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SPM--Unit 2--Week 10--bone fractures
N/A
373
Medical
Graduate
11/04/2010

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Nearly all of calcium in the body is stored in what organ?
Definition
bones
Term
What is the most important hormone affecting Ca2+ concentration in blood in the adult?
Definition

ParaThyroid Horomone (PTH)

 

(it increases Ca2+ in blood by releasing it from bone, increasing absorption in the intestine, & preventing the kidneys from excreting it) 

 

(compare to calcitonin, which is very important in Ca2+ regulation in children, but not very important in adults)

Term
What 2 hormones tend to break bone down & increase Ca2+ serum concentration?
Definition

ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)

 

calcitriol (the hormonally active form of vitamin D)

Term
What hormone tends to decrease serum Ca2+ concentration and build up bone?
Definition
calcitonin
Term

Do the following move Ca2+ from serum to bone, or from bone to serum?

 

ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)

calcitonin

calcitriol

Definition

ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH): Ca2+ from bone to serum

 

calcitriol: Ca2+ from bone to serum

 

calcitonin: Ca2+ from serum to bone

 

 

Term
As serum Ca2+ goes up, _____  (calcitonin/parathyroid hormone) production increases, and _________  (calcitonin/parathyroid hormone) production decreases. 
Definition

calcitonin increases

 

PTH (ParaThyroid Hormone) decreases

 

 

(mnemonic:  calciTONin TONEs down Ca2+ levels in the blood)

Term
_______ may complex with serum Ca2+, lowering serum Ca2+ concentration, and causing resorption of Ca2+ from bone.
Definition
phosphate
Term

2/3 of bone vasculature consists of vessels located in _________ and vessels that arise from those

 

1/3 of bone vasculature consists of vessels located in  __________ and vessels that arise from those

Definition

2/3 of bone vasculature is from the medullary canal of the bone

 

1/3 of bone vasculature is in the periosteum

Term

A rod is placed in the medullary canal to stabilize the bone.  How could this negatively affect the health of the bone?

 

 

Definition
2/3 of bone vasculature is in medullary canal; rod could interfere with bone vasculature
Term
What are 3 risks of using an external plate to stabilize a bone fracture?
Definition

1. a plate requires a large opening, which could lead to infection

 

2. plate could destroy bone vasculature in the periosteum (1/3 of bone vasculature is in the periosteum)

 

3. plate could destroy bone stem cells in the periosteum

Term
When allowing a bone to heal, do you want to shield it from ALL stress? Why or why not?
Definition
No, because the bone will heal weakly if it's never stressed.
(But too much stress or movement will prevent the bone from healing)
Term
What is an osteoconductive scaffold?
Definition

a scaffold on which bone can grow

 

(compared to an osteoinductive scaffold, which stimulates bone to grow)

Term
What is an osteoinductive scaffold?
Definition
a scaffold that stimulates bone to grow (ex., autograft bone transplants are osteoinductive & osteoconductive, while allograft bone transplants are only osteoconductive)
Term
What is autograft vs. allograft?
Definition
an autograft is a transplant from one part of the self to another part of the self
an allograft is a transplant from one person (or corpse) to another person
Term
How many pins do you need (at a minimum) if using external fixation to stabilize a bone fracture?
Definition
at least 4: 2 above the fracture and 2 below (otherwise, you'll get torquing)
Term
What does Bone Morphogenic Protein (BMP) do?
Definition
increases bone growth
Term
What are two concerns about using Bone Morphogenic Protein (BMP) to increase bone growth?
Definition
1. no one is sure how to dose (it's quickly excreted; a single dose seems to work fine)
2. we don't know if it can cause bone cancer)
Term
Are allograft bone transplants osteoconductive? Osteoinductive?  Why or why not?
Definition

They're osteoconductive--bone can grow on them

 

they're not osteoinductive.  They don't induce bone growth because they're sterilized, and the sterilization ruins ability to induce bone growth

Term
Are autoograft bone transplants osteoconductive? Osteoinductive? 
Definition

yes, bone can grow on them & they can induce bone growth

 

(Unlike allograft bone transplants, autograft transplants are not sterilized before being implanted.  Sterilization destroys the bone's ability to induce bone growth.)

Term
Where are autograft bone transplants most often harvested?
Definition
iliac crest of the pelvis
Term

Put the 5 stages of bone fracture healing in order? 

Callus formation

Fracture & inflammatory phase

Granulation tissue formation

Lamellar bone deposition

Remodeling

Definition

1. Fracture & inflammatory phase

 

2. formation of granulation tissue (the perfused, fibrous connective tissue that replaces a fibrin clot in healing wounds.)


3. Callus formation (Periosteal cells near the fracture and fibroblasts within granulation tissue become chondroblasts & form cartilage to bridge the gap of the fracture—the callus.  Woven bone is deposited in the callus)


4. Lamellar bone deposition (replace woven bone with spongy lamellar bone)

 

5. Remodeling (osteoclasts gradually eat up spongy lamellar bone in places that would normally have compact bone & replace it with compact lamellar bone)

Term
What are some factors that will decrease the ability of a bone fracture to heal?
Definition

Advanced age (>40 yo)

Comorbidities (ex., diabetes)

 

Drugs, such as

NSAIDs (given to people whose bone tends to overgrow after injury)

corticosteroids

 

smoking

poor nutrition

open fracture with poor blood supply
multiple injuries

infection

Term
What drug can you give someone to increase blood flow to bone?
Definition

nothing. Bone vessels are typically 100% open, so you can't open them any further.

 

(in fact, if you give a vasodilator, you'll probably dilate vessels in the skin and divert blood away from the bones)

Term
What would happen if you gave a vasodilator, such as histamine, to someone to increase blood flow to their bones?
Definition
the bone arterioles wouldn't open any further because they're typically 100% open. Instead, skin arterioles would open, diverting blood away from the bone.
Term
What would happen if you give Norepinephrine (which increases BP by vasoconstricting blood vessels) to someone to increase blood flow to their bones?
Definition
The vasoconstrictor would close bone arterioles, which decreases flow to bone (typically bone vessels are open 100%, but they can be constricted)
Term
What cells synthesize most of the collagen in the body?
Definition
fibroblasts
Term
How many kinds of peptide chains are in collagen?
Definition
two: alpha-1 & alpha2
Term
Collagen is made of ______ chains & ________ chains
Definition
alpha-1
alpha-2
Term
Collagen alpha chains consist of repeats of __ (#) amino acids
Definition

3

 

(glycine, proline, lysine)

Term

Alpha chains (the building blocks of collagen) consist of repeats of 3 amino acids: proline, lysine, and ______

 

What is the third amino acid, and why is only that amino acid appropriate for that spot in the chain?

 

 

Definition

glycine 

 

Every 3rd amino acid of each strand is in the center of the triple helix—only glycine (no side chain; just a hydrogen) fits

Term
Alpha chains (building blocks of collagen) mostly consist of triple repeats of _______, _________, and __________
Definition
glycine
proline
lysine
Term
What is the chemical name for vitamin C?
Definition
ascorbate or ascorbic acid
Term
What happens to collagen if there is not sufficient vitamin C?
Definition

hydroxylated proline & lysine will be de-activated if their iron is oxidized from Fe2+ to Fe3+ (happens if the hydroxylation reaction doesn’t complete properly)

 

Hydroxylated lysine may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine, which react with lysine amino acids on other alpha chains to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple helix, so without vitamin C, there are fewer cross-linkages and collagen is weaker. 

Term
What's the first thing that happens to proline & lysine in the endoplasmic reticulum of a fibroblast after the alpha chain (building block of collagen) is assembled?
Definition

they are hydroxylated (-OH is added)

 

Hydroxylated lysine may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine, which react with lysine amino acids on other alpha chains to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple helix 

Term
Hydroxylated lysine in an alpha chain (building block of collagen) may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine. Why is that important?
Definition
Aldehyde and allysine react with lysine on another alpha chain to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple-helix
Term
Describe procallagen. How is it different form collagen?
Definition
procallagen is the collagen precursor excreted by fibroblasts
like collagen, procallegen is a triple helix of alpha chains
unlike collagen, procallagen has some non-triple-helix regions at either end (N-terminus & C-terminus)
Term
A deficiency in what essential nutrient will weaken collagen by decreasing the ability of alpha chains to form cross-linkages? 
Definition
vitamin C (ascorbic acid; ascorbate)
Term
Fibroblasts secrete _________, a precursor of collagen, into the extracellular matrix
Definition
procallagen
Term
Enzymes called ________ cleave most of the non-helical bits off the ends of procllagen, forming _________
Definition

Procallagen peptidases

 

tropocollagen

Term
Why do fibroblasts excrete procollagen, not tropocollagen?
Definition
tropocollagen tends to spontaneously aggregate into collagen fibrils
procollagen has non-helical bits at either end that prevent it from spontaneously aggregating.
If tropocollagen were formed within the fibroblast, fibril formation would interfere with actions of cell
Term
Tropocollagen tends to spontaneously:
Definition
aggregate into collagen fibrils
Term
A patient bruises easily, has corkscrew hairs, and has bleeding gums. What are these symptoms of?
Definition

scurvy

 

(Lack of vitamin C-->low hydroxylation of lysine-->lack of formation of cross-linkages within collagen-->weak collagen)

Term
Lack of vitamin C-->low hydroxylation of lysine-->lack of formation of cross-linkages within collagen-->weak collagen--> _______(disease)
Definition
scurvy
Term
Osteogenesis imperfecta is a defect in genes encoding for ______________________________ (or genes encoding for proteins to process _______________________________)
Definition
alpha 1 or alpha 2 chains (building blocks of collagen)
Term
Bone consists primarily of __________ "rebar" with _________ "cement"
Definition

collagen (specifically, type 1 collagen)

 

hydroxyapatite crystals

Term
Symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta:
Definition
thin, fragile bones
loose joints
scoliosis
kyphosis
dentinogenesis imperfect
blue sclerae
aortic root & valve disease
mitral valve disease
deafness (because bones of inner ear break)
Term
Why do people with osteogenesis imperfecta have blue sclera?
Definition
sclera is thin; can see pigment underneath
Term
Why may people with osteogeneis imperfecta go deaf?
Definition
because bones of the inner ear may break
Term
Using our knowledge of type I collagen structure, how much “healthy type I collagen” is produced in an individual with a heterozygous point mutation in COL1A1?
Definition

75% of collagen is bad

 

COL1A1 is the gene for alpha-1 chains

COL1A2 is the gene for alpha-2 chains

 

Type I collagen is made of 2 alpha-1 chains & 1 alpha-2 chain.

 

Possible makeup of collagen in this person (where A1 is good alpha-1 chains & a1 is bad alpha-1 chains): 

P(A1a1A2) = 0.5*0.5*1 = 0.25

P(a1A1A2) = 0.5 *0.5*1=0.25

P(a1a1A2) = 0.5 *0.5 *1 = 0.25

P(A1A1A2) = 0.5 * 0.5 * 1 = 0.25 (good collagen—no problems with alpha-1)

 

3/4 of type I collagen is bad

Term
Type 1 collagen is made of how many of what kind of chains?
Definition
two alpha-1 chains
one alpha-2 chain
Term
symptoms of Classic Ehlers-Danlos
Definition
Joint hypermobility Skin elasticity Skin fragility joint dislocations common Spontaneous swan-necking of fingers Severe hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints Hyperflexion of the wrist
Term
What is the most dangerous type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Definition

vascular

 

mutation in type III collagen alpha chains (found in skin & vessels) high risk of arterial ruptures

Term
multipotent stem cells found in embryonic mesenchyme (during embryonic development)in cellular layer of periosteum in endosteum, and within Haversian system
Definition
Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells)
Term
a thin layer of tissue that lines the medullary cavity (bone marrow) of long bones
Definition
endosteum
Term
With induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs), Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells) differentiate into:
Definition

chondroblasts (and then chondrocytes)

 

(without induction, they differentiate into osteoblasts, and then osteocytes)

Term
Without induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs), Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells) develop into
Definition

osteoblasts (and then osteocytes) 

 

(with induction by TGF-beta & BMPs, they become chondroblasts, and then chondrocytes)

Term
What determines whether a Mesenchymal Stem Cell (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cell) differentiates into an osteoblast or chondroblast?
Definition

induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs)

 

with induction by TGF-beta & BMPs, MSCs develop into chondroblasts

without induction, they develop into osteoblasts

Term
the only cells found in mature cartilage (embedded in cartilage matrix)
Definition
Chondrocytes
Term

Does cartilage tissue contain blood vessels?  Lymph vessels?  Nerves?

 

 

Definition
no; none of those
Term
What molecule makes up 75% of cartilage?
Definition

water

 

(15% is collage, particularly type 2 collagen, and 10% are proteoglycans, especially aggrecan)

Term
15% of cartilage is _______, which gives it its tensile strength
Definition

collagen

 

(particularly type 2 collagen; 75% is water and 10% are proteoglycans, especially aggrecan)

Term
10% of cartilage is _________, which forms a highly resilient gel with water
Definition

proteoglycans (protein + glycosaminoglycans (GAGs))

 

(especially aggrecans; 75% is water, and 15% is collagen, especially type 2 collagen)

Term
a large aggregating proteoglycan that, with collagen II, forms the structure of cartilage
Definition
aggrecan
Term
the hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces of bones (that is, surfaces that touch each other in moving joints).
Definition
articular cartilage
Term
3 main types of cartilage
Definition

Hyaline cartilage—most common (articular is a type of hyaline)

elastic collagen—like hyaline, but more elastin fibers--stretchier

fibrocartilage—like a mix of hyaline & fibrous tissue—tougher

Term
Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body. How are elastic cartilage & fibrocartilage different than hyaline cartilage?
Definition
elastic collagen—like hyaline, but more elastin fibers--stretchier
fibrocartilage—like a mix of hyaline & fibrous tissue—tougher
Term
Unlike most hyaline cartilage, articular cartilage doesn’t have a ________
Definition
perichondrium (this is where the mesenchymal stem cells & fibroblasts hang out)
Term
arthritis is associated with increased degradation (proteolysis) of what proteoglycan?
Definition

aggrecans

 

(a large proteoglycan that, with collagen II, forms the structure of cartilage)

Term
the process by which cartilage is formed
Definition
chondrogenesis
Term
What kind of glycosaminoglycan (GAG) is most common in proteoglycans in hyaline cartilage?
Definition

hyaluronic acid

 

(note:  the most common proteoglycan is aggrecan; the most common glycosaminoglycan is hyaluronic acid)

Term
chondroblasts exist in structures called __________ in the cartilage matirix
Definition
lacunae
Term
When chondroblasts stop dividing, they become
Definition
chondrocytes
Term
Why do cartilage lacunae typically contain more than one chondrocyte?
Definition
it takes the chondrocyte a little while to realize that it's "painted itself into a corner" and stop dividing
Term
thin layer of tissue outside of hyaline cartilage (except articular cartilage)& elastic cartilage that contains fibroblasts & Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSCs)
Definition
Perichondrium
Term

Appositional growth of cartilage 

 

Definition

type of growth of mature cartilage when newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at perichondrium

 

(appositional = "side by side" or "next to"

 

compare to interstitial growth, the other type of growth of mature cartilage, in which older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae)

Term

interstitial growth of cartilage 

 

 

Definition

type of growth of mature cartilage when older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae

 

 

(compare to appositional growth, the other type of growth of mature cartilage, in which newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at the  perichondrium)

 

Term
2 ways that mature cartilage grows
Definition
Appositional growth—newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at perichondrium

Interstitial growth—older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae
Term

Synarthrosis

 

Definition

immovable joints (such as between skull bones)

 

(lit., "together joint")

Term

Amphiarthrosis

 

Definition

slightly moveable joints (ex., teeth in jaw)

 

(lit., "both sides joint"--that is, it's neither fully immobile like a synarthrosis, nor fully mobile like a diarthrosis)

Term

Diarthrosis

 

Definition

freely moveable joints (synovial joint)

 

(lit., "between joint")

Term

4 parts of a synovial joint :

 

__________ (outermost part)

_____________ (lining)

______________(fluid)

_____________ (cartilage)

Definition

fibrous capsule (continous with the periosteum of articulating bones)

 

synovial membrane (lines inside of fibrous capsule; secretes synovial fluid)

 

Synovial fluid (lubricating fluid that also acts as a shock-absorber and carrier of nutrients for cartilage; thin, watery, & slick like snot)

 

Articular cartilage on ends of bones

Term

Gliding joint


Definition

 

one 6 types of synovial joints; only allows gliding or sliding movements 

 

found between carpals of wrist and ankle, and between the spinous processes of the backbone

 

Term

Hinge joint

 

 

Definition

one of the 6 types of synovial joints; allows flexion & extension in one plane (like a door hinge)

 

found between the humerus and ulna in the elbow & in the knee

Term
pivot joint 
Definition

one of the 6 types of synovial joints; one bone rotates about another

 

between the ulna & radius in the elbow, between the skull and C1 (the atlas)

 

 

Term

Condyloid joint

 

 

Definition

one of the 6 type of synovial joint; ike a ball & socket, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket”, therefore allowing more limited range of motion than a true ball & socket joint (such as the hip)

 

found between the radius & the scaphoid bone of the wrist

Term
like a ball & socket joint, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket”
Definition
condyloid joint
Term
Which allows greater range of motion: a ball-and-socket joint, or a condyloid joint?
Definition

ball & socket allows a greater range of motion

 

condyloid is like a ball & socket, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket”. The non-spherical shape limits movement more than true ball & socket  (such as the hip)

 

condyloid permits movement in two planes, allowing flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction (movement in a circle).  There is a condyloid joint between radius & the scaphoid bones of the wrist

Term

Saddle joint

 

Definition

one of the 6 types of synovial joints; like 2 saddles with the convex parts meeting; permits similar movements to a condyloid joint:  flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction (movement in a circle)

 

seen between the tibia and femur in the knee joint

Term
ball and socket joint 
Definition

one of 6 types of synovial joints; the joint with the widest range of motion

 

the 2 ball-and-socket joints in the body are hip joints & shoulder joints

Term

What's the difference between tendons & ligaments? 

 

Definition

tendons connect muscle to bone or muscle to structure (ex., eye)

 

ligaments are one of 3 things:

1. fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone 

2. a fold of the peritoneum or other membrane

3. the remnants of a tubular structure from the fetal life period

Term
connect bone to bone
Definition
ligaments
Term
a small bag off slimy fluid that is outside of the joint cavity; provides lubrication to a tendon or bone that slides over a joint
Definition
bursa
Term

potential space

 

Definition
a “space” that is normally filled with body tissue (ex., mouth filled with tongue)—sometimes can become a true space (esp. in pathology)
Term

compartment syndrome

 

Definition

 

the compression of nerves, blood vessels, and muscle within a closed fascial compartment when there is excessive swelling 

Term

 

epiphysis

 

 

Definition

end of long bone

 

(the middle of the long bone is the diaphysis; between the diaphysis and the epiphysis is a thin region called the metaphysis, which contains the growth plate in children)

 

Term
middle of long bone
Definition

diaphysis

 

(lit, "between growth")

 

(the middle of the long bone is the diaphysis; the end is the epiphysis; between the diaphysis and the epiphysis is a thin region called the metaphysis, which contains the growth plate in children)

 

 

Term
the area between the middle of a long bone & the end of the long bone
Definition
Metaphysis (the middle is Diaphysis & the End is Epiphysis)
Term
between epiphysis & metaphysis
Definition
epiphysial plate (or epiphyseal line)
Term
The bone receives 1/3 of its blood supply through the _______, and 2/3 through the__________.
Definition
1/3 through the periosteum
2/3 through the marrow (medullary canal)
Term
Hox genes
Definition

a group of related genes that transcribe proteins that regulate segmentation patterns in embryonic development 

 

(side note:  in flies, hox gene mutations can cause legs where the antennae should be or extra sets of wings; in humans, hox mutations are rare, but hand and foot deformities have been associated with hox mutations)

Term

morphogen

 

Definition

a signaling molecule that acts directly on cells to govern the pattern of tissue development (esp. the positions of the various specialized cell types within a tissue)

 

(ex., TGF-beta, sonic hedgehog, etc.) 

 

note: morphogens are defined by function, not chemically

 


Term
Just because there’s a pulse distal to a joint, doesn’t mean there are no occlusions in blood vessels around the joint. Why is that?
Definition
All synovial joints collateral circulation (>1 way for blood to flow) around the joint 
Term
Why would someone take a glucocorticoid?
Definition
taken by people with auto-immune and/or inflammatory disorders because of the anti-inflammatory & immune suppressing features
Term
the most important glucocorticoid produced by the body
Definition
cortisol
Term
What side-effect do glucocorticoids have on bone?
Definition
Multiple osteolytic (bone-dissolving) effects
Term
What are 4 osteolytic (bone-dissolving) effects of glucocorticoids?
Definition

Binds to receptors that inhibit transcription of osteocalcin in osteoblasts (Osteocalcin is a key extracellular matrix protein that promotes bone mineralization)

 

Induces osteoblast apoptosis

 

Increases osteoclast activity

 

Indirect osteolytic effects through other endocrine mediators of calcium regulation

Term

 

Biphosphonates slow _______, but especially _______, and are used for: 

 

 

Definition

Biphosphonates slow bone remodeling, but especially bone resoprtion.

 

They are used to preserve bone mass in people with osteoporosis, osteopenia, or other conditions that cause bone fragility, and also to treat Paget's disease of bone.

Term

 

Teriparatide

 

 

Definition

A ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH) fragment that has an anabolic effect to replace lost bone density

 

Teriparatide is, thus far, the only drug that increases bone mass (other drugs slow loss but do not reverse it). 

 

(PTH increases serum Ca2+, partially accomplishing this by increasing bone resorption. Thus, chronically elevated PTH will deplete bone stores. However, intermittent exposure to PTH will activate osteoblasts more than osteoclasts. Thus, once-daily injections of teriparatide have a net effect of stimulating new bone formation leading to increased bone mineral density.)

 

Term
Biphosphonates help preserve bone mass, but they increase the risk of _____________
Definition
esophageal cancer
Term
What are the instructions for taking biphosphonates, and why?
Definition

must be taken with water after an overnight fast at least 30 min prior to any other food or drink (biphosphonate is polar and not well absorbed, and food makes it worse)

 

must sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking (biphosphonate can cause severe esophageal irritation, and esophageal cancer)

Term
Is calcitonin an important hormone in adults? In children?
Definition

Calcitonin is not important for adults. If you take out your thyroid, you have no more calcitonin, which causes no problems (you have to replace the thyroid hormone, but not the calcitonin).

 

In children, calcitonin is important for building bone.

 

mnemonic:  calciTONin TONEs down Ca2+ levels in the blood (by storing Ca2+ in the bones)

Term

How does calcitonin's effectiveness compare to biphosphonates at blocking bone resorption?  

 

When would you take calcitonin? 

Definition

less effective

 

 

calcitonin can be added to biphosphonate therapy if that alone is note enough.

Term
If you give adults supraphysiological doses of calcitonin, what happens?
Definition
It blocks bone resorption.
Term
If you want to give someone calcitonin, you can give them synthetic _________ calcitonin, or synthetic _________ calcitonin, which is much more effective.
Definition
human
salmon
Term
What are the side-effects of calcitonin?
Definition
GI: nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort
Cardiovascular: flushing
Inflammation: local rash, systemic hypersensitivity reactions

Lots of side effects; big reason it’s only used as a 2nd line of treatment. Up to 45% of patients discontinue due to side-effects
Term
What is the net effect of Vitamin D on serum calcium & serum phosphate?
Definition
increases serum calcium
increases serum phosphate
(net increase in total body calcium)
Term
The kidney converts vitamin D into its most effective form _________ in response to low serum calcium
Definition
calcitrol (this process is highly regulated to maintain stable serum calcium levels)
Term
What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the intestine?
Definition
vitamin D increase calcium & phosphate abosorption
Term
What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the kidney?
Definition
increases calcium & phosphate resorption
Term
What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the bone?
Definition

resorbs calcium & phosphate from the bone if serum calcium & phosphate are low

 

(if serum Ca2+ and phosphate are NOT low, it won't cause resorption from the bone, but will increase calcium absorption in intestines and retention in kidneys, so give vitamin D to people in danger of bone mass loss)

Term
Vitamin D resorbs calcium & phosphate from the bone if serum calcium & phosphate are low. So why do you give it to people with low bone mass?
Definition
Because it also increase calcium & phosphate absorption form the intestines, & calcium & phosphate re-absorption in the kidneys (which means that serum levels of calcium will be higher and calcium will not be resorbed from bone)
Term
From what 2 sources do most people get their vitamin D?
Definition
diet
skin produces vitamin D using sunshine
Term
What happens if serum calcium levels fall very low (hypocalcemia)?
Definition
tetanus
Term
Teriparatide is a PTH fragment that helps replace lost bone density. Why do you only give teriparatide short-term (less than 18 months)?
Definition
stops working within 18 months
rats given teriparatide for >18 months developed osteosarcoma (bone cancer)
Term
What overall effect does estrogen have on bone mass?
Definition
preserves bone mass by preventing bone re-sorption
Term

osteopetrosis

 

Definition
"stone bones"; a rare hereditary disease marked by abnormally dense bone; these bones tend to be brittle & prone to fractures (too much concrete; not enough rebar)
Term

Paget's disease of bone 

 

Definition

a localized dysregulation of bone turnover that involves ­ increased bone resorption and ­increased bone formation. Results in formation of bone that is poorly organized, weaker, painful, and deformed.

 

(The cause may be a combination of genetic factors and viral infection)

Term
Estrogen induces synthesis of osteoprotogerin (OPG), which inactivates __________ on osteoblasts
Definition
RANKL

Osteoblasts express RANKL, which tells osteoclast to start chewing bone
Term
In women, the most rapid bone mass density loss occurs
Definition
In the 5 years after menopause
Term
Why wouldn't you give every menopausal woman estrogen supplements for the rest of her life?
Definition
Estrogen tends to promote growth & metastases of cancer
Term
Gene for alpha-1 chains for type I collagen
Definition
COL1A1
(COLlagen, type 1, Alpha-1)
Term
Gene for alpha-2 chains for type 1 collagen
Definition
COL1A2
(COLlagen, type 1, Alpha-2)
Term
Wormian bones
Definition
irregularly shaped bones in the sutures of the skull; most commonly associated with OI
Term
People with Osteogenesis Imperfecta tend to have a ________-shaped face and a __________-shaped chest.
Definition
triangle-shaped face
barrel-shaped chest
Term
Hyperextensible skin
Hypermobile joints
Velvety skin
Fragile skin (bruises & tears easily)
Poor wound healing leading to widened, atrophic scarring
Molluscoid pseudo-tumors (small spongy growths found over scars and pressure points, made up of fat surrounded by a fibrous capsule) on elbows & knees
Spheroid bodies on shins & forearms
Mitral valve prolapsed
Definition
Classical Ehlers-Danlos
Term
Tall
Long limbs relative to trunk
Arachnodactyly (“spider fingers”)—unusually long, slender fingers
Frequent dolichocephaly (long, narrow head from front to back) with prominent brow
Mitral valve disease
Significant risk of aortic dissection
Definition
Marfan's syndrome
Term
Is Marfan's due to a problem with fibrillin, or a problem with elastin? Explain how.
Definition
Both.
Marfan's is caused by a mutation in the gene for fibrillin (a glycoprotein that is the major structural component of extracellular microfibrils)
Microfibrils form a network for elastin deposition, so elastin is also negatively affected.
Term
Marfan's is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes for _________
Definition

fibrillin

 

(fibrillin a glycoprotein that is the major structural component of extracellular microfibrils.  Microfibrils form a network for elastin deposition, so elastin is also negatively affected.)

Term
the chromosomal complement of an individual, including the # of chromosomes & any abnormalities
Definition
karyotype
Term
Normal female karyotype is
Definition
(46, XX)
Term
Normal male karyotype is
Definition
(46, XY)
Term
Karyotype for a male with trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome)
Definition
(47, XY, +21)
Term
Describe the individual with this karyotype:

(47, XX, +21)
Definition
a female with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome)
Term

ploidy

 

Definition
number of sets of chromosomes in a cell.
Term
aneuploidy
Definition

when a cell or organism DOESN'T have an integer multiple of the haploid set of chromosomes because of monosomy or trisomy in one or more of the chormosomes.  Monosomy and trisomy are two types of aneuploidy

 

ex., in humans, the haploid set of chromosomes is 23; the normal diploid set of chromosomes per cell is

2 * 23 = 46

This is euploidy.  Monoploidy, or having 23 chromosomes per cell, and polyploidy, such as having 69 chromosomes per cell (note: polyploidy, unlike aneuploidy, by definition always affects ALL cells in an organism), would also be euploidy but would not be viable in a human embryo. 

 

Term
trisomy
Definition
when or cell or organism that normally has 2n haploid chromosomes, has one chromosome that is 3n
Term

monosomy

 

Definition
when or cell or organism that normally has 2n haploid chromosomes, has one chromosome that is 1n
Term
Aneuploidy usually occurs from ________ in meiosis I or meiosis II.
Definition
non-disjunction
Term

 

euploidy

 

 

Definition

when a cell OR organism has an integer multiple of the monoploid set of chromosomes (1n, 2n, 3n, 4n, etc.)

 

in aneuploidy, the cell or organism does NOT have an integer multiple of the monoploid set of chromosomes b/c of monosomy or trisomy

Term

Polyploidy

 

Definition

when ALL cells in an organism have a loss or gain of a complete haploid set of chromosomes (1n, 3n, 4n, etc.)

 (always lethal to embryo in humans)

Term
Describe the individual with this karyotype:
(47, XY, +21 / 46, XY)
Definition
This person is a male with Down syndrome mosaicism (some cells have 47 chromosomes with trisomy 21, and some have 46 chromosomes)
Term
What syndromes are caused by monosomy of autosomal chromosomes
Definition
none. monosomy of autosomal chromosomes is incompatible with life in humans
Term
Trisomy 13 is called
Definition

Patau's syndrome

 

(Patau's syndrome causes cycloPism via holoProsencephaly; high risk of fetal death & 80% of children do not survive their first month) 

Term
Trisomy 18 is called
Definition

Edwards syndrome

 

(Eighteen causes Edwards syndrome--high probability of fetal death; only 5-10% survive their first year) 

Term
The only viable monosomy for humans is ________ syndrome
Definition

Turner (sex chromosome monosomy, X)

 

 

(phenotypically female, short, webbed neck, infertile, learning difficulties but usually normal intelligence)

Term
What syndrome does this person have? (45, X)
Definition

Turner syndrome

 

(phenotypically female, short, webbed neck, infertile, learning difficulties but usually normal intelligence)

Term

What syndrome is being described? 

 

Female phenotype

Short stature

Ovarian failure leading to primary amenorrhea & infertility

Coarctation (narrowing) of the aorta

Some renal anomalies

Definition
Turner Syndrome (45, X)
Term
What syndrome does this person have? (47, XXY)
Definition

Klinefelter syndrome

 

(male phenotype, but some more feminine physical characteristics such as less body hair and female-type fat distribution afte puberty; tall; infertile; learning disability but no retardation)

Term
male phenotype
small testes
low levels of testosterone
sterile due to seminiferous tubule atrophy
tall with long arms & legs
sparse body hair
breast development
learning disability but no retardation
Definition
Klinefelter syndrome (45, XXY)
Term
Describe the person with this phenotype
(47, XYY)
Definition
This is a male with XYY syndrome

male phenotype
fertile
learning disabilities
behavioral problems
tall stature
Term
What syndrome does the person with this karyotype have? (47, XXX)
Definition

triple X syndrome

 

(Female phenotype; Fertile; No major congenital anomalies; Slight cognitive impairment; 2 Barr bodies)

Term

What genetic syndrome do these clinical signs describe? 

 

Female phenotype

Fertile

No major congenital anomalies

Slight cognitive impairment

2 Barr bodies

Definition
triple X syndrome (47, XXX)
Term
balanced genetic abnormalities
Definition

abnormalities that do not change gene dosage (re-arrange genes, but don’t gain or lose genes)

 

 

 

 

Term
Inversion (genetics)
Definition
When part of DNA is cut out & flipped. The opposite strand has trouble matching up, leading to circles other strange shapes
Term
when part of chromosome is cut & moved
Definition
Translocation
Term
A zygote experiences a translocation. Why might this cause more problems for the resulting person's child than for the person themselves?
Definition

Translocation leaves the carrier with the same amount and type of genetic material (same gene dosage).  Translocation will often not cause a problem for the carrier (person in which translocation occurs) UNLESS it breaks an important gene in half or moves an important gene relative to regulatory DNA (which changes expression)

 

But it could lead to unequal sorting in meiosis. The cell with the now-bigger chromosome has partial trisomy. The cell with the now-smaller chromosome has partial monosomy.

Term
what is a partial monosomy?
Definition
when part of 1 of the chromosomes is missing
Term

unbalanced chromosome rearrangement

 

Definition
a genetic abnormality in which you lose genes (change gene dosage)
Term

Reciprocal Translocation (genetics)

 

Definition
when 2 chromosomes are cut & exchange pieces
Term

Robertsonian Translocation

 

Definition

when one chromosome is cut & donates a piece to another chromosome; aka non-reciprocal translocation

 

(in reciprocal translocation, 2 chromosomes are cut and exchange pieces)

Term
What is a compound joint?
Definition

a joint that is more than one of the 6 basic types (ex.,knee is hinge & gliding)

 

 

(the 6 types are gliding, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, and ball-and-socket joints)

Term
axial skeleton
Definition
spine, skull, rib cage
Term
The ball-and-socket joint between the humerus & the scapula
Definition
glenohumoral joint
Term
The anterior compartment of the arm contains the muscles for _________
Definition
flexion
(remember: arm = upper arm)
Term
The posterior compartment of the arm contains the muscles for _________
Definition
extension (remember: arm = upper arm)
Term
The bone on the pinkie side of the forearm is the ________. The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is the ___________.
Definition
ulna
radius
Term
The anterior compartment of the forearm contains muscles for ______
Definition
flexion
Term
The nerve that provide motor innervation to anterior arm (flexion) and sensory innervation to anteriolateral forearm
Definition
musculocutaneous
Term
The nerve that provides motor innervation to posterior arm, and to lateral posterior forearm.
Definition
Radius
Term
The ____ and ________ nerves are together responsible for all of forearm flexors
Definition
ulnar medial
Term
The _____ nerve is responsible for most extensors in the forearm
Definition
radial
Term
What nerve spirals around humerus and can be cut if humerus is fractured?
Definition
radial
Term
What are the 5 major terminal branches of the brachial plexus.
Definition
musculocutaneous
axillary
radial
median
ulnar
Term
What nerve provides motor innervation to the shoulder and sensory to a patch of skin on upper lateral arm?
Definition
axillary nerve
Term
What nerve is most likely to be damaged by dislocation of glenohumoral joint?
Definition
axillary
Term
Motor nerve for the 1.5 forearm flexor muscles not innervated by median nerve, & all of the hand muscles not innervated by median nerve.
Definition
Ulnar nerve
Term
What nerve is sensory for entire little finger & medial half of ring finger?
Definition
ulnar
Term
What 2 nerves can be damaged by compartment syndrome of anterior compartment of forearm?
Definition

median

 

ulnar

Term
What 3 nerves are most likely to be cut if humerus is broken?
Definition
median
ulnar
radial
Term
motor nerve for most flexor muscles of forearm & many of hand
Definition
median nerve
Term
sensory for much of anteriolateral part of hand (that is, thumb-side of the palm) & part of back of thumb & some fingers
Definition
median nerve
Term
A single artery with several names branches to the upper limb. At the top, it's called the ________. As it travels through the underarm, it’s re-named the __________. As it enters the arm, it's re-named the ____________.
Definition
subclavian artery
axillary artery
brachial artery
Term
The major blood vessel of the arm
Definition

brachial artery (remember: arm = upper arm)

 

 

(this vessel is called the subclavian artery where it branches off from the aorta/brachocephalic artery, renamed the axillary artery in the shoulder, and then renamed the brachial artery in the upper arm) 


Term
Just anterior of the elbow, the brachial artery divides into the _________ & __________.
Definition
brachial
radial
Term
Where does the brachial artery divide into the radial & ulnar arteries?
Definition
just anterior to the elbow
Term
splits off fromthe brachial artery & travels around the humerus with the radial nerve
Definition
deep brachial artery (profunda brachii)
Term
The _________ artery spirals around the humerus with the radial nerve &, like the radial nerve, is in danger of being cut if the humerus is factured.
Definition
deep brachial artery
Term
The _______ and ________ arteries anastamose (re-join) in the hand
Definition
radial & ulnar
Term
pennate muscle
Definition

 

 

A flat muscle with fascicles (bundles of muscle fibers) extending obliquely from the tendon

 

may be shaped like a feather (bipennate muscle), or like half of a feather (unipennate muscle), or the tendon may be branched (multipennate muscle)

 

Term

bipennate muscle

 

Definition
 a muscle shaped like a feather; fibers extend obliquely from a central tendon
Term
unipennate
Definition

 

a muscle shaped like half of a feather; a tendon runs the length of the muscle, oblique fibers extend from one side of tendon

Term
A type of pennate muscle wherein the diagonal muscle fibers are in multiple rows with the central tendon branching into two or more tendons.
Definition
multipennate
Term
How do people most commonly get osteomyelitis? (where does the infection come from)
Definition
Contiguous spread (that is, infection spreads from tissue near bone to bone)
Term
Who is most likely to get osteomyelitis from continguous spread:
adults/children
men/women
what diseases predispose?
Definition
most likely to get osteomyelitis
adults
males
diabetics
Term
What is the most common isolate from osteomyelitis acquired through contiguous spread from nearby infected tissues?
Definition
staph aureus
(but it's often polymicrobial)
Term
If a bone is innoculated with a bacterium during an open fracture (a common occurence), how long will it take for osteomyelitis symptoms to show up?
Definition
months
Term
Where do you most commonly get staph aureus from?
Definition
from the soil
Term
Where are you most likely to get pseudomonas aeruginosa from?
Definition
the hospital
Term

Arthroplasty

 

Definition
surgery in which both joint surfaces are replaced with artificial materials, usually metal and high-density plastic.
Term
surgery in which both joint surfaces are replaced with artificial materials, usually metal and high-density plastic.
Definition
Arthroplasty
Term

hematogenous seeding

 

Definition
spread of infection from blood (used to describe bone infections)
Term
Who is most likely to get osteomyelitis from hematogenous seeding, and why?
Definition

children

 

because their bones are growing and, thus, very well vascularized

Term
Where does osteomyelitis most frequently occur in children, and why?
Definition

in the metaphysis of long bones

 

because the metaphysis contains the growth plate, which is very well vascularized

Term
Why does osteomyelitis in children most often occur in the metaphysis of long bones?
Definition
Osteomyelitis in children most often occurs as a result of hematogenous seeding from blood infections.
The metaphysis is where the bones are most quickly growing, so they are highly vascularized.
Term

A child with a blood-borne disease has

 

Chills

High fever

Malaise

Local pain around the metaphysis of the femur

Swelling around the metaphysis of the femur

Bone culture is negative

 

What are you concerned about, and why?  

Definition

Osteomyelitis in the metaphysis of the femur.

 

Bone cultures are negative in 50% of cases of osteomyelitis; the clinical signs and symptoms are consistent with osteomyelitis

Term
What is the most common isolate from osteomyelitis acquired through hematogenous seeding?
Definition
staph aureus
Term
What are the 3 most common isolates from osteomyelitis acquired through hematogenous seeding?
Definition
Staph aureus
Strep pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae type B (less common than it used to be b/c there’s a vaccine)
Term
Osteomyelitis due to hematogenous seeding is rare in adults, but when it does occur, where does it most often occur?
Definition
the spine
Term
Why are older adults more likely to get osteomyelitis of the spine due to hematogenous seeding than younger adults?
Definition

Elderly are more prone to:

 pelvic infections

retrograde flow in veins

 

Theoretically, retrograde flow from pelvic tissues (urethra, prostate, bladder) to lumbar vertebrae can explain the spread of pelvic infections preferentially to lumbar vertebrae.

Term
2 Most common isolates in osteomyelitis of the spine due to hematogenous seeding.
Definition
Staph aureus
coagulase-negative staph (such as staph epidermidis)
Term
An elderly patient with a bladder infection reports insidious pain & tenderness of spine. What are you concerned about?
Definition
osteomyelitis of the spine
(they may also have fever & motor & sensory deficits, but nearly all cases of osteomyelitis of spine involve insidious spine pain)
Term
How does diabetes affect risk for osteomyelitis, and why?
Definition

increases 

 

because vascular insufficiency prevents the immune system from patrolling as efficiently as normal

Term
What is typically cultured from osteomyelitis due to vascular insufficiency (such as in patients with diabetes)?
Definition

Typically polymicrobial with aerobic & anaerobic organisms

 

Coagulase + staph (ex., staph aureus)

Coagulase neg staph (ex., staph epidermidis)

Strep Enterococcus

Term
What is unusual about osteomyelitis in IV drug users?
Definition
It occurs in unusual locations: Sternoclavicular Sternochondral join Sacroiliac join Pubic symphysis
Term
What microbe is most commonly isolated from all types osteomyelitis?
(except osteomyelitis in people with sickle cell anemia)
Definition
staph aureus
(salmonella is the most common in sickle-cell anemia; staph aureus is 2nd most common)
Term
What are the most common isolates from osteomyelitis in people with sickle-cell anemia?
Definition
Salmonella (only kind of osteomyelitis that is not most commonly caused by staph aureus, tho s. aureus is also common)
Staph aureus
Other gram negatives
Term
Why do people with sickle-cell anemia most often get osteomyelitis due to salmonella infection?
Definition

Sickle-shaped RBCs cause frequent blood vessel blockages, which leads to small areas of necrosis

 

Salmonella more easily leaves the gur through necrotic areas

 

Bones with vascular insufficiency are more easily infected

Term
A child with sickle-cell anemia complains of

pain in the humerus
a weeks spiking fever, & chills
they have a raised WBC count (leukocytosis)

What are you most concerned about?
Definition
Osteomyelitis
Term
Why is osteomyelitis difficult to diagnose in people with sickle-cell anemia?
Definition
because the main symptom of osteomyelitis is bone pain, and sickle-cell anemia can cause bone pain due to ischemia
Term
Is staph aureus coagulase + or coagulase negative?
Definition
staph aureus is coagulase +
Term
Is Staph epidermidis coagulase + or coagulase negative?
Definition
coagulase negative
Term
What test would you use to distinguish staph aureus from staph epidermidis (and other less-pathogenic types of staph)?
Definition
coagulase test

staph aureus is coagulase +
staph epidermidis & other less-pathogenic types of staph are coagulase negative
Term
How does staph aureus use coagulase as a virulence factor?
Definition
staph aureus may use coagulase in its cell wall to coat itself with plasma proteins & disguise itself from the immune system
Term
describe a test for the presence of coagulase
Definition
Coagulase causes plasma to clot, so put the bacteria in plasma & see if it clots (clots = coagulase +)
Term
Describe a catalase test.
Definition

catalase is an enzyme that turns peroxide into water & oxygen:

 

H2O2 –(catalase)--> H2O + O2

 

put the bacteria in peroxide & see if it causes bubbles

Term
Are staphylococci catalase + or catalase negative?
Definition
Staphylococci are catalase +
Term
Are streptococci catalase + or catalase negative?
Definition
Streptococci are catalase neg.
Term
Are enterococci catalase + or catalase negative?
Definition
Enterococci are catalase neg.
Term
Are enterococci catalase + or catalase negative?
Definition
Enterococci are catalase neg.
Term
What test would you use to distinguish staph from strep?
Definition
catalase test
(staph is catalase +; strep is catalase negative)
Term
When would you use a solid growth medium vs. a liquid growth medium?
Definition
Solid growth media are used for identifying & separating out a pure colony
Liquid growth media are used for growing lots of bacteria that have already been purified
Term
Is e. coli gram + or gram negative?
Definition
gram negative
Term
Is staph gram + or gram negative?
Definition
gram +
Term
Is strep gram + or gram negative?
Definition
gram +
Term
Is Shigella gram + or gram negative?
Definition
gram negative
Term
Maconkey Agar (MAC) only allows _____________ to grow
Its appearance starts out ______; turns _______________ in presence of ________ colonies
Definition
gram-negative bacteria
translucent red-orange
hot-pink
lactic-acid fermenting
Term
Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) only allows _____________ bacteria to grow
Definition
gram positive
Term
You grow some bacteria on a Blood Agar Plate (BAP). How do you know if the bacteria is alpha-hemolytic, beta-hemolytic, or gamma-hemolytic
Definition
Alpha-hemolytics—green b/c reactions with hemoglobin
Alpha Arranges iron

Beta-hemolytic—clear b/c it lyses RBCs
Beta Blanks out Blood

Gamma-hemolytic—no change (not hemolytic)
Gamma is Gormless (stupid)
Term
High salt level in Mannitol Salts Agar (MSA) only permits salt-happy bacteria (like _________) to grow
Definition
staph
Term
Mannitol Salts Agar normally appears _________, but turns _________ in the presence of ___________.
Definition
hot pink
neon yellow
Coagulase-positive staphylococci (such as staph aureus)
Term
Bile esculine agar contain __________, which only allow __________ to grow.
Definition
bile salts
enterococci
Term
Bile Esculin agar normally appear _________, but turns ___________ in the presence of ____________.
Definition
yellow (like urine)
black
enterococci (eterococci break down esculin into insoluble iron salts, producing black rings)
Term
Differentiate between the alpha-hemolytic S. pneumoniae and other alpha-hemolytic streptococci based on Optochin sensitivity test.
Definition
The growth of streptococcus pneumonia is inhibited in the presence of an optochin disc
This helps differentiate between s. pneumonia & other alpha-hemolytic streptococci (such as strep viridians) which are optochin resistant
Term
Unlike most alpha-hemolytic strep, streptococcus pneumonia is sensitive to
Definition
Optochin
Term
Strep pneumoniae is

alpha-hemolytic
beta-hemolytic
gamma-hemolytic
Definition
alpha hemolytic
Term
Bacitracin discs can be used to differentiate between ___________ strep & ________ staph
Definition
beta-hemolytic
Term
You have a beta-hemolytic microbe, but you're not sure if it's staph or strep. What test would you do & how would you interpret the results?
Definition
You would test sensitivity to bacitracin discs

Beta-hemolytic strep (ex., strep pyogenes) is bacitracin sensitive
Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is bacitracin resistant
Term
Beta-hemolytic strep is _________ to bacitracin.  Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is __________ to bacitracin
Definition
Beta-hemolytic strep (ex., strep pyogenes) is sensitive to bacitracin.  Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is resistant to bacitracin
Term
You suspect that a woman has osteoporosis. Would you x-ray her? Why or why not?
Definition
No. X-rays usually don't show osteoporosis. Use dual-energy absorptiometry instead.
Term
A person has bone mass 2.25 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have?
Definition
osteopenia

1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia
>2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis
Term
A person has a bone mass 2.75 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have?
Definition
osteoporosis

1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia
>2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis
Term
A person has a bone mass 0.5 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have?
Definition
Nothing (yet)

1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia
>2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis
Term
A childhood disease caused by lack of vitamin D.
Definition
rickets
Term
Vitamin _______ is a cofactor for mineralizing bone
Definition
vitamin D
Term
What are 2 causes of vitamin D deficiency?
Definition
severe malnutrition (frequent in developing countries; rare here)
Decreased sun exposure (esp. people of African descent in places near the poles)
Term
A child has little bead-like knobs of bone on the ribs. What is this called and what is it an early sign of?
Definition
rachitic rosary
early sign of rickets
Term
What are signs of rickets that appear in the head? In the chest/trunk?
Definition
Craniotabes—abnormal softening/thinning of skull
Late closing of fontanels
Large head, protruding forehead

Rachitic rosary—little beads on ribs (Early sign of rickets)
Kyphosis
Pigeon chest with depressed ribs
Term
craniotabes
Definition

abnormal softening/thinning of skull

 

(seen in Rickets)

Term
What 3 things would you do for a child with rickets?
Definition
increase Vitamin D intake
increase Phosphate intake
increase exposure to sunlight
Term
Vitamin D deficiency in adults causes _________
Definition
osteomalacia
Term
Signs of osteomalacia
Definition

soft bones

slightly or moderately bow-legged (not extreme like in rickets)

 

 

(osteomalacia is a disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults; it's the adult form of rickets)

Term
What is the most obvious sign of rickets in a child?
Definition
bent legs (usually bow-legged, but may be knock-kneed)
Term
A person with renal failure has osteoporosis. They didn't have it before renal failure. What is their bone condition called, and how did renal failure cause it?
Definition

renal osteodystrophy

 

there is a failure to keep the proper amount of Ca2+ and phosphorous in the blood, either because the kidneys fail to retain sufficient Ca2+ and phosphorous, or because dialysis clears more Ca2+ and phosphorous from the blood than the kidneys do, (or a combination)

 

 

Term

osteitis cystica is caused by an excess of ______________, and primarily affects __________ bones. 

 

Definition

ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)

 

small 

Term
A localized bone disease of unknown etiology marked by increased osteoclastic & osteoblastic activity
Definition

Paget's disease of bone

 

(it probably has both genetic and viral elements, but we don't really know what causes it)

Term
Mosaic tile pattern in bone cross-section is diagnostic for _________________
Definition
Paget's disease of bone
Term
A child with a history of several bone fractures has visual deficits, facial paresis, and hearing loss. Why?
Definition
The child has osteopetrosis--too much bone mineralization leads to dense, brittle bones. Can also squeeze nerves exiting skull thru small foramena

Optic nerve-->visual deficits
Facial nerve-->facial paralysis
auditory nerves-->deafness
Term
“Erlenmeyer flask” appearance of epiphysis points to ____________
Definition
osteopetrosis
Term
What would you see if you looked at the cross-section of a long bone from a child with osteopetrosis?
Definition
thick bone with little or no bone marrow
Term
Why do children with osteopetrosis tend to have recurrent infections?
Definition
the bone mineral fills up the bone marrow leading to neutropenia (too few white blood cells) & anemia (too few red blood cells)

neutropenia--> recurrent infections
Term
What cells make new bone when the bone is growing? What cells maintain mature bone?
Definition
osteoblasts make new bone
osteocytes maintain bone
Term
What cells do osteoblasts descend from?
Definition
Osteoprogenitor cells (aka mesenchymal stem cells, or MSCs)
Term
When one side of bone breaks & other doesn’t (in children)
Definition
greenstick fractures
Term
Plastic deformation of a bone
Definition
when the bone bends without breaking
Term
What features of bone fractures are suspicious for child abuse?
Definition
Breakage of several posterior ribs in baby—typical of squeezing injury
Metaphyses corner fractures are typically due to twisting injury—suspicious for child abuse
Spiral fractures are not typically consistent with falling down (unless they say they caught their foot & twisted). If they say “they fell down” & it’s a spiral fracture, that’s suspicious
Fractures of different stages of healing
Skull fractures in more than one place
Term
Metaphyses corner fractures are typically due to what kind of injury?
Definition
twisting
Term
How do you know if swelling is compartment syndrome or edema?
Definition
If you immobilize it and aren’t restricting it or pushing on it, edema doesn’t hurt
Compartment syndrome hurts!
Also, compartment syndrome may start to turn purple
Term
If you can’t palpate pulses in the extremities, check with a ___________
Definition
Doppler probe
Term
If you can’t palpate pulses in the extremities, check with a ___________
Definition
Doppler probe
Term
How do you do a capillary refill test?
Definition
Hold limb higher than heart (ideally)
Squeeze tip of finger or toe until it turns white
Don’t squeeze nail bed, because it may refill faster than fingertip

Normal refill time is <2 sec
in neonates, <3 sec
Term
For most people, normal capillary refill time is_________.
Definition
less than 2 s
(exception: for neonates it's <3 s)
Term
For neonates, normal capillary refill time is_________
Definition
less than 3 s
Term
The best way to control hemorrhage from an open wound is by _________
Definition
direct pressure on the wound (apply sterile dressing to the open wound)
Term
How will a splint help control bleeding?
Definition
A splint will help control blood loss via tamponade (stopping blood flow by constricting the blood vessel via an outside force)
Term
tamponade
Definition
stopping blood flow by constricting the blood vessel via an outside force
Term
early signs & symptoms of compartment syndrome
Definition
Severe, constant pain out of proportion to apparent severity of injury
Visible swelling
Palpable tenseness of compartment
Pain on palpation
Pain on passive stretch of muscle
Paresthesia—tingling, pricking sensation, or numbness
Term
late signs & symptoms of compartment syndrome
Definition
Paresis—impaired movement, or partial loss of movment
Pallor
Pulseless (late sign)
Term
Compartment syndrome can result from any injury to ___________
Definition
limbs or glutes
Term
What kinds of injuries are at high risk for compartment syndrome?
Definition
Tibial & forearm (radius, ulna) fractures
Injuries immobilized in tight dressings or casts
Severe crush injury to muscle
Localized, prolonged external pressure to an extremity
Increased capillary permbeability secondary to reperfusion of ischemic muscle
Burns
Excessive exercise
Term
Why is systemic blood pressure important in assessing compartment syndrome?
Definition
Compartment syndrome occurs when capillary flow to the compartment is impaired by tamponade from external pressure form the compartment.
The lower the systemic BP, the lower the compartment pressure that causes compartment syndrome
Term
If you think someone has compartment syndrome, but you're not sure, what test can you do?
Definition
There is a needle-like device that measures intramuscular pressure
Term
How do you stabilize hips with a sheet?
Definition
fold the sheet smoothly so that it's wider than the pelvis(do not roll the sheet)
place the sheet under the patient’s pelvis so it is centered over the greater trochanters (NOT over the pelvis)
if using a backboard, place the sheet on top of the backboard)
wrap very tightly and clip in place
Term
What are these devices for (or what can they be used for)?

MAST trousers
pneumatic antishock garments
the SAM Sling from The Seaberg Company
the Traumatic Pelvic Orthotic Device, or T-POD, from Cybertech
the PelvicBinder device
Definition
stabilizing a broken pelvis
Term
Ask the patient to abduct the index finger to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
ulnar
Term
Ask the patient to abduct the thumb (thenar abduction) to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
median distal
Term
Ask the patient to flex the tip of the index finger to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
anterior interosseus (a branch of the median)
Term
Ask the patient to flex the elbow to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
musculocutaneous
Term
Ask the patient to extend the thumb & fingers to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
radial
Term
Ask the patient to abduct the arm (use the deltoid) to test the motor function of the ___________ nerve.
Definition
axillary
Term
Ask the patient to extend the knee to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
femoral
Term
Ask the patient to aduct the leg to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
obturator
Term
Ask the patient to flex the toes to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
posterior tibial
Term
Ask the patient to evert the ankle (turn the sole out) to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
superficial peroneal
Term
Describe everting the ankle
Definition
turn the sole out
Term
Describe inverting the ankle
Definition
turn the sole in
Term
Ask the patient to dorsiflex the ankle & toes to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
deep peroneal
Term
Ask the patient to plantar flex the ankle to test the motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
sciatic
Term
Ask the patient to abduct the hip to test motor function of the _________ nerve
Definition
superior gluteal
Term
Ask the patient to extend the leg back (using the glutes) to test the function of the _________ nerve
Definition
inferior gluteal
Term
Test sensation on the little finger to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
ulnar
Term
Test sensation on the index finger to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
median (distal)
Term
Test sensation on the lateral forearm to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
musculocutaneous
Term
Test sensation on the first dorsal web space of the hand (that is, the web space between the thumb & index finger, on the back of the hand) to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
radial
Term
Test sensation on the lateral shoulder to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
axillary
(remember: shoulder badge sensory distribution)
Term
Test sensation on the anterior knee to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
femoral
Term
Test sensation on the medial thigh to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
obturator
Term
Test sensation on the sole of the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
posterior tibial
Term
Test sensation on the lateral dorsal part of the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
superficial peroneal
Term
Test sensation on the dorsal first web space of the foot (the web space between the big toe & the 2nd toe, on the top of the foot) to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
deep peroneal
Term
Test sensation anywhere on the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve.
Definition
sciatic
Term
Elbow injury is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
ulnar nerve
Term
Wrist dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
median (distal)
Term
A break in the distal humeral shaft is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
radial
Term
Anterior shoulder dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ or ________ nerves
Definition
radial
axial
Term
A break on the proximal humerus is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
axillary
Term
Dislocation of the knee is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
posterior tibial
Term
Posterior hip dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ nerve
Definition
sciatic
Term
Fracture of the acetabulum is most likely to damage the _________ or _______ nerves
Definition
superior gluteal, inferior gluteal
Term
What originates at the back of spine (T6-T12), thoracolumbar fascia, inferior 3 or 4 ribs, and iliac crest, and inserts at the floor of intertubercular groove of the humerus?
Definition
latissimus dorsi
Term
What nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi?
Definition
thoracodorsal nerve
Term
What does the latissimus dorsi do?
Definition
pulls the shoulders down & back (as in rowing)
Term
What originates at back of the atlas (C1), axis (C2), & C3 & C4 vertebrae, and inserts on the top of the scapula?
Definition
levator scapulae
Term
What innervates the levator scapulae?
Definition
fourth and fifth cervical nerves
Term
What does the levator scapulae do?
Definition
helps the trapezius shrug the shoulders
if the shoulder is fixed, the levator scapulae tilts the neck to the same side as the contracting muscle & rotates the neck in the same direction
Term
What originates at the back of vertebrae T2 to T5 & inserts at the medial border of the scapula, from about the level of the scapular spine down to the scapula's inferior angle?
Definition
rhomboid major
Term
What innervates the rhomboid major?
Definition
dorsal scapular nerve
Term
What does the rhomboid major do?
Definition
helps to hold the scapula (and thus the arm) onto the ribcage
works with the levator scapulae & trapezias to shrug the shoulder
retracts the scapula (pulls it towards the vertebral)
Term
What originates at the back of C7 & T1 & inserts at the medial border of the scapula, at the base of the spine of the scapula?
Definition
rhomboid minor
Term
What innervates the rhomboid minor?
Definition
dorsal scapular nerve
Term
What does the rhomboid minor do?
Definition
Fixes scapula to ribcage
Helps rhomboid major adduct & retract scapula (pulls them medially & toward the back)
Term
What back muscle originates at vertebrae T11-L & inserts on the lower border of the 9th through 12th ribs
Definition
serratus posterior inferior
Term
What innervates serratus posterior inferior?
Definition
intercostal nerves T9 through T12
Term
What does the serratus posterior inferior do?
Definition
draws the lower ribs backward and downward to assist in rotation and extension of the trunk
This movement of the ribs also contributes to forced expiration of air from the lungs.
Term
What originates at vertebrae C7, T2, T3 and inserts on the upper borders of the 2nd through 5th ribs?
Definition
serratus posterior superior
Term
What innervates the serratus posterior inferior?
Definition
2nd through 5th intercostal nerves
Term
What does the serratus posterior superior do?
Definition
elevates the ribs, which aids in inspiration
Term
How many major divisions does the trapezius have?
Definition
3
Term
What originates at external occipital protuberance of skull and the top half of the spine, and inserts onto the scapula?
Definition
the trapezius
Term
What muscle elevates the scapula (shrugs shoulders), adducts the scapula, and pulls down on the scapula, as well as helping support the weight of the arm?
Definition
trapezius (it has 3 parts which can act separately)
Term

Explain the following mnemonic:

 

Optochin Outs pneumOnia

Definition
Unlike most alpha-hemolytic strep, streptococcus pneumonia is sensitive to optochin
Term

Explain the following mnemonic:

 

Eighteen is Edward's

 

thirteen starts with a consonant

 

 

Definition

trisomy 18 causes Edward's syndrome

 

trisomy 13 causes Patau's syndrome

Term

Explain the following mnemonic

 

You give to the dread chromosome Roberts.  He gives nothing back to you.

Definition

Robertsonian (Non-reciprocal) Translocation is when one chromosome is cut & donates a piece to another chromosome

 

(vs. reciprocal, when the 2 chromosomes exchange pieces)

Term
ELbow damages ULnar
Definition
Elbow injury is most likely to damage the ulnar nerve
Term

Explain the mnemonic: 

 

Pink turns yellow, kill a fellow

Definition

Mannitol Salts Agar is a high-salt agar that only allows the growth of salt-happy bacteria (staph)

 

It normally appears hot pink, but turns neon yellow in the presence of the more virulent Coagulase-positive staphylococci (such as staph aureus).

Term
what genetic disorder causes spontaneous swan-necking of fingers?
Definition
Classic Ehlers-Danlos
Term

What nerve runs down the front of the thigh & innervates the skin on the front of the thigh & knee?

 

What branch of this nerve innervates the skin on the lateral thigh?

Definition

femoral

 

superficial femoral

 

 

Term

What nerve innervates the skin on the medial part of the thigh?

 

Definition

obturator

 

 

Term

Is the median or the ulnar nerve affected by carpal tunnel syndrome?

Definition

median

 

the ulnar nerve passes above the carpal tunnel

Term

What nerve innervates the:

Hypothenar muscles

all of the interosseous muscles (abductors & adductors)

third and fourth lumbricals (flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joints)

the adductor pollicis and

part of the flexor pollicis brevis.

Definition
ulnar
Term
What type of collagen is the "rebar" in bone to hydroxyapatite's "cement"? 
Definition

type 1 collagen

 

(the most abundant collagen in the body)

Term
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is caused by mutations in genes for ________
Definition

collagen chains 

 

(Ehlers-Danlos is most commonly caused by imperfections in type 3 collagen, but is caused by a variety of collagen defects,

 

osteogenesis imperfecta is most commonly caused by imperfections in type 3 collagen, but is caused by a variety of collagen defects

 

at this level, we mostly need to distinguish between the two clinically, not genetically)

Term
perichondrium 
Definition

A layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the cartilage of developing bone (that is, it surrounds elastic and hyaline cartilage except for articular cartilage, and not fibrocartilage).  Contains mesenchymal stem cells and fibroblasts, and functions in growth and repair of cartilage.  Once vascularized, the perichondrium becomes the periosteum. 

Term
osteocalcin
Definition

A protein secreted by osteoblasts that increases bone calcification

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