal - posture - tone - presence of spontaneous movements - symmetry of movements |
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Term
When in gestation would an insult cause symmemtric vs asymmetric decrease in size for gestational age? |
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Definition
1) onset early in gestation, brain size corresponding w body size 2) onset late in gestation: no effect on fetal brain growth |
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Term
Why should congenital exophytic scalp nodules always be evaluated further? |
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Definition
- 20-37% connect to underlying central nervous system |
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Term
What are major causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia |
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Definition
- physiologic hyperbilirubinemia (most common) - breastfeeding - increased production of bilirubin ?(hemolysis, sequestered blood, polycythemia, sepsis) - decreased hepatic uptake (hypothyroidism, Crigler-Najjar, Gilbert) |
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Term
What are major causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia |
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Definition
- hepatobiliary disorders: idiopathic hepatitis, TORCH, prolonged parenteral nutrition, metabolic d/o - ductal disturbances in biliruin excretion (biliary atresia, choledochal cyst) |
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Term
What is the major causes of large fontanelles? |
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Definition
- hypothyroidism - trisomy 13, 18, 21 - bone d/o (cleidocranial dysostosis) |
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Term
What is the effect of craniosyntosis on growth? |
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Definition
1) premature fusion of cranial sutures resulting in growth restriction perpendicular to affected suture and compensatory overgrowth in urestricted regions |
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Term
Describe caput succedaneum |
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Definition
- after prolonged labor - sec to accumulation of blood above the periosteum - poorly demarcated soft tissue swelling crossing suture lines - no tx required |
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Term
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Definition
- less common than caput succedaneum - rupture of blood vessel that traverse skull to periosteum - well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that does not cross suture lines - no tx required for uncomplicated lesions |
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Term
What are the most common causes of neck masses in newborns? |
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Definition
- vascular malformations - abnl lymphatic tissue - teratomas - dermoids cysts
*e.g. thyroglossal duct cysts* |
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Term
What are the more common locations for branchial cleft cysts? |
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Definition
1) postauricular area - jugulodigastric area - anterior border of SCM mid-neck |
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Term
Where are lipomas most commonly found as congenital neck lesions in newborns? |
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Definition
1) supraclavicular area - suprasternal area |
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Term
What are hte most common broken bones in newborns? Tx if in pain? |
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Definition
- clavicular bones 2) affected arm immobilized abducted to 60deg and elbow flexed 90deg |
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Term
What congenital condition may simulate facial nerve palsy in newborns? |
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Definition
1) congenital absence or hypoplasia of depressor anguli oris muscle |
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Term
What are the components of CHARGE association? |
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Definition
- Coloboma - Heart disease - choanal Atresia - postnatal growth Retardation - Genital hypoplasia - Ear anomalies |
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Term
What are major causes of conjunctivitis in newborns? |
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Definition
- chemical conjunctivitis (after instillation) - conorrheal conjunctivitis (1-2d postnatal; ceftriaxone) - chlamydial conjuncitivits (7-14d postnatal; erythromycin) - HSV conjunctivitis (14+d postnatal; acyclovir) |
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Term
What disease is suggested by unilateral absence or hypoplasia of pectoralis major muscle? What are common findings in this disease? |
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Definition
- poland's syndrome - rib defects, hypoplasia of UE, syndactyly - occ: hemivertebrae, renal anomalies, dextrocardia |
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Term
Disease: cyanosis relieved by crying in newborn |
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Definition
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Term
What is the normal heart rate in newborns? |
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Definition
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Term
Disease: scaphoid abd in newborn |
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Definition
- presence of diaphragmatic hernia |
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Term
What is the appropriate therapy for a newborn with hip dysplasia? |
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Definition
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Term
What is thge difference between metatarsus adductus and talipes equinovarus |
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Definition
1) C curve of the lateral border of the foot 2) adduction/inversion of the forefoot, inversion at the ankle, and equinus posturing |
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Term
What population is supernumerary digits more common in? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the first step in management of an abdominal mass in a newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the associated anomalies in omphalocele vs gastroschisis and what is the mgmt of these defects? |
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Definition
1) 67% have trisomy 13, 18, 21, congenital heart disease, GI anomalies, neurologic and renal anomalies:: 30% mortality 2) primarily intenstinal atresia:: 10% mortality
3) application of warm, fluid-permeable dressing - placement of orogastric tube to decompress - aggressive fluid mgmt - culture w broad-spectrum abx |
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Term
What glands must be assessed in the medical emergency of ambiguous genitalia? |
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Definition
1) adrenal and pituitary integrity must be established |
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Term
What is the incidence of cryptorchidism in term infants? premature infants? |
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Definition
1) 2.7-5.9% 2) 27-59% (10 times higher than term) |
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Term
Is milk, bloody secretions from vagina normal in term infants? |
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Definition
- it may benormal if there is significant withdrawal of maternal hormones in normal newborns |
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Term
What are the major benefits of breastfeeding to the mother after pregnancy? |
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Definition
1) weight loss - mother-infant bonding - accelerated uterine involution - contraception via prolongation of anovulation - decreased risk of breast/ovarian ca - decreased risk of osteoporosis |
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Term
What are the major benefits of breast-feeding to the infant |
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Definition
- reduces incidence of obesity/ca/HDz/allergies/T1DM/IBD - decreased Respiratory tract illnesses - lower rates of diarrhea - decreased risk of UTI - increased IQ - decreased risk of necrotizing enterocolitis and other GI infections |
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Term
What should be inital antiretrovial regimen for HIV infection? |
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Definition
- three agents - two NRTI - one NNRTI/protease inhibitor - ritonavir does not count
*goal is undetectable viral load* |
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Term
What is the acute retroviral syndrome associated with HIV? |
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Definition
- low-grade fever - rash - diarrhea - nausea and vomiting - pharyngitis - aseptic meningitis - headache |
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Term
Rank the risk of HIV transmission for population (1) and activity (2) |
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Definition
(1) - MSM - heterosexual contact (high-risk) - IVDU - 0-20y/o, ethnic minorities, metropolitan areas
(2) - receptive anal intercourse - insertive anal intercourse - receptive vaginal intercourse |
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Term
What are the major AIDS defining illnesses |
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Definition
- candidiasis - cervical cancer (invasive) - coccidiodomycosis, disseminated - cryptococcosis, extrapulm - cryptosporidiosis, chronic intestinal - CMV and retinitis w vision loss - encephalopathy, HIV-related - herpes simplex virus - histoplasmosis, disseminated/extrapulm - isosporiasis, chronic intestinal - kaposi sarcoma - lymphoma - MAC - TB - pneumonia, bacterial/recurrent (P. jiroveci) - PML - salmonella septicemia, recurrent - toxoplasmosis of brain - wasting syndrome, HIV-related |
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Term
What is the recommendation for HIV screening by physicians? |
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Definition
1) routinely in pts 13-64yrso 2) screening unless prevalance of undaignosed HIV infection has been documented to be less than 0.1% - separate consent for HIV screening should not be required - all patients seeking tx for STI should be screened - all pregnant women should be screened in both 1st (and 3rd if high prevalence) |
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Term
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Definition
- HIV-seropositive pts who have a CD4 count less than 200cells/mm3 or 1 AIDS defining illness |
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Term
When is treatment w antiretrovirals indicated in HIV positive patients? |
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Definition
- when CD4 count is less than 350cells/mm3 - should genotype/phenotype these patients prior to initiation |
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Term
Define: treatment failure of HIV |
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Definition
- failure to achieve undetecable viral load within 12-24 weeks of therapy OR development of viremia in pts who previously had an undetectable viral load - modifiable factors (nonadherence, ahem) should be evaluated first |
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Term
When can antimicrobial prhphylaxis be d/c'd? |
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Definition
1) when the patient has had a CD4 count above the threshold for 3+mo in concordance w undetectable viral load |
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Term
What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection:
P. jiroveci pneumonia |
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Definition
1) TMP/SMX double strength tab QD; alt: Dapsone 100mg PO QD 2) 200cells/mm3 |
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Term
What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection:
toxoplasmosis |
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Definition
1) TMP/SMX double strength tab QD 2) 100cells/mm3 |
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Term
What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection:
MAC |
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Definition
- azithromycin 1200mg PO per week - 50cells/mm3 |
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Term
What is the baseline testing recommended for patients with newly dx HIV infection |
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Definition
- CBC - chemistry profile - BUN/Cr - AST/ALT - Hep A,B,C - fasting glucose - serum lipids - U/A - TB - CXR - Pap smear - HIV antibody testing - CD4 count - HIV RNA - genotypic resistance - anti-toxo titer - syph, chlam, gon testing |
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Term
What type of vaccines may HIV patients receiv |
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Definition
- killed/inactivated vaccines - ?what about MMR? |
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Term
What is the recommended pre-HIV test counseling? |
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Definition
- obtain written informed consent prior to ordering test - anonymous and confidential testing options - difference between HIV and AIDS - HIV transmission and risk reduction - defer testing if high risk to self/others - implications of window period - appt for delivery of results and post-test counseling - explain meaning of test results - reassurance |
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Term
What is the recommended post-HIV test counseling for pt with negative result |
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Definition
- discuss meaning of test result - discuss posibility of HIV exposure during past three months (window period) and advisability of retesting - emphasize negative result does not imply immunity - reinforce risk reduction strategies |
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Term
What is the recommended post-HIV test counseling for pt with positive test results |
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Definition
1) meaning of result - possibility of medical care - notification of sexual/needle-sharing partners - behavior change to prevent transmission of HIV infection - refer to appropriate medical and support services |
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Term
What are the three age groups for treatment stratification in asthma? |
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Definition
- 0-4yrso - 5-11yrso - 12+yrso |
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Term
What is the difference between asthma severity and asthma control |
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Definition
1) severity: measure of intrinsic intensity of disease process (assessed before initiating tx) 2) control: minitored over time to guide adjustments to therapy |
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Term
What is the best tool to use for dx of asthma in patients 5+yrso? |
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Definition
- spirometry before and after bronchodilation therapy |
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Term
What is the preferred tx for Step 1 (intermittent) asthma |
|
Definition
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Term
What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 2 |
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Definition
1) Low-dose ICS, or cromolyn for all |
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Term
What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 3 |
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Definition
1) medium dose ICS for all 2) low dose ICS w LABA for 5+yrso |
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Term
What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 4 |
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Definition
1) medium-dose ICS w LABA for all |
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Term
What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 5 |
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Definition
1) high dose ICS w LABA for all |
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Term
What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 6 |
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Definition
1) high dose ICS w LABA w OCS for all |
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Term
What are the recommendations for quick-relief of asthma exacerbation in all ages? |
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Definition
1) SABA PRN
*frequent use may suggest need to increase step for tx |
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Term
Why is spirometry testing important in asthma? |
|
Definition
- because it frequently results in changes to tx of asthma |
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Term
What frequency should asthma be reassessed? |
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Definition
1) 2-6wk intervals until control is achieved - 1-6mo after control has been achieved |
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Term
When is it appropriate to consider a step down in asthma treatment? |
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Definition
1) when asthma is well controlled for 3 months or more 2) ICS should be tapered 25-50% q3mo |
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Term
What are the important aspects of patient-dr rapport to enhance asthma tx adherence? |
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Definition
- give every pt a written asthma actionplan that addressed individual sx and/or PEF measurements and includes instructions for self-management |
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