Term
[image]
Site of the dermal ridges that produce epidermal ridges on the epidermal surfaces of the fingers. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Sudoriferous gland. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Dense irregularly arranged, fibrous connective tissue. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Where capillary loops are found. |
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Definition
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Term
The most abundant cells of the epidermis.
A) Merkel disc
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cornified keratinocytes
D) Keratinocytes
E) Keratin
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Definition
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Term
The protein found in the epidermis that is responsible for toughening the skin.
A) Merkel disc
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cornified keratinocytes
D) Keratinocytes
E) Keratin
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Definition
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Term
Skin macrophages that help activate the immune system.
A) Merkel disc
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cornified keratinocytes
D) Keratinocytes
E) Keratin
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Definition
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Term
The layer of the epidermis where the cells are considered protective but nonviable.
A) Vellus
B) Stratum corneum
C) Sudoriferous glands
D) Stratum basale
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Definition
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Term
The glands that serve an important function in thermoregulation.
A) Vellus
B) Stratum corneum
C) Sudoriferous glands
D) Stratum basale
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Definition
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Term
The layer that contains the mitotic viable cells of the epidermis.
A) Vellus
B) Stratum corneum
C) Sudoriferous glands
D) Stratum basale
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Definition
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Term
May indicate embarrassment, fever, hypertension, inflammation, or allergy.
A) Addison's disease
B) Pallor
C) Erythema
D) Jaundice
E) Cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
May indicate fear, anger, anemia, or low blood pressure.
A) Addison's disease
B) Pallor
C) Erythema
D) Jaundice
E) Cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
Usually indicates a liver disorder.
A) Addison's disease
B) Pallor
C) Erythema
D) Jaundice
E) Cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
Appearance of a permanent tan; bronzing.
A) Addison's disease
B) Pallor
C) Erythema
D) Jaundice
E) Cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
A bluish color in light-skinned individuals.
A) Addison's disease
B) Pallor
C) Erythema
D) Jaundice
E) Cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Reticular layer of the dermis |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Papillary layer of the dermis |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The apocrine sweat glands are fairly unimportant in thermoregulation. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer of epidermal cells is collagen. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Joe just burned himself on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The most dangerous skin cancer is cancer of the melanocytes. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: A physician is often able to detect homeostatic imbalances in the body by observing changes in the skin color. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The pinkish hue of individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin (contained in red blood cells) circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the epidermis. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns," this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Sweat glands continuously produce small amounts of sweat, even in cooler temperatures. |
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Definition
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Term
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.
C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. |
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Definition
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. |
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Term
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
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Definition
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale |
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Term
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.
A) medulla
B) cortex
C) external root sheath
D) cuticle
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Definition
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Term
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A) sweat glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) Meibomian glands
D) ceruminous glands
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Definition
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Term
The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________
A) race
B) genetics
C) use of farm chemicals
D) overexposure to UV radiation
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Definition
D) overexposure to UV radiation |
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Term
What is the most important role of the arrector pili muscles in humans?
A) Help retain heat
B) Defense
C) Cause the hair follicle to stand erect
D) Force sebum out of the hair follicle to the skin surface
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Definition
D) Force sebum out of the hair follicle to the skin surface |
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Term
A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?
A) granulosum
B) basale
C) lucidum
D) spinosum
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) free nerve endings
D) Krause's end bulbs
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
A) Pacinian corpuscle
B) tactile corpuscle
C) Ruffini body
D) free nerve ending
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Definition
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Term
Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions include ________.
A) the dermis providing the major mechanical barrier to chemicals, water, and other external substances
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system
C) cooling the body by increasing the action of sebaceous glands during high-temperature conditions
D) epidermal blood vessels serving as a blood reservoir
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Definition
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system |
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Term
The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.
A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed
B) bind the hair root to the dermis
C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
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Definition
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation |
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Term
Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?
A) Melanoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Adenoma
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Definition
B) Squamous cell carcinoma |
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Term
Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched?
A) Keratinocytes — provide sense of touch and pressure
B) Melanocytes — protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays
C) Dendritic cells — activate the immune system
D) Tactile cells — protection
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Definition
C) Dendritic cells — activate the immune system |
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Term
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
A) stratum corneum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum basale
D) stratum lucidum
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Definition
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Term
The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?
A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes
B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
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Definition
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells |
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Term
The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the reticular layer
B) the subcutaneous layer
C) the hypodermal layer
D) the papillary layer
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Definition
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Term
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn?
A) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles.
B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks."
D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.
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Definition
B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. |
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Term
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:
A) dermal papillae.
B) hair follicles.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.
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Definition
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Term
The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?
A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges.
B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.
C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily.
D) Identical twins do not have the same pattern of ridges.
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Definition
B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person. |
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Term
Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?
A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color.
B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.
D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.
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Definition
D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen. |
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Term
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin. |
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Definition
A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. |
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Term
A dendritic or Langerhan cell is a specialized ________.
A) squamous epithelial cell
B) phagocytic cell
C) nerve cell
D) melanocyte |
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Definition
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Term
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A) sebaceous and merocrine
B) mammary and ceruminous
C) eccrine and apocrine
D) holocrine and mammary |
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Definition
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Term
The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.
A) primarily uric acid
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
D) metabolic wastes |
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Definition
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C |
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Term
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?
A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
B) beneath the flexure lines in the body
C) in the axillary and anogenital area
D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet |
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Definition
C) in the axillary and anogenital area |
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Term
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.
A) by high temperatures
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by hormones, especially androgens
D) as a protective coating when one is swimming |
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Definition
C) by hormones, especially androgens |
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Term
In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?
A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.
B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.
C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.
D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases. |
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Definition
A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. |
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Term
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist
C) through blood analysis
D) by using the "rule of nines" |
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Definition
D) by using the "rule of nines" |
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Term
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
A) infection
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function |
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Definition
B) catastrophic fluid loss |
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Term
| The layer of the epidermis immediately under the stratum lucidum in thick skin is the stratum ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps. |
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Definition
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Term
| A summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of ________ disease. |
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Definition
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Term
| Burns that result in injury to the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis is called a ________ burn. |
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Definition
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Term
| Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| The only place you will find stratum ________ is in the skin that covers the palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet. |
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Definition
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Term
| List the layers of the dermis and describe the tissue that makes up each layer. |
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Definition
| The papillary layer is composed of areolar connective tissue that allows phagocytes and other defensive cells to serve as a second line of defense against microbial invasion. The reticular layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue |
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Term
| How are burns commonly classified? Give an example. |
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Definition
| Burns are classified according to their severity or depth. For example, in first-degree burns, only the epidermis is damaged; in second degree burns, the epidermis and upper dermis are damaged; in third degree burns, there is widespread damage of epidermis and dermis. |
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Term
| What complications might be anticipated from the loss of large areas of skin surfaces? |
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Definition
| Large losses of skin, as with severe burn injuries, allow excessive fluid loss and infection. Skin grafting or "synthetic skin" applications are usually necessary. |
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Term
| Name the layers of the epidermis in order from the surface down. |
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Definition
| Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, and basale. |
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Term
| Why are the apocrine sweat glands fairly unimportant in thermal regulation? |
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Definition
| They are largely confined to the axillary and anogenital regions rather than distributed on the body where heat can be more readily dissipated. |
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Term
| Name the four kinds of sudoriferous glands and give their locations. |
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Definition
1. eccrine — found in most of the body, especially the palms, soles, and forehead
2. apocrine — axillary and anogenital regions
3. ceruminous — lining of the external ear canal
4. mammary — breasts |
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Term
| Why is profuse sweating on a hot day good, and yet a potential problem? |
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Definition
| Good because the sweat and evaporating of the sweat causes cooling of the body. Bad because excessive water and salt loss may occur. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances may follow. |
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Term
| The temperature yesterday was an uncomfortable 98°F. You unwisely chose to play tennis at noon, counting on your body's internal defenses to protect you against heat exhaustion. How did your body respond to this distress? |
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Definition
| The thermoreceptors sense the temperature change, and neural stimulation responds by stimulating sweat glands. Their watery products evaporated at the skin surface and cooled the body. Blood vessels in the dermis also responded by dilating and releasing heat to the exterior. |
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Term
| Mary noticed a large, brown spot on her skin. She has been playing tennis in the sun for several years without sun protection. She reported the discovery to a friend, who told her to apply the ABCD rule to determine whether or not she had malignant melanoma. Her friend told her that if her answer was "no" to the questions that were asked by the ABCD rule, she had nothing to worry about. What is the ABCD rule and should she ignore the spot if her answers are negative? |
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Definition
| The ABCD rule refers to the following: asymmetry—where the two sides of the spot do not match; border irregularity—the borders are not round and smooth; color—the pigmented spot contains shades of black, brown, tan, and sometimes blues and reds; and diameter—the spot is larger than 6 mm in diameter. It is imperative that Mary have a physician examine the spot immediately. Any unusual lesion on the skin of a sun worshipper should be examined and the ABCD rule does not account for all possible factors, such as rapid growth, even if less than 6 mm. |
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Term
| John, a younger teenager, notices that he is experiencing a lot of pimples and blackheads, which frequently become infected. What is causing this problem? |
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Definition
| Because of hormonal changes, teenagers frequently have overactive sebaceous (oil) glands, which can clog and become infected or inflamed. Scratching, squeezing, or irritating the tissue can lead to infection. |
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Term
| Melanoma is a form of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes. Melanoma is most common in Caucasians between 40 and 70 years of age. Explain why Caucasians would have a greater incidence of melanoma. |
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Definition
| Melanoma has its beginnings in melanocytes, the skin pigment cells. These cells produce the dark protective pigment called melanin to protect against sun damage to DNA. Since the melanocytes in Caucasian people do not make as much melanin per cell as darker-skinned individuals, their melanocytes are more easily sun-damaged, resulting in damaged DNA cells that are more apt to lose genetic control of their own cell division. |
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Term
| The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis. His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue. How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife? |
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Definition
| Cyanosis is a dusky bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes that occurs with reduced oxygen levels. Without enough oxygen getting to the tissues the skin in Caucasians appears blue due to the color combination of dark maroon blood seen through the yellowish tint of skin. At close inspection of the conjunctiva and palms and soles may also show evidence of cyanosis. |
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Term
| Explain why soap that has an alkaline base may not be healthy for some patients to use daily. |
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Definition
| The skin's acid mantle slowss growth of bacteria. Soap may destroy the acid mantle of the skin, causng it to lose its protective mechanism. Some soaps contain antibacterial agents, which can change the natural flora of the skin. |
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Term
| Robert, a surfer, has a mole that has changed its shape and size. His doctor, applying the ABCD(E) rule, diagnosed a melanoma. What do the letters ABCD(E) represent? |
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Definition
A = asymmetry
B = border irregularity
C = color
D = diameter
E = elevation |
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Term
[image]
Name the shape classification of each numbered bone |
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Definition
| 1-Flat, 2-Long, 3-Flat, 4-Irregular, 5-Long, 6-Sesamoid, 7-Short |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Location of the epiphyseal line. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Area where yellow marrow is found. |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Epiphysis of the bone. |
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Definition
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Term
Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.
A) Osteoporosis
B) Paget's disease
C) Osteomalacia
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Definition
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Term
Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing.
A) Osteoporosis
B) Paget's disease
C) Osteomalacia
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Definition
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Term
Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.
A) Osteoporosis
B) Paget's disease
C) Osteomalacia
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Definition
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Term
The lining of the marrow cavity.
A) Lamellae
B) Canaliculi
C) Endosteum
D) Osteoclasts
E) Osteoblasts
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Definition
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Term
Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix.
A) Lamellae
B) Canaliculi
C) Endosteum
D) Osteoclasts
E) Osteoblasts
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Definition
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Term
Layers of bone matrix.
A) Lamellae
B) Canaliculi
C) Endosteum
D) Osteoclasts
E) Osteoblasts
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Definition
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Term
Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone.
A) Lamellae
B) Canaliculi
C) Endosteum
D) Osteoclasts
E) Osteoblasts
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Definition
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Term
Cells that can build bony matrix.
A) Lamellae
B) Canaliculi
C) Endosteum
D) Osteoclasts
E) Osteoblasts
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Definition
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Term
The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface.
A) Diaphysis
B) Appositional growth
C) Epiphyseal line
D) Chondrocytes
E) Epiphyseal plate
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Definition
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Term
The area of long bones where cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells.
A) Diaphysis
B) Appositional growth
C) Epiphyseal line
D) Chondrocytes
E) Epiphyseal plate
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Definition
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Term
The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth.
A) Diaphysis
B) Appositional growth
C) Epiphyseal line
D) Chondrocytes
E) Epiphyseal plate
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Definition
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Term
Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place.
A) Diaphysis
B) Appositional growth
C) Epiphyseal line
D) Chondrocytes
E) Epiphyseal plate
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Short, irregular, and flat bones have marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth. |
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Definition
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Term
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?
A) spongy bone
B) irregular bone
C) compact bone
D) trabecular bone |
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Definition
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Term
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.
A) fat
B) blood-forming cells
C) elastic tissue
D) Sharpey's fibers |
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Definition
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Term
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.
A) osteocyte
B) osteoblast
C) osteoclast
D) chondrocyte |
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Definition
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Term
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
A) inadequate calcification of bone
B) decreased osteoclast activity
C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
D) increased osteoclast activity |
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Definition
C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage |
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Term
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis
B) metaphysis
C) diaphysis
D) articular cartilage |
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Definition
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Term
The term diploë refers to the ________.
A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone
B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue
C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
D) two types of marrow found within most bones |
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Definition
C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones |
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Term
What causes osteoporosis?
A) poor posture
B) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.
C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean
D) abnormal PTH receptors
|
|
Definition
| B) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries. |
|
|
Term
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?
A) lacunae
B) Haversian system
C) epiphyseal plate
D) epiphyseal line
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?
A) parathyroid hormone
B) calcium
C) growth hormone
D) thyroid hormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) support
B) storage of minerals
C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D) communication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the structural unit of compact bone?
A) osseous matrix
B) spongy bone
C) lamellar bone
D) the osteon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.
A) cartilage and compact bone
B) marrow and osteons
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts
D) chondrocytes and osteocytes |
|
Definition
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
|
|
Term
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.
A) Volkmann's canals
B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
D) the struts of bone known as spicules |
|
Definition
C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers |
|
|
Term
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.
A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae
B) adipose tissue and nerve fibers
C) yellow marrow and spicules
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers |
|
Definition
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers |
|
|
Term
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) epiphyseal plate closure
C) appositional growth
D) concentric growth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
A) osteoclast
B) osteocyte
C) osteoblast
D) stem cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) calcitonin
B) thyroxine
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is absolutely required for bone growth or healing from a fracture?
A) dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D
B) osteocytes
C) osteoclasts
D) osteoblasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wolff's law is concerned with ________.
A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age
B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
C) the function of bone being dependent on shape
D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts |
|
Definition
B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it |
|
|
Term
Osteomyelitis is ________.
A) partially due to insufficient dietary calcium
B) literally known as "soft bones"
C) due to pus-forming bacteria
D) caused by altered vitamin D metabolism |
|
Definition
C) due to pus-forming bacteria |
|
|
Term
Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?
A) growth at the epiphyseal plate
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
C) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger
D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage |
|
Definition
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage |
|
|
Term
The structural unit of spongy bone is called ________.
A) osteons
B) lamellar bone
C) trabeculae
D) osseous lamellae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B) bone destruction to liberate calcium
C) bone formation
D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.
A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes
D) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage |
|
Definition
A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates |
|
|
Term
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?
A) thyroid hormone
B) somatomedins
C) growth hormone
D) prolactin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood cell formation is called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A central (Haversian) canal may contain arteries, veins, capillaries, lymph vessels, and ________ fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term describes in growth in the diameter of long bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are multinucleated cells that destroy bone called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture. |
|
Definition
| Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and remodeling. |
|
|
Term
| What is found in a Haversian canal? |
|
Definition
| Blood vessels and nerve fibers. |
|
|
Term
| Several hormones control the remodeling of bones. Which two respond to changing blood calcium levels? |
|
Definition
| PTH and calcitonin are the major determinants of whether and when remodeling will occur in response to changing blood calcium. |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of bony tissue is called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bones appear to be lifeless structures. Does bone material renew itself? |
|
Definition
| Bone only appears lifeless in gross anatomy. Microscopically, bone is full of cells and blood vessels that maintain and renew bone tissue. Approximately 5% to 7% of our bone mass is recycled each week. Up to 0.5 g of calcium may enter or leave the bones each day, depending on the negative feedback hormonal mechanism and gravitational forces. |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones? |
|
Definition
| Diaphyseal bone is composed almost entirely of compact bone (except in irregular and short bones), while the epiphyses are composed almost entirely of spongy bone. The epiphyses are on the ends of the bone; the diaphysis is the "shank" of the bone. The diaphysis in long bones has a large medullary cavity, whereas the epiphyses do not. |
|
|
Term
| Describe how oxygen is carried from outside a bone to an individual osteocyte. |
|
Definition
| Blood vessels enter through the periosteum into a perforating canal. The vessel may follow along the axis of the bone through a central canal. Osteocytes have long, almost dendritic-like extensions or arms that reach out through tiny holes called canaliculi. The canaliculi connect one cell to another and to the central canal. Oxygen leaves the blood vessel in the central canal and travels through the canaliculi from cell to cell until it reaches the cell in question. |
|
|
Term
| If your doctor notices a marked decrease in calcium ion levels in your blood, what gland might he suspect is not functioning properly and why? |
|
Definition
| The parathyroid gland normally responds to low calcium ion levels in the blood and releases PTH, which mobilizes osteoclasts to step up bone destruction, releasing more calcium into the bloodstream. Persistent low blood calcium level therefore implies insufficient PTH, suggesting injury or failure of the parathyroid glands. |
|
|
Term
| While on spring break from college, June fell on the pavement and broke her wrist. At the emergency room, a resident placed a cast on her wrist after manipulating the bones. It seemed to heal within a few months. Now, decades later she has noticed lumps in the area where the break happened and she has been complaining of pain. What could be causing the lumps and the pain? |
|
Definition
| June probably has "bone spurs," which are abnormal projections from a bone due to bone overgrowth. |
|
|
Term
| Alice and James adopted a 3-year-old child from a developing country. They noticed that her legs were bowed and there were some deformities in her cranial and pelvic bones. They brought her to a physician for a diagnosis. What was the diagnosis, and what was the treatment for the disorder? |
|
Definition
| The child most likely has rickets, a condition caused by poor diet, especially one deficient in vitamin D. The parents were told to increase her intake of calcium and vitamin D and to make sure that she gets some sunshine every day. |
|
|
Term
| Emily, a 64-year-old formerly obese woman who successfully lost over 100 pounds, was brought to the hospital suffering pain in her legs, and an X- ray revealed that she had a simple fracture in her right femur and a crack in her left tibia. Other tests revealed that her bones were brittle and porous. What might have happened to Emily, and what advice would she have been given by the physician? |
|
Definition
| Emily has osteoporosis, a debilitating bone disease that strikes more women than men after age 45-50. The bones become weak and brittle due to osteoclast out pacing of osteoblast in the bone. Emily has been told that she needs to take supplements of Ca, Vitamin D, and do weight bearing exercise. |
|
|
Term
| People who live in the north should take supplemental calcium with vitamin D. Explain why. |
|
Definition
| Vitamin D is manufactured by the skin using sunlight and is needed for absorption of dietary calcium. People who live in the north where the winter months are severe may need supplemental vitamin D because of the decreased amount of sunlight exposure. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Articular cartilage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Joint (synovial) cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Synovial membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Joint found only in the skull
A) Suture
B) Gomphosis
C) Symphysis
D) Syndesmosis
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tooth in socket
A) Suture
B) Gomphosis
C) Symphysis
D) Syndesmosis
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones united by hyaline cartilage
A) Suture
B) Gomphosis
C) Symphysis
D) Synchondroses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones united by fibrocartilage
A) Suture
B) Gomphosis
C) Symphysis
D) Syndesmosis
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to help direct movement and restrict undesirable movement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Synovial fluid contains phagocytic cells that protect the cavity from invasion by microbes or other debris. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
A) syndesmosis
B) suture
C) synchondrosis
D) gomphosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.
A) attach tendons
B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
D) form the synovial membrane |
|
Definition
C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints |
|
|
Term
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) symphysis
D) gomphosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) symphysis
B) synchondrosis
C) pivot
D) syndesmosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
A) menisci
B) bursae
C) ligaments
D) tendons
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
A) amphiarthroses
B) synarthroses
C) diarthroses
D) synovial joints |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
A) Syndesmoses
B) Sutures
C) Synchondroses
D) Gomphoses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
B) All synovial joints are freely movable.
C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present. |
|
Definition
B) All synovial joints are freely movable. |
|
|
Term
Synarthrotic joints ________.
A) are found only in adults
B) are cartilaginous joints
C) permit essentially no movement
D) have large joint cavities |
|
Definition
C) permit essentially no movement |
|
|
Term
Fibrous joints are classified as ________.
A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket
B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses |
|
Definition
D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses |
|
|
Term
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.
A) hyaline cartilage
B) synovial membranes
C) fibrocartilage
D) tendon sheaths |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility
B) interphalangeal joints
C) joints that permit angular movements
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones |
|
Definition
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones |
|
|
Term
Tendon sheaths ________.
A) act as friction-reducing structures
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) are extensions of periosteum
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle |
|
Definition
A) act as friction-reducing structures |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?
A) joint cavity
B) tendon sheath
C) articular cartilage
D) articular capsule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?
A) structure and shape of the articulating bone
B) arrangement and tension of the muscles
C) strength and tension of joint ligaments
D) number of bones in the joint |
|
Definition
D) number of bones in the joint |
|
|
Term
| Fluid-filled fibrous sacs lined with a synovial membrane and occurring where ligaments, muscles, and tendons rub together are called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is classified by material as a ________ joint. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Using the functional classification, a freely movable joint would be called a ________ joint. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Synovial joints have five major features. What are they? |
|
Definition
| articular cartilage, a joint cavity, an articular capsule, synovial fluid, and reinforcing ligaments |
|
|
Term
| Often people who exercise prudently seem to have fewer bouts with osteoarthritis. Will exercise prevent arthritis? If so, how? |
|
Definition
| Exercise does not prevent arthritis, but lessens it by strengthening muscles that in turn support and stabilize joints. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe a typical synovial joint |
|
Definition
| The ends of each bone are covered with hyaline cartilage that is continuous with the synovial membrane enclosing the joint. Synovial fluid fills the space between the articular cartilage. Outside the synovial membrane there is a very tough, fibrous capsule that prevents the synovial membrane from bulging out as pressure is applied to the ends of the bones. |
|
|
Term
| After reading a medical report, you learn that a 45-year-old female has the following symptoms: inflammation of synovial membranes, accumulation of synovial fluid, pain and tenderness about the joints, pannus formation, and some immobility at certain joints. On the basis of these symptoms, what would the patient probably have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is muscle tone the most important stabilizing factor for most joints? |
|
Definition
| The shapes of the articular surfaces may hinder rather than help joint stability. Ligaments can stretch and reduce stability. Muscle tendons are kept taut at all times by the tone of their muscle. |
|
|
Term
| Steven, a football player, complained of severe pain and the inability to use his right arm and shoulder after having been tackled during a game. What would you guess might be his problem? |
|
Definition
He might have suffered a shoulder dislocation since the shoulder joint has sacrificed stability for flexibility. |
|
|
Term
| Mary has been suffering from a "bad knee" for several months. She is a tennis player who often slides in to attack a ball; she is an aerobic devotee and a jogger. She visited an orthopedic surgeon last week who told her that he would "like to have a look at her knee joint." He also told her that her symptoms indicated damage to the meniscus, and it might have to be removed. What will the doctor do to see the joint, and if the meniscus is removed will Mary be able to play tennis again? |
|
Definition
| The doctor will perform arthroscopic surgery on Mary in order to view the interior of the joint. If she has severely damaged the meniscus, it can be removed with little impairment to the knee except some loss in stability. However, over the long term, the lack of weight distribution by the missing meniscus increases the likelihood of osteoarthritis in her knee. Mary might consider taking up swimming instead. |
|
|
Term
| Farhad begins typing his term paper on his new computer early one morning. After 8 hours of typing, he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore. The next morning, Farhad begins to finish his paper, but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night. What is wrong? |
|
Definition
| Farhad is suffering from tendonitis. If he continues to use the keyboard incorrectly, the tendonitis could develop into the more serious condition called carpal tunnel syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| Probenecid inhibits the active resorption of uric acid in the kidney, which leads to increased urinary excretion of uric acid. Explain why this drug would be useful in treating gout. |
|
Definition
| Uric acid, a normal waste product of nucleic acid metabolism, is ordinarily excreted in urine without any problem. However, when blood levels of uric acid rise excessively, it may be deposited as needle-shaped urate crystals in the soft tissue of joints. An inflammatory response follows, which leads to gout. By lowering the uric acid level, no crystals form, and inflammation subsides. |
|
|
Term
| Maggie is a 28-year-old Caucasian woman who has newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. She complains of painful, stiff hands and feet, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent low-grade fever. She asks the nurse if she is going to be "crippled." How might the nurse explain the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, systemic, and inflammatory disorder. RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own tissue. RA begins with inflammation of the synovial membrane of the affected joints. Fluid accumulates, causing joint swelling. The nurse should explain that RA is a chronic crippling disease with joint stiffening (ankylosis) resulting in restriction of joint movement and extreme pain. |
|
|
Term
| Susan was bitten by a deer tick and now complains of joint pain, flu-like symptoms, and difficulty thinking. What might be her diagnosis and the treatment required to alleviate her symptoms? |
|
Definition
| She probably has contracted Lyme disease, which is treated with antibiotics. |
|
|
Term
The saying "beauty is only skin deep" is only pertinent to the __________ layer, which is outwardly visible.
a) epidermal
b) dermal
c) hypodermal
d) integumentary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The principal role of melanin is to ______.
a) give one that "healthy tan look"
b) keep the body cool
c) provide a waterproof layer
d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation |
|
Definition
| d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation |
|
|
Term
The principle role of keratin is to _______.
a) give one that "healthy tan look"
b) keep the body cool
c) provide a waterproof layer
d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation |
|
Definition
| c) provide a waterproof layer |
|
|
Term
The touch sensors of the epidermis are the__________.
a) keratinocytes
b) tactile cells
c) epidermal dendritic cells
d) melanocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient taking a drug that inhibits cell division (such as certain chemotherapy drugs) would expect which layer of the epidermis to be most noticeably affected?
a) Stratum corneum
b) Stratum lucidum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum basale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The principle tissue found in the dermal layer is ________.
a) dense irregular connective tissue
b) stratified squamous epithelium
c) dense regular connective tissue
d) areolar connective tissue |
|
Definition
| a) dense irregular connective tissue |
|
|
Term
The most important role of the eccrine sweat gland is ___________.
a) milk production
b) stress-induced sweating
c) body temperature regulation
d) earwax production |
|
Definition
| c) body temperature regulation |
|
|
Term
One critical function of sebum, in addition to roles in waterproofing and skin softening, is that it provides protection against ___________.
a) overexposure to the sun
b) overheating
c) harmful bacteria
d) abrasions or cuts to the skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is one major function of arrector pili muscle contraction that is particularly important in nonhuman mammals?
a) The arrector pili muscle contracts to allow for hair growth
b) The arrector pili muscle contracts to shed dead hairs
c) The arrector pili muscle contracts to alarm an approaching predator
d) All of the above are true |
|
Definition
| c) The arrector pili muscle contracts to alarm an approaching predator |
|
|
Term
Loss of one's skin, such as with severe burns, leads to an increased risk of ________.
a) bacterial infection
b) inadequate body temperature maintenance
c) dehydration
d) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The skin plays a role in the manufacture of vitamin ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of skin cancer is the most dangerous?
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) All are equally dangerous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a type of cartilage?
a) hyaline
b) elastic
c) fibrocartilage
d) dense regular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The terms long, short, flat, and irregular are used to classify bones based on their _______.
a) tissue content
b) function
c) shape
d) weight |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important characteristic for designating a bone as a long bone is ________.
a) its elongated shape
b) its total length
c) its length relative to other bones
d) its location in the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following functions of the skeletal system would be considered a metabolic function?
a) protection
b) support
c) mineral storage
d) movement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Depressions on bones include ______.
a) fossae
b) trochanters
c) tubercles
d) tuberosities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An example of a projection on a bone that is a site of muscle or ligament attachment is a _______.
a) meatus
b) head
c) condyle
d) trochanter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a type of bone cell?
a) osteoblast
b) osteoclast
c) osteocyte
d) osteoclasp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An adult male is donating red bone marrow to determine is he is a match to a leukemia patient. Most likely, the doctor will collect the bone marrow from his _______.
a) femur diaphysis
b) humerus diaphysis
c) sternum
d) skull |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The end of a long bone is the _______.
a) medullary cavity
b) diaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) periosteum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A group of concentric rings of bone matrix comprising the function unit of long bones, is called a(n) _____.
a) lamella
b) osteon
c) pillar system
d) Sharpey's system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The principal component of bone that contributes to its hardness is __________.
a) hydroxyapatite
b) collagen
c) osteoid
d) organic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone?
a) osteoblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) chondroblasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would long bone growth look like in an individual whose cartilage in the epiphyseal disc stopped dividing?
a) the long bones would grow excessively
b) the long bones would cease growth in length
c) the long bones would cease growth in width
d) the long bones would appear normal |
|
Definition
| b) the long bones would cease growth in length |
|
|
Term
Adding new bony matrix to injury sites is known as _______.
a) bone sizing
b) bone deposition
c) bone resorption
d) bone addition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary metabolic signal that triggers bone deposition is ______.
a) vitamin D
b) phosphate
c) hydroxyapatite
d) vitamin A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two hormones work in opposition to control homeostatic blood levels of calcium via bone remodeling?
a) Thyroid hormone and estrogen
b) Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
c) Calcitonin and estrogen
d) Parathyroid hormone and estrogen |
|
Definition
| b) Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin |
|
|
Term
In a patient whose parathyroid glands have been removed, you would expect that person's blood calcium levels to ______.
a) decrease
b) increase
c) stay the same
d) increase twofold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Calcium's importance to the body is primarily ________.
a) to strengthen bone
b) to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation)
c) to whiten our teeth
d) both a and c |
|
Definition
| b) to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation) |
|
|
Term
A local coroner determined that the unidentified skeleton found last week was that of a weight lifter because the muscle attachment sites were much thicker than in a normal person. This phenomenon is known as _______.
a) calcitonin metabolism
b) the weightlifter law
c) bone resorption
d) Wolff's law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The site where two or more bones meet is call a(n) _____.
a) cartilage connection site
b) alignment site
c) auriculation site
d) articulation site |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following correctly lists the three structural type of joints?
a) bony, cartilaginous, immovable
b) synarthotic, diarthotic, amphiarthotic
c) fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
d) suture, syndemoses, gomphoses |
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Definition
| c) fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial |
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Term
Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull?
a) suture
b) ball and socket
c) hinge
d) symphysis |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ the ligament fibers of the syndesmosis, the _____ the degree of movement.
a) longer; greater
b) longer; smaller
c) shorter; greater
d) wider; smaller |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following describes the two types of cartilaginous joints?
a) syndesmosis and gomphosis
b) synchondrosis and symphysis
c) ball and socket and hinge
d) symphysis and syndesmosis |
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Definition
| b) synchondrosis and symphysis |
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Term
Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?
a) symphysis
b) ball and socket
c) gomphosis
d) synchondrosis |
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Definition
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Term
When someone has "slipped a disc" of their vertebral column, which type of joint have they disrupted?
a) synchondrosis
b) suture
c) symphysis
d) the connections between the vertebrae are not examples of joints |
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Definition
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Term
All synovial joints are ______.
a) diarthotic
b) amphiarthotic
c) synarthotic
d) none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?
a) articular cartilage
b) synovial cavity
c) articular capsule
d) synovial membrane |
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Definition
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Term
Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of _____.
a) tendons
b) fatty pads
c) bursae
d) fibrous capsules |
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Definition
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Term
The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______.
a) nonaxial movement
b) uniaxial movement
c) biaxial movement
d) multiaxial movement |
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Definition
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Term
The most common joint injuries include:
a) sprains
b) dislocations
c) cartilage injuries
d) both a and b |
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Definition
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Term
The most common form of chronic arthritis is ______.
a) osteoarthritis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) gouty arthritis
d) subluxation |
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Definition
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