Term
Parietal pain:
Give 5 causes
Decribe pain
What dermatomes are included?
What are 3 signs of parietal pain?
Give two examples of parietal pain. |
|
Definition
Five causes: direct irrtation of somatically innervated parietal peritoneum by pus, bile, urine, sucus-entericus, feces
Describe pain acute, sharper, better localized
Corresponds to T6-L1 levels
Examples: herpes zoster, periotnitis
|
|
|
Term
Why is parietal pain more easily localized? |
|
Definition
somatic afferent fibers are directed to only one side of the nervous system |
|
|
Term
Define referred pain.
Give 5 examples. |
|
Definition
Sensations perceived at a site distant from that of a strong primary stimulus
Examples" AAA to lower back, gallbladder to shoulder, ureter to groin, pancreatitis to back, perforated ulcer to RLQ |
|
|
Term
Define misleading pain and give two examples. |
|
Definition
pain orgininating from abdomen when the actual primary source is from womewhere other than the abdomen
Cardiac to epigastrum
Glaucooma to periumbilical |
|
|
Term
What finding is associated with a bluish flank discoloration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What specific finding is associated with bluish periumbilical discoloration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What special finding is associated with visibile dilated abdominal venous vasculature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What special finding is associatd with umbilical node? |
|
Definition
Sister- mary Joseph Sign- assoc with gastric cancer |
|
|
Term
Appendicitis Epidemiology:
What % of the population will get it ?
What are common age groups?
What are four causes? Which is most common? |
|
Definition
10% of population
10-30 years of age
Four Causes:
Obstruction of lymphoid hyperplasia (MOST COMMON)
Fecalith (10%)
Tumor (carcinoid- most common tumor)
Infection (parasitic) |
|
|
Term
What's the pathophys of appendicitis? |
|
Definition
obstruction→increased intraluminal pressure→venous congestion→infection→thrombosis of intramural vessels→ischemia→necrosis→gangrene and perforation |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with visceral periumbilical pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia
low grade temp.
obstipation
What's on your ifferential diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 4 positive physical exam signs indicating late stage appendicitis? |
|
Definition
Mcburney's point tenderness
Rovsig's signs (RLQ tenderness with LLQ palpation)
Psoas sign: pain with RLE active hip extension
Obturator sign: pain with RLE passive hip felxion and internal rotation |
|
|
Term
What are signs of sepsis? |
|
Definition
tachycardia, hypotension, elevated temp |
|
|
Term
How do you make diagnosis for appendicitis? |
|
Definition
made by clinical diagnosis
CT scan is more accurate, but US can be done too and its' cheaper, faster, and portable |
|
|
Term
How do you manage pt with appendicitis? |
|
Definition
preop hydration with IVF, NPO, and ABX (gram pos, gram neg and anaerobes)
Definitive tx: appendectomy (laparoscopic or open technique)
There are multiple acceptable approaches to antimicrobial therapy as long as the regimen covers anaerobic flora, enterococci, and gram-negative intestinal flora.28 One such sample regimen is monotherapy with either tazobactam-piperacillin 3.375 g IV or ampicillin-sulbactam 3.00 g IV.
short-acting parenteral narcotic such as fentanyladministered IV is a good choice for pain management |
|
|
Term
What are 5 types of biliary disease? |
|
Definition
cholelithiasis- gallbladder stones
biliary colic
choledocholithiasis (common bile duct stone)
cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation)
cholangitis (biliary tract infection) |
|
|
Term
Patient presents with RUQ pain that may refer to the R scapula or epigastrum. Pt presents with nausea, vomiting, fever.
Patient has dark urine, light stools.
What do you think it could be? |
|
Definition
possible biliary disease: common bile duct |
|
|
Term
What are the "F" risk facots for stone formation? |
|
Definition
fair, forty, fertile, fat female (of child bearing age) |
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of cholangitis? |
|
Definition
Charcot's triad (fever/chills, RUQ pain, jaundice)
Reynold's pentad (Charcot's triad, altered mental status, shock) |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with sublingual and conjunctival jaundice.
RUQ tenderness
Positive Murphy's sign (and what is this exactly)? |
|
Definition
Biliary disease
Pos murphy's sign: sudden cessation of inspiration with R subcostal palpation |
|
|
Term
for biliary disease:
elevated bilirubin level, AST & ALT suggests: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
for biliary disease:
elevated Alk Phos is only associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you see elevated amylase...what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
stone passed through pancreas |
|
|
Term
Why would PT be elevated? |
|
Definition
if hepatic congestion and inhibition of factors II, VII, IX, and X. |
|
|
Term
Within biliary disease: US is the test of choice for what? |
|
Definition
gallstones, slurge, ultrasonagraphic shadow, wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid |
|
|
Term
What is a diagnostic and therapeutic test for common duct stones?
what test is only diagnostic? |
|
Definition
ERCP: endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
MCRP only diagnostic |
|
|
Term
What's your management plan for pt with biliary disease? |
|
Definition
avoid morphine bc may cause constrictino f sphincter of Oddi.
NPO, IVF, ABX, cholectectomy (laparoscopic or pen)
intraoperative cholangiogram vs ERCP if suspected common duct stones |
|
|
Term
Diverticular Disease:
__% of people > ___ years of age
majority of people have what type of cases?
what are diverticula? |
|
Definition
50%, 80 y/o
uncomplicated
diverticula are "false" mucosal/submuscosal outpouchings through inherent muscular weak spots in the presence of increased pressure |
|
|
Term
What is diverticulosis?
What is diverticulitis? |
|
Definition
Diverticulosis: multiple diverticula
Diverticulitis: infected outpouchings |
|
|
Term
Where are diverticuli most commonly found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What may complicate diverticuli? |
|
Definition
micro-macroperforation leading to abscess, peritonitis, sepsis
**commonly complicated by fistula |
|
|
Term
pt presents with LLQ acute abdominal pain, fver, constipation or diarrhea..what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's management plan for pt with diverticular disease? |
|
Definition
NPO, IVF, ABX for first episode
Colonscopy to R/o neoplasma after episode subsides
possible CT drainage of abscess
Surgical resection in one or two stage procedure depending on if patient is able to undergo bowel prep. |
|
|
Term
Pt has diverticular disease, what would you expect to see on the following studies:
plain films
CT
**not to self- what? |
|
Definition
plain films: free air under diaphragm or locally (micro perforation, signs of ileus, partial colonic obstruction or LLQ mass
CT with PO/IV contrast shows diverticula, wall thickening, pericolic fat infiltration, abscess, extraluminal air
**barium will cause peritonitis if spillage, us water soluble contrast (gastrographin) |
|
|
Term
What is a mechanical obstruction? |
|
Definition
implies a physical barrier, may be complete or partial |
|
|
Term
what is a simple obstruction vs a strangulated obstruction? |
|
Definition
simple obstruction: blockage of intestinal lumen only, usually one point of blockage
strangulated: blockage of lumena nd blood supply, usually two points of blockage (closed loop) |
|
|
Term
What is paralystic ileus? |
|
Definition
neurogenic failure of peristalsis |
|
|
Term
What are causes of small and large intestinal obstruction? |
|
Definition
Small bowel: Adhesions
Large bowel: neoplasm
Abdominal wall and internal: hernia
intussusception, volvulus, foreign bodies, gallsone ileus, IBD, stricture, cystic fibrosis, hematoma |
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction:
pt reports frequent vomiting, abdominal discomfort, no distension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction:
pt presents with colicky abdominal pain, moderate bilious vomiting, distension, constipation-obstipation, pain free intervals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction,
pt presents complainign of feculent vomiting, severe distension, and colicky pain... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is management for partial obstruction or ileus? |
|
Definition
NPO, IVF, NGT, avoid narcotics
ex. like blowing a balloon- take pressure off intestine so it can recover |
|
|
Term
Most AAA are _______.
____% are found _____
Affects more _____
Normal infrarenal aorta diameter is ___ |
|
Definition
aymptomatic
90% are found below renal arteries
affects more males 4:1
Normal diameter is 2 cm. >3 cm is aneurysmal |
|
|
Term
Routine screening in high risk individuals can decrease mortality by __% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with midabdominal or lower back pain and has hx of LE claudication...what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pt comes in with severe abdominal/back pain and hypotension. What are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What labs would you run on pt with AAA?
What is the screening test of choice? |
|
Definition
Routine CBC
T+C 2-4 units**
PT/PTT
Abdominal US |
|
|
Term
How do you manage AAA?
When is an operation indicated? |
|
Definition
IVF, acute resuscitation, T+C, PRBC, platelets, FFP, ABX
Indication for operation: >5 cm, >.5 cm growth in 1 year, acute leak.rupture |
|
|
Term
50% of mesenteric ischemia is caused by? |
|
Definition
mesenteric arterial emboli |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with abdominal distension and pain. High pitched/tinkling bowel sounds, peristaltic rushes
tympanic to percussion
rectal-fecal impaction, blood
peritoneal signs |
|
Definition
Think small/large intestinal obstruction |
|
|
Term
20% of mesenteric ischemia is due to ___ |
|
Definition
nonocclusive intestinal ischemia (low perfusion pressure/flow secondary to splanchnic bed vasoconstriction usually from cardiogenic shock, sepsis, or vasoconstrictive meds) |
|
|
Term
Where's a good place to look in H&P for someone you suspect has mesenteric ischemia?
What are you looking for? |
|
Definition
PMH: look for source: a-fib, malignancy, antithrombin III/protein C/ protein S/factor V lieden deficiencies, anticardiolipin/antiphospholipid antibodies, polycythemia vera, PVD, etc. |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to find on labs in pt with mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
metabolic acidosis (due to aerobic to ananaerobic) and increased lactic acid (signifies necrosis) |
|
|
Term
How do you make diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
Clinical diagnosis
mesenteric angiography and Ct are most useful
Plain film contrast studies may show "thumb printing" |
|
|
Term
What's the management plan for pt with mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
preop hydration (IVF, broad spectrum ABX, monitor and treat shock
DEFINITIVE TX is resection of involved gut and its mesentery
2nd look reoperative to identify if further necrosis
Sometime thrombolytics, vasodilators (papverine is DOC), are used for embolectomy
be wary of reperfusion injury |
|
|
Term
What organ systems can be down in pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary, kidneys, liver, pancreas
Immune response |
|
|
Term
What is included in Ranson's criteria? |
|
Definition
Age >55
WBC>16,000
BG>200
LDH>350
AST>250 |
|
|
Term
What are top reasons for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On physical exam, you find
abdominal pain and distension
ocassional epigastric palpable mass
possible signs of jaundice (why is that?)
Possible signs of shock |
|
Definition
Pancreatitis
Jaundice- bc secondary to biliary stone passage |
|
|
Term
What do you see in labs for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
WBC 10-30,000
Increase maylase and lipase X3 normal range
U/A: proteinuria, granular casts, glycosuria
increase BUN/CR due to prerenal state common
hyperglycemia, hypcalcemia, increase T. bili, increase PT/PTT, increase LDH/AST
ABG shows acidosis
|
|
|
Term
What's management for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
most are self-limited, resolve spontaneously
NPO, NGT if vomiting, ileus
IVF hydration especially if prerenal
somatostatin to decrease GI secretions
Tight insulin control
electrolyte replacement
FFP if coagulopathy
Pain control, NO MSO4 if biliary disease bc sphincter of oddi stricture
CT guided drainage
surgical drebridement, marsupialisation |
|
|
Term
Why is parietal pain more easily localized? |
|
Definition
somatic afferent fibers are directed to only one side of the nervous system |
|
|
Term
Define referred pain.
Give 5 examples. |
|
Definition
Sensations perceived at a site distant from that of a strong primary stimulus
Examples" AAA to lower back, gallbladder to shoulder, ureter to groin, pancreatitis to back, perforated ulcer to RLQ |
|
|
Term
Define misleading pain and give two examples. |
|
Definition
pain orgininating from abdomen when the actual primary source is from womewhere other than the abdomen
Cardiac to epigastrum
Glaucooma to periumbilical |
|
|
Term
What finding is associated with a bluish flank discoloration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What specific finding is associated with bluish periumbilical discoloration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What special finding is associated with visibile dilated abdominal venous vasculature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What special finding is associatd with umbilical node? |
|
Definition
Sister- mary Joseph Sign- assoc with gastric cancer |
|
|
Term
Appendicitis Epidemiology:
What % of the population will get it ?
What are common age groups?
What are four causes? Which is most common? |
|
Definition
10% of population
10-30 years of age
Four Causes:
Obstruction of lymphoid hyperplasia (MOST COMMON)
Fecalith (10%)
Tumor (carcinoid- most common tumor)
Infection (parasitic) |
|
|
Term
What's the pathophys of appendicitis? |
|
Definition
obstruction→increased intraluminal pressure→venous congestion→infection→thrombosis of intramural vessels→ischemia→necrosis→gangrene and perforation |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with visceral periumbilical pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia
low grade temp.
obstipation
What's on your ifferential diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 4 positive physical exam signs indicating late stage appendicitis? |
|
Definition
Mcburney's point tenderness
Rovsig's signs (RLQ tenderness with LLQ palpation)
Psoas sign: pain with RLE active hip extension
Obturator sign: pain with RLE passive hip felxion and internal rotation |
|
|
Term
What are signs of sepsis? |
|
Definition
tachycardia, hypotension, elevated temp |
|
|
Term
How do you make diagnosis for appendicitis? |
|
Definition
made by clinical diagnosis
CT scan is more accurate, but US can be done too and its' cheaper, faster, and portable |
|
|
Term
How do you manage pt with appendicitis? |
|
Definition
preop hydration with IVF, NPO, and ABX (gram pos, gram neg and anaerobes)
Definitive tx: appendectomy (laparoscopic or open technique)
|
|
|
Term
What are 5 types of biliary disease? |
|
Definition
cholelithiasis- gallbladder stones
biliary colic
choledocholithiasis (common bile duct stone)
cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation)
cholangitis (biliary tract infection) |
|
|
Term
Patient presents with RUQ pain that may refer to the R scapula or epigastrum. Pt presents with nausea, vomiting, fever.
Patient has dark urine, light stools.
What do you think it could be? |
|
Definition
possible biliary disease: common bile duct |
|
|
Term
What are the "F" risk facots for stone formation? |
|
Definition
fair, forty, fertile, fat female (of child bearing age) |
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of cholangitis? |
|
Definition
Charcot's triad (fever/chills, RUQ pain, jaundice)
Reynold's pentad (Charcot's triad, altered mental status, shock) |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with sublingual and conjunctival jaundice.
RUQ tenderness
Positive Murphy's sign (and what is this exactly)? |
|
Definition
Biliary disease
Pos murphy's sign: sudden cessation of inspiration with R subcostal palpation |
|
|
Term
for biliary disease:
elevated bilirubin level, AST & ALT suggests: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
for biliary disease:
elevated Alk Phos is only associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you see elevated amylase...what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
stone passed through pancreas |
|
|
Term
Why would PT be elevated? |
|
Definition
if hepatic congestion and inhibition of factors II, VII, IX, and X. |
|
|
Term
Within biliary disease: US is the test of choice for what? |
|
Definition
gallstones, slurge, ultrasonagraphic shadow, wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid |
|
|
Term
What is a diagnostic and therapeutic test for common duct stones?
what test is only diagnostic? |
|
Definition
ERCP: endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
MCRP only diagnostic |
|
|
Term
What's your management plan for pt with biliary disease? |
|
Definition
avoid morphine bc may cause constrictino f sphincter of Oddi.
NPO, IVF, ABX, cholectectomy (laparoscopic or pen)
intraoperative cholangiogram vs ERCP if suspected common duct stones |
|
|
Term
Diverticular Disease:
__% of people > ___ years of age
majority of people have what type of cases?
what are diverticula? |
|
Definition
50%, 80 y/o
uncomplicated
diverticula are "false" mucosal/submuscosal outpouchings through inherent muscular weak spots in the presence of increased pressure |
|
|
Term
What is diverticulosis?
What is diverticulitis? |
|
Definition
Diverticulosis: multiple diverticula
Diverticulitis: infected outpouchings |
|
|
Term
Where are diverticuli most commonly found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What may complicate diverticuli? |
|
Definition
micro-macroperforation leading to abscess, peritonitis, sepsis
**commonly complicated by fistula |
|
|
Term
pt presents with LLQ acute abdominal pain, fver, constipation or diarrhea..what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's management plan for pt with diverticular disease? |
|
Definition
NPO, IVF, ABX for first episode
Colonscopy to R/o neoplasma after episode subsides
possible CT drainage of abscess
Surgical resection in one or two stage procedure depending on if patient is able to undergo bowel prep. |
|
|
Term
Pt has diverticular disease, what would you expect to see on the following studies:
plain films
CT
**not to self- what? |
|
Definition
plain films: free air under diaphragm or locally (micro perforation, signs of ileus, partial colonic obstruction or LLQ mass
CT with PO/IV contrast shows diverticula, wall thickening, pericolic fat infiltration, abscess, extraluminal air
**barium will cause peritonitis if spillage, us water soluble contrast (gastrographin) |
|
|
Term
What is a mechanical obstruction? |
|
Definition
implies a physical barrier, may be complete or partial |
|
|
Term
what is a simple obstruction vs a strangulated obstruction? |
|
Definition
simple obstruction: blockage of intestinal lumen only, usually one point of blockage
strangulated: blockage of lumena nd blood supply, usually two points of blockage (closed loop) |
|
|
Term
What is paralystic ileus? |
|
Definition
neurogenic failure of peristalsis |
|
|
Term
What are causes of small and large intestinal obstruction? |
|
Definition
Small bowel: Adhesions
Large bowel: neoplasm
Abdominal wall and internal: hernia
intussusception, volvulus, foreign bodies, gallsone ileus, IBD, stricture, cystic fibrosis, hematoma |
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction:
pt reports frequent vomiting, abdominal discomfort, no distension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction:
pt presents with colicky abdominal pain, moderate bilious vomiting, distension, constipation-obstipation, pain free intervals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For small/large intestinal obstruction,
pt presents complainign of feculent vomiting, severe distension, and colicky pain... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is management for partial obstruction or ileus? |
|
Definition
NPO, IVF, NGT, avoid narcotics
ex. like blowing a balloon- take pressure off intestine so it can recover |
|
|
Term
Most AAA are _______.
____% are found _____
Affects more _____
Normal infrarenal aorta diameter is ___ |
|
Definition
aymptomatic
90% are found below renal arteries
affects more males 4:1
Normal diameter is 2 cm. >3 cm is aneurysmal |
|
|
Term
Routine screening in high risk individuals can decrease mortality by __% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with midabdominal or lower back pain and has hx of LE claudication...what are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pt comes in with severe abdominal/back pain and hypotension. What are you thinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What labs would you run on pt with AAA?
What is the screening test of choice? |
|
Definition
Routine CBC
T+C 2-4 units**
PT/PTT
Abdominal US |
|
|
Term
How do you manage AAA?
When is an operation indicated? |
|
Definition
IVF, acute resuscitation, T+C, PRBC, platelets, FFP, ABX
Indication for operation: >5 cm, >.5 cm growth in 1 year, acute leak.rupture |
|
|
Term
50% of mesenteric ischemia is caused by? |
|
Definition
mesenteric arterial emboli |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with abdominal distension and pain. High pitched/tinkling bowel sounds, peristaltic rushes
tympanic to percussion
rectal-fecal impaction, blood
peritoneal signs |
|
Definition
Think small/large intestinal obstruction |
|
|
Term
20% of mesenteric ischemia is due to ___ |
|
Definition
nonocclusive intestinal ischemia (low perfusion pressure/flow secondary to splanchnic bed vasoconstriction usually from cardiogenic shock, sepsis, or vasoconstrictive meds) |
|
|
Term
Where's a good place to look in H&P for someone you suspect has mesenteric ischemia?
What are you looking for? |
|
Definition
PMH: look for source: a-fib, malignancy, antithrombin III/protein C/ protein S/factor V lieden deficiencies, anticardiolipin/antiphospholipid antibodies, polycythemia vera, PVD, etc. |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to find on labs in pt with mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
metabolic acidosis (due to aerobic to ananaerobic) and increased lactic acid (signifies necrosis) |
|
|
Term
How do you make diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
Clinical diagnosis
mesenteric angiography and Ct are most useful
Plain film contrast studies may show "thumb printing" |
|
|
Term
What's the management plan for pt with mesenteric ischemia? |
|
Definition
preop hydration (IVF, broad spectrum ABX, monitor and treat shock
DEFINITIVE TX is resection of involved gut and its mesentery
2nd look reoperative to identify if further necrosis
Sometime thrombolytics, vasodilators (papverine is DOC), are used for embolectomy
be wary of reperfusion injury |
|
|
Term
What organ systems can be down in pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary, kidneys, liver, pancreas
Immune response |
|
|
Term
What is included in Ranson's criteria? |
|
Definition
Age >55
WBC>16,000
BG>200
LDH>350
AST>250 |
|
|
Term
What are top reasons for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On physical exam, you find
abdominal pain and distension
ocassional epigastric palpable mass
possible signs of jaundice (why is that?)
Possible signs of shock |
|
Definition
Pancreatitis
Jaundice- bc secondary to biliary stone passage |
|
|
Term
What do you see in labs for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
WBC 10-30,000
Increase maylase and lipase X3 normal range
U/A: proteinuria, granular casts, glycosuria
increase BUN/CR due to prerenal state common
hyperglycemia, hypcalcemia, increase T. bili, increase PT/PTT, increase LDH/AST
ABG shows acidosis
|
|
|
Term
What's management for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
most are self-limited, resolve spontaneously
NPO, NGT if vomiting, ileus
IVF hydration especially if prerenal
somatostatin to decrease GI secretions
Tight insulin control
electrolyte replacement
FFP if coagulopathy
Pain control, NO MSO4 if biliary disease bc sphincter of oddi stricture
CT guided drainage
surgical drebridement, marsupialisation |
|
|
Term
What color is air on xray?
fat?
water?
metal or bone? |
|
Definition
air and fat: black
water: gray
metal or bone: white |
|
|
Term
**all have the same thing, but different presentations:
Pt presents with mucosal lesion in the oral cavity develops along with cervical adenopathy, edema, and fever
Pt presents with severe abdominal pain and cramping followed by fever and sepsis.
Pt presents with a skin lesion evolving over 2 to 6 days from a papule to a vesicle to a depressed black eschar.
Another pt presents with brief upper respiratory infection followed by hypoxia and dyspnea.
YOu order a chest radiograph and find: mediastinal widening from adenopathy
What could it be? How do you make the laboratory diagnosis (three things) |
|
Definition
ANTHRAX
Labs: The laboratory diagnosis is made by (1) isolation of Bacillus anthracis from a clinical specimen, (2) anthrax electrophoretic immunotransblot (EITB) reaction to the protective antigen and/or lethal factor bands in at least one serum specimen obtained after onset of symptoms, or (3) demonstration of B. anthracis through immunofluorescence.
treat: first line is CIPROFLOXACIN or other fluroquinalone
|
|
|
Term
Pt presents saying they had the following:
Initially fever, severe myalgias, prostration; followed within 2 d by papular rash on the face spreading to extremities (affecting palms and soles) and then to trunk (lesser extent than chickenpox); lesions progress at same rate, becoming vesicular and then pustular with subsequent scab formation.
What is it? How do you treat? |
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Definition
Small pox ( Variola major )
treat: he treatment of choice is 10 to 14 days of either streptomycin or gentamicin |
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Term
Pt presents with following sxs:
Initially fever, chills, painful swollen lymph node(s); node progresses to bubo (sometimes suppurative)
What could it be? |
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Definition
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Term
What organism is responsible for bubonic plague and pneumonic plague? |
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Definition
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Term
Pt presents with Fever chills, cough, dyspnea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain; clinical condition consistent with gram-negative sepsis.
What could it be? |
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Definition
pneumonic plague
The treatment of choice is 10 to 14 days of either streptomycin or gentamicin |
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Term
What seven sites are affected by tularemia? |
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Definition
(1) ulceroglandular: cutaneous ulcer with regional lymphadenopathy; (2) glandular: regional lymphadenopathy without an ulcer; (3) ocularglandular: conjunctivitis with preauricular lymphadenopathy; (4) oropharyngeal: tonsillitis, stomatitis, or pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy, (5) intestinal: intestinal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea; (6) pneumonic: primary pleuropulmonary disease; or (7) thyroidal: febrile illness without early localizing signs and symptoms. |
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Term
What is the most likely transmission of SEB?
What will you see on labs?
Treatment? |
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Definition
transmission: inhalation
labs: elevation in white cell count with neutrophilic predominance occurs within 24 hours of symptoms
Treatment: supportive |
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Term
True or false regarding SEB:
Because the illness is not a result of S. aureus, but rather of its exotoxin, no bacteria are likely to be found in routine microscopy, and the toxin itself is too small to be detected with light microscopy |
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Definition
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Term
What could this be associated with?
Pt comes in after eating a "hard bean." pt now has the follwoing: delayed gastroenteritis, which may be severe and hemorrhagic, followed by delirium, seizures, coma, and death.
How do you treat? |
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Definition
Ricin
treat: whole bowel irrigation; Patients should be observed for at least 8 to 12 h. Once symptomatic, supportive care involves attention to fluid, glucose, and electrolyte replacement. |
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Term
Pt presents after doing construction with ceiling tiles. Complains of pain, photophobia, and tearing.
How do you assess pt?
What bug are you worried about?
What's tx? |
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Definition
Assess: fluorescein staining and examination with a cobalt-blue light. The eyelid should be everted and inspected for foreign bodies
Organism: pseudomonas
tx: (Amrit gave cipro)
tintinalli says: Erythryomycin ophthalmic ointment and eye patch
Cycloplegia (cyclopentolate 1%, or homatropine 5%) one drop now and repeat every 6 to 8 h as needed for pain. |
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Term
Pt was out running in the cold and develops the followng symptoms:
characterized by partial skin freezing, erythema, mild edema, lack of blisters, and occasional skin desquamation several days later. The patient may complain of transient stinging and burning, followed by throbbing.
What is it? WHat degree? How do you treat? |
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Definition
first degree frost bite
excellent prognosis |
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Term
Pt presents after running in cold with the follwing sxs:
full-thickness skin freezing, formation of substantial edema over 3 to 4 h, erythema, and formation of clear blisters rich in thromboxane and prostaglandins. The blisters form within 6 to 24 h, extend to the end of the digit, and usually desquamate and form black, hard eschars over several days. The patient complains of numbness, followed later by aching and throbbing.
What degree of frost bite? |
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Definition
second degree frostbite
good prognosis |
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Term
Pt presents after running in the cold with the follwing sxs: What degree?
characterized by damage that extends into the subdermal plexus. Hemorrhagic blisters form and are associated with skin necrosis and a blue-gray discoloration of the skin. The patient may complain that the involved extremity feels like a "block of wood," followed later by burning, throbbing, and shooting pains. |
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Definition
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Term
Andy ran in the middle of February and experiences the following:
characterized by extension into subcutaneous tissues, muscle, bone, and tendon. There is little edema. The skin is mottled, with nonblanching cyanosis, and eventually forms a deep, dry, black, mummified eschar. Vesicles often present late, if at all, and may be small, bloody blebs that do not extend to the digit tips. The patient may complain of a deep, aching joint pain. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you treat frostbite? |
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Definition
1) address hypothermia and frostbite
2) Rapid rewarming is the core of frostbite therapy
The injured extremity should be placed in gently circulating water at a temperature of 40° to 42°C (104°–107.6°F) for approximately 10 to 30 min, until the distal extremity is pliable and erythematous.
3) The involved extremities should be elevated and wrapped carefully in dry sterile gauze, with affected fingers and toes separated. |
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Term
A fracture of the fifth metacarpal neck is often referred to as a _______ fracture. These fractures are usually unstable with volar angulation.
Fractures of the metacarpal neck are usually caused by a direct impaction force.
How do you splint? |
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Definition
boxer's fracture
usually caused by impact of a clenched first with a skull or hard, immovable object (ie. wall or door)
Splint: These fractures should be splinted with the wrist in 20-degree extension and the MP flexed at 90 degrees. |
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Term
Pt presents after bar fight.
Physical exam reveals: the "knuckle" is flattened and can be palpated on the volar surface.
What type of fracture?
What's management?
Whats treatment? |
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Definition
Boxer's fracture
Management: Xray to determine degree of angulation- agnulation of up to 40 degrees is acceptable in 5th metacarpal. Any more requires reduction
Tx: ice, elevation, and immobilization in a short arm gutter splint in the intrinsic plus position
Pearl: Subtle malrotation can be recognized by looking at the alignment of the nail beds with the digits flexed. |
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Term
Pt presents saying they "fell on outstretched hand." What is most likely fracture? |
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Definition
Colles fracture
distal radial metaphysis fracture |
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Term
distal radial metaphysis fracture that is dorsally angulated and displaced proximally and dorsally
what is it? |
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Definition
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Term
pt presents after falling when roller skating.
Pt states they have palmar paresthesias.
What type of fracture is most likely?
Why the parasthesias?
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Definition
Colles fracture
from tension or pressure on the median nerve. |
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Term
What's typically the radiographic view to racognize a colles fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
Rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament occurs when the mechanism causes radial deviation (abduction) of the MP joint.
What type of fracture is described? |
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Definition
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Term
Pt has weakness of pincer function and point tenderness at the volar ulnar aspect of the thumb MCP point.
What's next step? |
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Definition
Hand surgery referral is recommended |
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Term
Where does the tear usually occur in a gamekeeper's thumb fracture? |
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Definition
The tear usually occurs at the insertion into the proximal phalanx. |
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Term
Elderly Susan comes in with PMH of osteoporosis. She fell on an outstretched hand with the elbow extended.
What is most likely fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
What three muscles attach on the greater tuberosity in order of highest to lowest? |
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Definition
high: supraspinatus
middle: infraspinatus
lowest: teres minor |
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Term
radial head subluxation.
also known as.. |
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Definition
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Term
Who comes in more commonly with nursemaid elbow?
what is the peak incidence of radial head subluxation? |
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Definition
girls are seen more commonly
peak age is 2 to 3 yrs old |
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Term
what is the usual mechanism of injury for a nursemaid elbow?
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Definition
sudden longitudinal traction on the arm with the elbow extended, such as occurs when a child is pulled up by the arm |
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Term
3 year old female presents to ED.
clinical examination reveals a toddler who will not move the affected arm, but is otherwise not in any distress. The arm is kept in an adducted, semiflexed, and prone position. On palpation there is no significant point tenderness or swelling. There may be some discomfort on palpation of the radial head on the affected side. Attempts at pronation and supination of the forearm are painful.
What could it be? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the two techniques to to fix nursemaid elbow? |
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Definition
There are two maneuvers for reduction, the supination technique, and the hyperpronation technique.
The supination technique (is performed by holding the child's elbow at 90 degrees with one hand, then firmly supinating the wrist, and finally by flexing the elbow so that the wrist is directed to the ipsilateral shoulder.
The hyperpronation technique is reported to be more successful, and it can be used primarily, or as a backup technique when supination fails. The hyperpronation technique is performed by holding the child's elbow at 90 degrees in one hand, then firmly pronating the wrist. Full arm function should return within 30 min, and if it does not, the alternative technique can be applied, or an alternative diagnosis should be considered. |
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Term
What is the most common carpal bone fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
Patients presents after falling on outstretched dorsiflexed hand or by an axial load directed along the thumb's metacarpal
PE: Eliciting pain in this area when the patient resists supination or pronation of the hand, or pain with axial pressure directed along the thumb's metacarpal, is also suggestive of injury.
what's fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
What's important to remember about scaphoid fractures and xrays? |
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Definition
Because 10 percent of initial radiographs fail to detect a fracture, initial treatment should be directed by clinical suspicion until follow-up studies can exclude the diagnosis. |
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Term
What costchondral joints are most affected by costochondritis?
what is the usual age range affected? |
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Definition
third, fourth, and fifth costochondral joints
age range: >40 |
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Term
How do you treat costochondritis? |
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Definition
Analgesics, anti-inflammatory drugs, and local glucocorticoid injections usually relieve symptoms. |
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Term
Pt presents with pain in foot. They state the pain is mainly over bony prominences.
What's diagnostic?
What could it be?
How do you treat? |
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Definition
bursitis
Diagnosis of these lesions is dependent on analysis of bursal fluid, which can be obtained by large-bore needle aspiration. Fluid should be sent for cell count; protein, glucose, and lactate (elevated in septic bursitis) levels; crystal analysis; and Gram stain as well as culture (since initial Gram stains are often negative).
Management: avoid weight bering on afected foot
if septic: PNC resistant ABX |
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Term
What are the two most common sites of bursitis? |
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Definition
two most common sites are the olecranon and prepatellar bursae |
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Term
How can you differentiate bursitis from arthritis? |
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Definition
bursitis: more likely to cause focal tenderness and swelling
less likely to affect range of motion of adjacent joint |
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Term
How do you treat a ruptured cysts from bursitis? |
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Definition
Treatment of a ruptured cyst includes rest, leg elevation, and injection of triamcinolone, 20–40 mg, into the knee anteriorly (the knee compartment which communicates with the cyst) |
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Term
Pt presetns after sport injury complainign of hearing a "pop" sound and can now not walk on heels or toes.
The Thompson Doherty test was performed (squeezing mid portion of the calf when pt lying in pront position)' normally will plantar flex the foot- this was not the case.
What are you thinking?
How do you manage in the ED? |
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Definition
achilles tendon rupture
splinted in neutral position with a robert jones splint, with prompt referral to ortho
crutches should be given for ambulation |
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Term
What is involved in de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
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Definition
extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis tendons, |
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Term
Pt presents with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist that extends into the forearm.
Positive finklestein test.
What could it be? |
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Definition
de quervain's tenosynovitis |
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Term
What is a positive Finkelstein test?
what is it assoc with? |
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Definition
patient grasps the thumb in the palm of the hand and the examiner ulnar deviates the thumb and hand. This produces sharp pain along the involved tendons. |
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Term
What is ED management for de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
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Definition
The thumb and wrist should be immobilized with a splint. Instruct the patient to remove the splint briefly each day and perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Anti-inflammatory medication should be prescribed for 10 to 14 days. Recurrence of this condition is not uncommon, particularly when related to occupational stress. Persistent cases should be referred to a hand surgeon. |
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Term
What nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome? |
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Definition
entrapment of the median nerve by the tense transverse carpal ligament |
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Term
Pt presents with paresthesias that extend into the index and long fingers, the radial aspect of the ring finger, and along the palmar aspect of the thumb. The patient often complains of awakening at night with burning pain and tingling in the hand, or numbness when driving a car or maintaining the wrist in prolonged flexion.
what could it be? |
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Definition
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Term
What conditions may be predisposted to getting carpal tunnel syndrome? |
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Definition
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Term
What's the difference btw tinel sign and phalen sign?
what are they used for? |
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Definition
used for carpal tunnel syndrome
tinel: tap volar aspect of wrist over media nerve
phalen: (more sensitive and specific) flex wrist maxiamlly and hold it in position for at least 1 min. |
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Term
What is ED maintenance for carpal tunnel syndrome? |
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Definition
The presence of median nerve motor deficit requires emergency hand consultation.
Otherwise, initial treatment is a volar splint to maintain the wrist in neutral position, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Surgery may be needed if symptoms do not improve, so referral to a hand surgeon is needed. |
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Term
Pt presents saying he is an avid golfer and just developed some pain.
Grasping and squeezing, in such tasks as shaking hands or opening jars, are impaired and cause pain.
What's top on your differntial? |
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Definition
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Term
Epicondylitis:
if pain is produced by wrist extension than it is _____
if pain is produced by wrist flexion than it is ____ |
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Definition
if pain is produced by wrist extension than it is lateral
if pain is produced by wrist flexion than it is medial |
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Term
What's the treatment for epicondylitis? |
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Definition
NSAIDs and rest are effective in mild cases
Symptoms that persist after 2 weeks of conservative therapy usually respond to infiltration of triamcinolone, 10–20 mg, mixed with 1% lidocaine, 1–2 mL, around the involved epicondyle |
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Term
Ottawa ankle rule test does NOT apply to who? |
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Definition
those under 18 years of age |
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Term
What is the Ottawa ankle rule test? |
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Definition
set of guidelines for doctors to aid them in deciding if a patient with foot or ankle pain should be offered X-rays to diagnose a possible bone fracture. |
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Term
You suspect patient has gout so you perform a joint aspiration.
What do you expect crystals to look like under the microscope? |
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Definition
Uric acid crystals appear needle-shaped and blue when the source of light is perpendicular to the crystal. |
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Term
You suspect pt has pseudogout. You do a joint aspiration, what do you expect to find? |
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Definition
yellow in this alignment, with a rhomboid shape. |
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Term
What is the first line therapy for gout or pseudogout? |
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Definition
NSAIDs ie. indomethacin; if normal renal function start at 50 mg
alternative therapy: colchicine |
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Term
What is the classic definition of heatstroke? |
|
Definition
core temp high than 40 deg celscius
CNS dysfunction
anhidrosis |
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Term
Heat stroke initial resucitation:
what tests? what do u give pt? |
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Definition
initiation of high-flow oxygen; use of continuous cardiac monitoring and pulse oximetry; and intravenous access)
An initial infusion of NS or LR solution at a rate of 250 mL/h is recommended for most patients. Glucose level should be promptly assessed with a test strip due to the high incidence of hypoglycemia in exertional heatstroke
Tests:
complete blood cell count, comprehensive metabolic panel, coagulation profile, creatine phosphokinase, myoglobin, urinalysis, toxicology screen, electrocardiogram, and chest radiograph. A lumbar puncture and computed tomography of the head may also be indicated as part of the evaluation of altered mental status.complete blood cell count, comprehensive metabolic panel, coagulation profile, creatine phosphokinase, myoglobin, urinalysis, toxicology screen, electrocardiogram, and chest radiograph. A lumbar puncture and computed tomography of the head may also be indicated as part of the evaluation of altered mental status. |
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Term
What defines hypothermia? |
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Definition
core temperature of less than 35°C (95°F). |
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Term
What three areas are increased in hypothermia in the early stages? |
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Definition
HR
cardiac output
blood pressure |
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Term
What do you need to be areful of when rewarming a pt with hypothermia.
This is top of mind. |
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Definition
gentle handling because manipulation can precipitate ventricular fibrillation in the irritable hypothermic myocardium. |
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Term
What is involved in tx for hypothermia? |
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Definition
Oxygen and intravenous fluids should be warmed, and patients should have constant monitoring of their core temperature, cardiac rhythm, and oxygen saturation.
most hypothermic pts are thiamine depleted alcoholics so give IV thiamine and glucose |
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Term
pt presents to ED with the following:
painful, involuntary, spasmodic contractions of skeletal muscles, usually those of the calves, although they may involve the thighs and shoulders.
Pt is sweating profusely.
What could it be?
What's the patho?
How do you treat? |
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Definition
heat cramps
patho: pathogenesis of heat cramps is attributed to a relative deficiency of sodium, potassium, and fluid at the cellular level of the muscle.
Treat:
Treatment consists of fluid and salt replacement (PO or IV) and rest in a cool environment. For mild cases, or if an overwhelming number of patients require treatment, a 0.1 to 0.2% saline solution can be given PO. Two 10-grain (650 mg) salt tablets dissolved in a quart of water provide a 0.1% saline solution. Many such electrolyte solution drinks (sports drinks) are commercially available and are much more palatable than 0.1% saline solution. More severe cases of heat cramps will respond to intravenous rehydration with NS. Patients with severe heat cramps may actually have hyponatremia and hypochloremia. Rarely, rhabdomyolysis occurs secondary to diffuse and protracted muscle spasm. |
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Term
Pt presents with the following sxs on a hot day:
weakness, malaise, lightheadedness, fatigue, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, frontal headache, and myalgias. Clinical manifestations include orthostatic hypotension, sinus tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, and syncope.
Lab tests show hemoconcentration and hypernatremia.
What is it? How do you treat? |
|
Definition
heat exhaustion
tx: Mild cases may be treated with oral electrolyte solutions. Rapid infusion of moderate amounts of intravenous fluids (1 to 2 L of saline solution) may be necessary in some patients who demonstrate significant tissue hypoperfusion. Ideally, the choice of intravenous solutions should be guided by laboratory determinations, but isotonic salt solutions may be used until specific electrolyte abnormalities are identified. In general, these patients do not require hospitalization. Patients with congestive heart failure or severe electrolyte disturbances may require admission, because of the time element needed to correct their fluid and/or electrolyte deficits.
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Term
A retired couple just bought a home in Arizona and are visitng during the summer.
They both notice mild swelling of the feet, ankles, and hands that appears within the first few days of exposure to a hot environment.
What is it? How do you treat? |
|
Definition
Heat edema
H&P usually allows you to exclude systemic causes. Due to cutaneous vasodilatation and orthostatic pooling of interstitial fluid in gravity-dependent extremities.
Tx: usually goes away in a few days to 6 weeks; no tx necessary
if pt insists on tx: elevate legs, use of support hose |
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Term
infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues. it extends below the dermis.
Any region in the body can be involved |
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Definition
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Term
What are the most common pathogens in immunocompetent host to getting cellulitis? |
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Definition
s. aureus
h influenzae
s. pyogenes |
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Term
Pt presents to ED with a PMH of preceding wound.
They complain of erythema, edema, warmth and tenderness to the same site of previous wound.
What tests do you order?
what's tx? |
|
Definition
diagnosis made mainly by inspection
tx: dicloxacillin or cephalexin |
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Term
What are the most common sites of involvement in scabies? |
|
Definition
most common sites of involvement include the hands, feet, flexural surfaces of the elbows and knees, umbilicus, groin, and genitals. |
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Term
this is pathognomic for what:
fine erythematous linear or curved lesion with central scale
what is tx? |
|
Definition
scabies
tx: permetrhin or lindane
**Lindane: neurotoxic to infants, children and pregnant women
**everyone at high risk of acquiring should be treated even if asymptomatic.
antihistamines (ie. diphenhydramine) can be used for itching |
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Term
Pt has AOM.
What are two options for meds |
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Definition
Amoxicillin...
if it doesn't go away THEN
augmentin
or cefuroxime axetil |
|
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Term
What's the patho behind pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
central pathophysiologic cause is believed to be the activation of digestive zymogens in the pancreatic acinar cells instead of the small intestine and subsequent autodigestion of the pancreas |
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Term
Pt presents with midepigastric or left upper quadrant pain. pt describes as constant, boring pain that radiates to flanks, chest or lower abdomen.
Pain is made worse when supine and relieved when sitting with trunk and knees flexed.
What are you thinking?
PE: reveals low grade fever, tachycardia, epigastric tenderness.
What could it be?
|
|
Definition
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Term
What exnzume is more accurate test in diagnosis of acute pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
What's tx for pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
-Most are self limited, resolve spontaneously
-NPO, NGT if vomiting/ileus, TPN for nutrition
-IVF hydration especially if prerenal
-Somatostatin to decrease GI secretions
-Tight insulin control (possible insulin gtt)
-Electrolyte replacement especially Ca2+
-FFP if Coagulopathy
-Pain control, NO MSO4 if biliary disease because sphincter if oddi stricture
-CT guided drainage of fluid collections
-Surgical drebridement, marsupialisation |
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Term
What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the most common cause of LBO?
Name two other big ones. |
|
Definition
neoplasms
others:
diverticulitis, sigmoid volvulus |
|
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Term
Pt presents with abdominal pain and feculent vomiting.
Xrays show:
Step-ladder pattern of small bowel, apple core lesion large bowel
what are you thinking? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
if pt has a mechanical bowel obstruction, what ABX do youw ant to give? |
|
Definition
tazobactam-piperacillin 3.375 g IV q6h or ampicillin-sulbactam 3.00 g IV q6h. |
|
|
Term
What is the test of choice for diverticulitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
#1 cause of lower GI bleed is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PUD ** most common
gastritis: alcoholics, salicylates, NSAIDS
esophageal varices: : alcoholic liver disease.
mallory weiss tear: due to repeated vomiting
**defined as above ligament of Treitz |
|
|
Term
Diverticulosis:
is it painFUL or painLESS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the four populations most at risk for UTI? |
|
Definition
neonates, girls, young women and older men
neonates: affects more males |
|
|
Term
Why are UTIs more prevalent in older men? |
|
Definition
exceeds women due to increased prevalence of prostate hypertrophy and related instrumentation. |
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Term
Pt presents with dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic discomfort.
What could it be? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pt presents with kidney pain, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, malaise and CVA tenderness, in addition to previous sxs of dysuria, freq and suprapubic discomfort.
What could it be?
Do you know for sure? |
|
Definition
acute pyelonephritis
Clinically acute pyelonephritis is indistinguishable from acute cystitis without specialized diagnostic techniques |
|
|
Term
You suspect pt has UTI infection. What labs are you most interested in?
What does gross blood in urine tell you- where is the infection? |
|
Definition
UA looking for nitrite, leukocyte esterase reactions, pyuria, bacteriuria and hematuria
gross urine: prob lower urinary tract
|
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|
Term
Urine nitrite reaction.
High specificity, but low sensitivity
True or False |
|
Definition
True
Positive result suggests the diagnosis, but a neg result does NOT rule it out |
|
|
Term
Who should be hospitalized if you suspect acute pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
pts with chronic indwelling catheters
preg women
children
adult males |
|
|
Term
What are common organisms causing UTI? |
|
Definition
E.Coli***
Klebsiella
Proteus
Enterobacter
Pseudomonas
chalymdia
staph saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
What is medication for UTI? |
|
Definition
1) 3 day course of fluroquinolone like cipro or levofloxacin
if prego: augmenten or cephalexin
|
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose someone with urinary retention?
Any meds? |
|
Definition
diagnosis confirmed by placing a foley catheter
if pt at risk for long period of urinary retention, abx can be given |
|
|
Term
EPI:
Nephrolithiasis
what population is most at risk?
What age range?
What disease predispose you? |
|
Definition
Males
30 to 50's
renal tubular acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, and cystinuria |
|
|
Term
why do u get kidney stones? |
|
Definition
Lifestyle factors can augment stone growth. Patients in mountainous, desert, or tropical regions and those in sedentary jobs have a higher frequency of stone disease. There is also an increased incidence during the warmest 3 months of the year for any geographic location. Increased water intake is associated with a decreased incidence of calculi. |
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|
Term
Kidney stones: patho
what three elements need to be present for stone formation? |
|
Definition
supersaturation, a relative lack of inhibitors, and stasis |
|
|
Term
75% of renal calculi are composed of ______
What is the most common site of stones? |
|
Definition
calcium
common site: ureterovesical junction due to small diameter
other: posterior pelvis in women, where the ureter is crossed anteriorly by the pelvic blood vessels and broad ligament |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with severe pain while the patient is sedentary or at rest. Ureteral distention and peristalsis cause the acute onset of remarkably severe, episodic visceral pain and little, if any, tenderness on examination. Typically pain originates in either flank, radiates anteroinferiorly around the abdomen, and progresses toward the ipsilateral testicle or labium majorum. The discomfort can be intense and may be associated with nausea, vomiting, or diaphoresis. Patients may be unable to find a comfortable position to relieve their symptoms. Consequently, they may be anxious, pacing, and reluctant to lie still on the examining table.
What could it be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What parts of the physical exam are most important for nephrolithiasis? Why? |
|
Definition
cardiac, respiratory, musculoskeletal, and dermatologic systems.
Make sure to r/o AAA, PE, pneumonia |
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Term
How do you diagnose nephrolithiasis?
What is mainstay of tx? |
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Definition
CT is modality of choice
UA: look for hematuria or infection; hematuria supports diagnosis
BUN: Creatinine: if pt has nephrotoxicity and may need contrast...
be careful when diagnosing stone composiiton: The presence of oxalate or urate stones on microscopic urinalysis can be an aid to identifying stone composition
However, because crystals may be seen without renal stones, their presence is not diagnostic and should be interpreted cautiously. An elevated urine pH (>7.6) is associated with infection and may indicate the presence of a urea-splitting organism.
Tx: pain control; opiate plus an NSAID; if emesis, give anti-emetic |
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Term
Burns:
What produces more damage? alkaline or acid? |
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Definition
alkaline
At similar volumes and manner of contact, alkalis usually produce far more tissue damage than acids. Acids in general cause coagulation necrosis with protein precipitation, tending to form a tough leathery eschar. The eschar typically limits deeper penetration of the agent. Alkalis produce liquefaction necrosis and saponification of lipids. The result is a poor barrier to chemical penetration and deeper, ongoing burns. |
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Term
How do you treat chemical burns? |
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Definition
1. Terminate the burning process: remove garments and copious irrigation of skin
2. ocular: 1-2L normal saline--check visual acuity and pH after ocular irrigation
3. phenol and phenolic compounds should be irrigated immed with water
4. Hydroflouric acid burns require calicum gluconate to bind fluoride and neutralize toxic effects.- can be gel, injection or intraarterial infusion
5. IV fluid resuscitation, analgesia and tetanus immunoprophylaxis |
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Term
Epiglottitis used to be caused by ____ but now is caused by _______(3) |
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Definition
Epiglottitis used to be caused by H.influenza but now is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae are responsible for most cases in immunized children |
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Term
What is this:
classic symptoms are an abrupt onset over several hours of high fever, sore throat, stridor, dysphagia, and drooling. Some cases may develop over 1 to 2 days. Physical examination reveals a toxic-appearing, apprehensive child with an ashen-gray color. The child often sits in a tripod position, or the "sniffing" position, with the neck slightly extended and the chin forward. As opposed to the child with croup, there is no cough. The voice may be muffled, but supraglottic foreign bodies, peritonsillar abscess, and retropharyngeal abscess may present similarly. If inflammatory changes extend beyond the epiglottis to include the vocal cords, voice pitch will be altered as well. |
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Definition
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Term
Five steps to diagnosing epiglottitis |
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Definition
1. Immediate recognition and triage to a resuscitation area2. Continuous monitoring by someone trained in the management of the difficult airway3. Rapid consultation with appropriate colleagues4. Consideration and risk-benefit analysis of patient transfer with appropriate personnel present during the transfer5. Bedside radiology without disturbing patient or, if moved to the x-ray suite, constant monitoring by a physician with appropriate airway equipment and skills |
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Term
What is the finding on radiograph for epiglottitis? |
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Definition
thumb print by hypopharynx |
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Term
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Definition
Nebulized racemic epinephrine should be considered to decrease airway edema. The child should be kept seated upright.
The referral center should be alerted as soon as possible, so that decisions concerning intubation or tracheostomy can be made in concert with consultants, and so that support personnel can be mobilized as needed. Patients usually are intubated by the most skilled individual available as soon as the diagnosis is made. Sedation, paralytics, and vagolytics are used as indicated.
ABX
A second- or third-generation cephalosporin such as cefuroxime, cefotaxime, or ceftriaxone is generally administered to ensure adequate coverage of H. influenzae. With the increasing incidence of S. pneumoniae as a cause for epiglottitis and the marked increase in resistance of this organism to cephalosporins, one may empirically give vancomycin also. |
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Term
What population is most affected by asthma? |
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Definition
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Term
What is decreased in asthma? ie. spirometry |
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Definition
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Term
How would you explain the mechanisms underlyuing the definition of asthma? |
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Definition
Genetic, evnironmental risk factors cause INFLAMMATION which then causes airway hyperresponsiveness and airway obstruction |
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Term
PATHO of asthma
what four mechanism cause problems? |
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Definition
airway hyperresponsive ness causes bronchoconstriction
swelling and edema of the airways
airway remodeling
mucus plug formation |
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Term
What chemical mediator is causing bronchoconstriction is asthma? (there are many but this is a big one) |
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Definition
cyclooxygenase products: prostaglandins
also lipoxygenase products: LTC4, D4 |
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Term
Why do you have airway remodeling in asthma? |
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Definition
inflammation and cytokines activate myofibroblasts which stimulate collagen and fibronectin production--this results in residual fixed obstruction that is not reversed by bronchodilation |
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Term
What are some classic presenting symptoms of asthma? |
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Definition
wheezing
SB
chest tightness
chest pain
sputum production
cough |
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Term
17 year old girl with asthma that has pseudomonas. What coudld it be? |
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Definition
CYSTIC FIBROSIS!
*always a board question- get sweat test! |
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Term
In asthma- what is the site of action of steroids? |
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Definition
blocks production of arachodonic acid so you dont produce leukotrienes and prostaglandins |
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Term
What are three types of bronchodilators used in asthma? |
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Definition
beta agonist
methylxanthines
anticholinergic |
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Term
What are methylxanthines?
what about its side effects limit its uselfulness? |
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Definition
family of agents including theophylline, caffeine, theobromine
third line treatment
toxic effects:
GI: n/v/d
Cardiac: arrythmias, palpitations
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Term
What is the MOA of ipratropium bromide? |
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Definition
relaxes smooth muscle by blockign cholinergic (bronchoconstricting) tone
more useful in severe acute asthma as add-on therapy |
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Term
Asthma is often associated with a FHx of what three other conditions? |
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Definition
rhinitis, urticaria, and eczema. |
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Term
What are typical presenting symptoms of pulmonary edema? |
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Definition
Severe dyspnea, production of pink, frothy sputum and diaphoresis and cyanosis |
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Term
What are some non-cardiac causes of pulmonary edema? |
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Definition
IV opiods, increased intracerebral pressure, high altitude, sepsis |
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Term
Pt comes in with pulmonary edema and CHF. What should your initial tx be? |
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Definition
O2 delivered by mask
give nitroglycerin to decrease BP- if sxs dont improve then try nitroprusside
Morphine for venodilation
IV diuretic (Furosemide or bumetanide) |
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Term
pt come sin with carpopedal spasms (occurs in severe cases), lightheaded and can't catch their breath. They have PMH of anxiety.
What are you thinking?
whats tx? |
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Definition
Hyperventilation
pt may benefit from Xanax (alprazolam)or Ativan (lorazepam)
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Term
What is the most serious cause of anaphylaxis?
What's second most common cause? |
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Definition
Most common causes for serious anaphylaxis are antibiotics, such as penicillin, insects, and food. (#1 cause beta lactam abx, #2 hymenoptera stings) (food allergy common cause in peds) |
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Term
What is the classic presentation of anaphylaxis? |
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Definition
pruritus, cutaneous flushing, and urticaria |
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Term
What's the tx for anaphylaxis? |
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Definition
epinephrine, intravenous fluids, and oxygen
Epi route shoudl be IM--preferred route
Adults: .5 ml of 1:1000
Children: .01 ml/kg of 1:1000
&should take effect in 2 min..if not then
epi .1 ml of 1:1000 mixed in 10 ml or NS (1:100,000) admin IV over 10 min
In addition,
give pt Diphenyhydramine
Ranitidine
if bronchospams give albuterol
Salu-medrol (methylpredinsone) for controlling persistent or delayed allergies response |
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Term
Pt come sin with anaphylactic shock. How long will you observe them before you send them home? |
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Definition
for mild reactions, observe for 3 to 4 hours before discahnge.
Mod to severe sympsoms should be admitted.
Always discharge on an antihistamine and prednisone for 4 days. Counsel about the need to return in the event of late recurence of symptoms. |
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Term
What is the screening tool of choice to detect rib fractures?
What do you do if you suspect multiple fractures? |
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Definition
xray
if multiple fractures: get CT of abdoemn to r/o intrabdominal bleed from liver or spleen |
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Term
What's the mainstay of tx for pt with multiple rib fractures? |
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Definition
Rapid mobilization, respiratory support, and pain management are the mainstays of treatment for the patient with multiple rib fractures |
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Term
What are the cardinal signs of hypercapnia? |
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Definition
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Term
What's is Virchow's triad? |
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Definition
hypercoagulability, stasis, and venous injury |
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Term
What complaints are highly suggestive of a PE? |
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Definition
chest pain, tachypnea, and tachycardia is highly suggestive of PE |
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Term
In regards to D-dimer,
what is the more SENSITIVE test?
ELISA OR the erythrocyte agglutination assay? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the golden standard for diagnosis of PE? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the first line tx for PE? |
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Definition
heparin plus warfarin
second line: fibrolytics (streptokinase, urokinase and alteplase)
if is there sustained problems- pt may seek benefit from surgical thrombectomy |
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Term
Treatment for PE...according to Tintinalli |
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Definition
1. supplemental O2 to maintain a pulse ox reading >95%
2. IV access should be secured and crystalloid IV fluids given to augment preload and correct hypotension.
3. Anticoagulation with a heparin is standard tx for acute PE. (Dosing of unfractionated heparin should be weight based, with 80 units/kg given as an initial bolus followed by 18 units/kg per hour. Low molecular weight heparin (ie. Enoxaprin) safe and effective for acute PE
Absolute Contraindications: intracranial hemorrhage or active GI hemorrhage
If high pretest probability and no contraindications: start heparin therapy before diagnostic testing
4. Thromboembolytic therapy should be considered for pts who require aggressive tx for PE (ie pts with hemodynamic instability) Ex: Pts with ECG evidence of rt ventricular dysfunction
Three regimens of tx include streptokinase, urokinase, and alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator).
Most common regimen: alteplase 50 to 100 mg infused over 2 to 6 hrs, although itmay be given as a bolus in the case of severe shock.
5. Stable patients can be admitted to telemetry bed. Pts who show signs of circulatory compromise and all pts who receive thrombolytic therapy should be admitted to an ICU.
6. An IVC filter shoud be considered when anticoag fails or is contraindicated. |
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Term
You shoudl have high suspicion of what if pt comes in with the following:
Pt who has sustained sudden severe deceleration or a high-speed impact from the side. |
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Definition
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Term
Pt states they were in a MVA and now they are experiencin retrosternal or interscapular pain.
What is top of mind? |
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Definition
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Term
On physical exam for pt who was just in MVA... you note the following: (what could it be?)
1) an acute onset of upper extremity hypertension,
2) difference in pulse amplitude between the upper and lower extremities
3) the presence of a harsh systolic murmur over the precordium or posterior interscapular area.
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Definition
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Term
What is the gold standard for traumatic aortic ruputre diagnosis? |
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Definition
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Term
What is tx for traumatic aortic rupture? |
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Definition
1. Pts should nto be allowed to develop systolic BP >120 mmHg or to perform a valsalva maneuver. Fluid admin should be monitored carefully and admin of sedatives, vasodilators, analgesics and beta blockers may be required to reduce the systolic BP. An NG tube should be placed to avoid gagging or coughing in the patient
Although surgical repair is the accepted standard of care, aggressive medical control of BP with delayed repair and prolonged observation may be alternatives to pts at high risk for surgery. Endovascular stending may provide a less invasive approach to surgical repair. |
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Term
Name some etiologies for acute arterial occulusion. |
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Definition
trauma, dissection, thrombosis, embolism (**most originate from heart)
clotting disorders, atherosclerosis |
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Term
What is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
What labs can you use to diagnose HF? |
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Definition
clinical diagnosis of HF plus BNP graeter than 100 pg/mL |
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Term
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Definition
Oxygen
Cardiac monitoring
Pulse Ox
12 lead EKG
IV access
frequent vitals
Nitroglycerin
Beta blocker and ACEi
IV furosemide or bumetanide |
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Term
What is the most common underlying etiology of CHF? |
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Definition
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Term
What valve is most susceptible to IV drug user realted endocarditis? |
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Definition
tricuspid because first to come in contact with substances |
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Term
What drug gives a greater risk of developing endocarditis? |
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Definition
IV cocaine users bc of greater frequency of injections, less chance of sterilization bc cocaine does not need to be heated, and greater likelihood of needle sharing.
AND vasoconstrictive properties of cocaine may cause interstitial or endothelial damage which predisposes to infection |
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Term
Pt presents with following sxs:
fever, cardiac murmur, cough, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis.
PMH: unremarkable
SH: Smoker and cocaine user |
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Definition
endocarditis=--prob due to staph aureus |
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Term
What are common pathogens seen in endocarditis? |
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Definition
staph aureus
pseudomonas due to using tap or toilet water in preparation of drugs |
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Term
Janeway lesions (NON-TENDER) and roth spots are pathognomonic for what disease? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the four categories of hypertension? |
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Definition
1. Hypertensive emergency: elevated BP assoc with target organ (CNS, cardiac or renal) dysfunction. Immed recognition and tx required.
2. Hypertensive urgency: elevated BP assoc with risk for imminent target organ dysfunction. Decreased the BP over 24 to 48 hrs and follow up the next day are recommended.
3. Acute hypertensive episode: SBP above 180 mmHg and DBP above 110 mmHg without signs or symptoms. Usually no immed tx is required, but the pt should have follow up the next day.
4. Transient HTN: elevated BO assoc with another condition (ie. anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, or cocaine abuse) Pts usually become normotensive once the precipitating event resolves. |
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Term
Pt presents with pericarditis. What is the treatment? |
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Definition
Initial bolus of NS to increase intravascular volume, facilitate right heart filling and increase cardiac output
Pericardiocentesis is initial definitive therapy and for diagnostic evaluation |
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Term
Sudden onset of chest pain that feels better when leading forward
ST elevation in all 12 leads
rubs noted on heart exam.
May have fever
What could it be? |
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Definition
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Term
What can cause pericarditis? |
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Definition
viral, bacterial, fungal, malginancy, drugs, uremia |
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Term
How do you treat pericarditis? |
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Definition
NSAIDS
look for a cause
follow up with echocardiogram
lab studies
chest xray |
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