Term
The get-well freq will be the _____. What requirement is there for the get well freq? |
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Definition
check-in freq/ clear UHF radio (9,3.6.3) |
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Term
Airborne C2 will notify the CAOC/JICO cell if a loss of link connectivity occurs for greater than _____ |
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Definition
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Term
What is the primary means for passing a task (I,t,s)? Secondary? |
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Definition
JTIDS/ secure, jam-resistant comm (10,3.7.6) |
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Term
What happens when Chattermark procedures are directed? |
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Definition
Requesting agency will change from the primary to the secondary freq. The owning C2 will initiate a roll call on the new frequency, and simulcast on both freqs until all assets answered the roll call on the new frequency. If unable communications on the Chattermark freq, the get well freq for all msns is the check-in freq. (12, 3.11.1) |
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Term
What will flights give the C2 agency upon check-in? |
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Definition
Call sign, Posit off of b/e, authentication (if required), deviations or aborts affecting msn accomplishment, Wpns loadout (13, 4.1.2.1) |
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Term
Aircraft must check-in with their C2 control agency NLT ___ from them assigned CAP or hold point |
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Definition
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Term
The primary control agency for the COA is the ____, secondary is ____ |
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Definition
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Term
AR will take place block ______. A/C will transit to AR at ____K and return to their assigned CAP/Hold point at ___K. |
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Definition
20-24K / 20,25 (13,4.1.3) |
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Term
Aircraft will use one of the following return profiles for RTB. High= FL____ and Low = ____. |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ permits air to surface fires without further coord with the establishing hq |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ permits air to surface as well as surface to surface indirect fires w/o further coord with the establishing hq |
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Definition
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Term
______ is the term used to describe a kill box that is in effect |
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Definition
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Term
____ is the term used to describe a portion or portions of a kill box that are open to fires w/o further coord or deconfliction |
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Definition
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Term
____ is the term used to describe a kill box that has aircraft flying in the space defined |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is the term used to describe a kill box that is not active. All portions of the kill box are open to fires unless identified as closed. |
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Definition
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Term
____ is the term used to describe a portion or portions of an established kill box in which fires or effects of fires are not allowed w/o further coord |
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Definition
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Term
____ is the term used to describe a kb that is no longer in effect |
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Definition
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Term
The min operating alt is ___ w/n the COA. What about beyond the fscl? |
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Definition
10,000 ft AGL, no restrictions (15,4.1.7.1) |
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Term
The coord alt is _____. Rotary will stay at or below ____, fixed wing will stay at or above ____ |
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Definition
3000 ft AGL, 3000-rotators, 3500 AGL-fixed wing (15,4.1.7.2) |
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Term
Who approves fixed wing a/c going below 3500 ft AGL? |
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Definition
Appropriate C2 but C2 must receive clearance from the CAOC prior to authorizing it (14,4.1.7.2.1) |
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Term
In what situations can rotary wing ascend higher than 3000 ft agl? |
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Definition
Clearance from C2 (caoc approval), self defense (to a threat) but must descend when deemed safe (15,4.1.7.2.2) |
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Term
RPA will operate from ______AGL to _______ AGL. |
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Definition
11000 ft // 17000 ft AGL (16,4.1.7.3) |
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Term
Transition alt for the COA is _____. A/C above this will use _____ for their altimeter setting |
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Definition
18000 ft AGL, 29.92 (16,4.1.7.4) |
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Term
Min alt between RPA units will be ____. Min sep between fixed wing assets will be ____. Min separation between fixed wing and rpa is _____. HVAA will be separated by ___ as the airspace allows. |
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Definition
500 ft/ 1000 ft vert, 10NM laterally/ 1000 ft vertically/ 2000 ft vert or 20 NM laterally (16,4.1.7.5) |
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Term
All a/c must maintain _____ from tanker assets until cleared into the tanker orbit. W/n the tanker cell, tanker assets will maintain ___ vert separation |
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Definition
2000 ft vert, 20 NM lateral separation/ 500 ft (16,4.1.7.6) |
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Term
Unless otherwise briefed, DCA assets will maintain an alt block of ___ while operating at their assigned CAP point |
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Definition
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Term
XSEAD will maintain an alt block of ______ while operating at their CAP point. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the primary and secondary means of authentication? |
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Definition
1553//RAMROD (16, 4.1.10) |
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Term
The ____ is the only approval agency for ROZs. Standard ROZ size is ____ radius |
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Definition
Airspace cell at the CAOC, 1.5NM (17,4.1.12) |
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Term
A ____ is an attack or other use of force by a foreign force or terrorist unit. |
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Definition
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Term
A ____ is the threat of imminent use of force by a foreign force or terrorist unit. |
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Definition
Hostile intent (19,5.2.1.1) |
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Term
The determination of whether the ________ will be based on an assessment of all facts and circumstances known to US forces at the time and may be made at any level. |
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Definition
Imminent use of force (19,5.2.4) |
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Term
What are the four guidelines apply to the principles of self defense |
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Definition
De-escalation, necessity, proportionality and pursuit (20, 5.2.1.3) |
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Term
_____ is a reasonable certainty that the object of attack is a legitimate military target IAW the ROE |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three means for PID? |
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Definition
VID, EID, POO+Spades (21, 5.3.1) |
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Term
____ means no unintended casualties will be inflicted; unintended damage will only be superficial |
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Definition
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Term
___ means no unintended casualties will be inflicted; unintended damage may cause moderate to significant damage to the surrounding area |
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Definition
CDE medium (19,5.2.7.1.2) |
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Term
___ means loss of life to non-combatants is probable. Significant damage to a structure of religious worship or school is probable. |
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Definition
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Term
____ is defined as damage or contamination of individuals or property as a result of a nuclear, biological, chemical or toxic industrial materials release occuring incidental to mil ops. |
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Definition
COE (Consequence of execution) (19,5.2.8) |
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Term
_____-No release of chem, biological or radiological elements will result |
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Definition
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Term
____- Minor release of chem, biological or radiological elements is probable in an isolated environment which will result in no civilian casualties |
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Definition
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Term
_____- release of chem, biological or radiological elements is probable in a populated area which will result in less than 50 civilian casualties |
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Definition
COE medium (20,5.2.8.1.3) |
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Term
____-release of chem, biological or radiological elements is probable in a highly populated environment which will result in 50 or more civilian casualties |
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Definition
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Term
What is a show of force's intent? |
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Definition
an operation designed to demonstrate US resolve that involve s increased visibility of US deployed forces in an attempt to defuse a specific situation that if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to US interests or national objectives (20, 5.2.1.4) |
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Term
What is a show of presence's intent? What are the requirements for one? |
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Definition
non-threatening low-level flights that ensure ground personnel are keenly aware of aircraft in the area. JTAC control and between 6-9K (20,5.2.10) |
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Term
Warning shots will only be performed with _______ |
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Definition
sovereign approval (20,5.2.1.4) |
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Term
What are the maritime operations terms for the following: Show of force, show of presence, warning shot? |
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Definition
Thump//Fly-by//Pepper (20, 5.2.1.4) |
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Term
Prior to hostilities commencing, A/C will remain ____ NM from the enemy country border at all times |
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Definition
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Term
_____-a tactical task or obstacle effect to break apart an enemy's formation, tempo, interrupt the enemy's timetable, or cause premature commitment of enemy forces. Attack is temporary in nature |
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Definition
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Term
____- a tactical task to render enemy personnel or material incapable of interfering with a particular operation. This may be designed to render safe mines, bombs, and booy traps |
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Definition
Neutralize (22,5.3.4.4.2) |
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Term
_____-a tactical task to render a target so damaged that it cannot function as intended nor be restored to a usable condition |
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Definition
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Term
_____-fire only at tgts not identified as friendly |
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Definition
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Term
____-fire only at tgts identified as hostile |
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Definition
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Term
____- fire only in self defense or in response to a formal order |
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Definition
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Term
T/F border crossing is authorized prior to the commencement of hostilities. |
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Definition
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Term
A/C must remain ___ from the enemy country border at all times |
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Definition
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Term
Who is the approval authority for requests to cross the enemy country border prior to the commencment of hostilities? |
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Definition
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Term
What is included in a SEAD 5-line? |
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Definition
Threat, Coords, Elevation, Solution Accuracy, Remarks (27,5.4.4.4) |
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Term
Primary C2 authority is the _____ |
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Definition
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Term
What is type 1 CAS control? |
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Definition
JTAC must be in position to visually acquire the attacking a/c and the tgt for each attack. (31,6.3.2.1.1) |
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Term
What is type 2 CAS control? |
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Definition
JTAC is unable to visually acquire the attacking a/c at wpns release or JTAC is unable to visually acquire the tgt prior to wpns release. (31,6.3.2.1.2) |
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Term
What is type 3 CAS control? |
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Definition
JTAC is unable to visually acquire attacking a/c at wpns release, JTAC is unable to visually acquire the tgt or the attacking a/c is unable to acquire the tgt prior to wpns release. (31,6,3,2,1,3) |
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Term
Immediate Air requests are submitted using which form? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the XINT priorities? |
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Definition
1. WMD delivery systems and wheads 2. WMD transport and transload 3. Pol/Mil leadership 4. Mobile SAMS and AAA 5. 1st and 2nd echelon ground forces (a.tanks b. APC's c. Surface re-supply vessels d. Field artillery) (32,6.4.1.2) |
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Term
What ref system will be used for all operations? |
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Definition
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Term
JSTARS will survey downed pilot area and routes IAW _______ |
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Definition
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