Term
Which cranial nerves innervate muscles derived from the branchial arches? |
|
Definition
CN V1,V2: 1st branchoal arch
CN VII: 2nd branchial arch
CNIX: 3rd branchial arch
CN X: 4th and 6th branchial arch
5,7,9,10 |
|
|
Term
What is the result of a glycolytic enzyme deficiency?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a result of a deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WhicH Hep viruses are spread fecal oral? |
|
Definition
Hep A and Hep E
naked viruses (no envelope)
NO HCC risk |
|
|
Term
Which Hep viruses increase risk of HCC? |
|
Definition
Hep B (integrates into host genome and acts as an oncogene)
Hep C (from chronic inflammation)
Hep D |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of viruses are
Hep A
Hep B
Hep C
Hep D
Hep E |
|
Definition
Hep A: Picornavirus RNA
Hep B: Hepadnavirus DNA
Hep C: Flavivirus RNA
Hep D: Delta virus RNA
Hep E: Hepevirus RNA |
|
|
Term
What are the hepatitis B serologic markers? |
|
Definition
HBsAg : (surface antigen) indicates ACTIVE infection
Anti-HBs: (Antibody to the surface antigen)indicates recovered status
HBcAg:new disease
Anti-HBc: history of disease
HBeAg:(envelope antigen) ACTIVE VIRAL replication and HIGH TRANSMISSABILITY
|
|
|
Term
Which HepB serologic marker would you see in a patient immunized to Hep B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some serologic markers you might see in the setting of Autoimmune hepatitis? |
|
Definition
ANA(+)
ANti-smooth muscle(+)
Anti-liver-kidney microsomal (+)
Anti-mitochondrial (-)
Virologic markers (-) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat an infection with Entamoeba histolytica?
What would you see serologically and in the stool? |
|
Definition
Tx: Metronidazole
[image]
Histologogy:trophozoites
Stool: Cysts
also can cause liver abscesses and bloody diarrhea
[image][image]
|
|
|
Term
What is the vector for Leishmania?
How do you treat it? |
|
Definition
Sand fly
Tx: sodium stibogluconae
[image]
can cause visceral and cutaneous infections
hepatosplenomegaly
macrophages containing amastagotes
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is "bronze" diabetes? |
|
Definition
hereditary hemochromatosis
iron deposition in pancreas: diabetes
iron deposition in skin: hyperpigmentation
[image][image]
Iron Man has a Bronze chrome Face but deep down he is soft and sweet.
|
|
|
Term
What is Wilson's disease? |
|
Definition
AR disease causing an inability to get copper into bile for excretion so it builds up in liver, brain, cornea, kidney and joints
Tx: Penicillamine
low ceruloplasmin is diagnostic
Cirrhosis of liver
Golden rings aroound the eye
Basal ganglia degeneration with parkinsonian symptoms
hemolytic anemia
HCC
Fanconi Syndrome
Asterexis
Dementia
Dysarthria
Dyskinesia
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is hemochromatosis?
What are the diagnostic markers?
What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
excess Iron deposition
Cirrhosis
Diabetes
Skin pigmentation
elevated ferritin
elevated total iron (decreased total iron binding capacity)
increased transferrin saturation
decreased
increased risk of HCC
secondary(multiple transfusions) or primary (AR)
Tx: phlebotomy and deferoxamine
|
|
|
Term
Cirrhosis with Emphysema in a young nonsmoker would cause you to suspect what? |
|
Definition
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Panacinar Emphysema specifically
codominant disease
[image] |
|
|
Term
What type of hepatic tumors are women on OCs susceptible to? |
|
Definition
Hepatic adenoma
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
Vinyl chloride and Arsenic exposure predispose you to developing what kind of hepatic malignancy? |
|
Definition
Hepatic Angiosarcoma
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the most common primary tumor of the liver in adults? |
|
Definition
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
serum marker: alpha fetoprotein
rsik factor for Bud-Chiari Syndrome |
|
|
Term
A young man presents with ataxia and tremors. He has brown pigmentation in a ring around the periphery of his cornea. What treatment should he receive? |
|
Definition
Penacillamine
He has Wilson's disease |
|
|
Term
A 20-year-old man contracts influenza then presents with an idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia. What is the most likely cause? |
|
Definition
Gilbert syndrome
stress caused jaundice |
|
|
Term
What cocktail of medications is commonly taken by patients suffering from cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Lactulose (for hepatic encephalopathy)
Vitamin K (to maximize clotting potential)
Diuretics (for ascites and edema)
Beta-blocker (to preent bleeding of esophageal varices) |
|
|
Term
Which immunoglobulin isotype is associated with eosinophilia? Which cytokine is associated with differentiation of eosinophils? |
|
Definition
IgE (E for Eosinophils)
IL-5 |
|
|
Term
How does a high fiber diet help with cholesterol? |
|
Definition
bile contains cholesterol and fiber binds bile and increases its secretion, thus more cholesterol is excreted as well |
|
|
Term
What is the overall differential diagnosis for hyperbilirubinemia? |
|
Definition
Unconjugated billirubin: Blood, Bugs/Drugs/ Enzyme
Increased bilirubin production
hemolytic anemia
sickle cell
Hematoma breakdown
[image]
Increased bilirubin uptake and storage
Post viral hepatitis
Rifampin
[image]
Decreased UDP-GT activity
Gilbert's Syndrome
Crigler Najjar Syndrome
Neonatal physiologic jaundice
[image]
__________________________________________
Conjugated: Transport, Damage, Intra/Extra Obstruction
Impaired transport:
-Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
-Rotor Syndrome
[image]
Biliary epithelial damage
-hepatitis
-cirrhosis
-liver failure
[image]
Intrahepatic Biliary Obstruction
-primary biliary sclerosis
-Sclerosing cholangitis
-Chlorpromazine and arsenic
[image]
Extrahepatic biliary obstruction
-pancreatic neoplasms
-choledocholithiasis
-pancreatitis
-cholangiocarcinoma
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What is the fate of bilirubin after it is conjugated and secreted into the GI tract? |
|
Definition
acted upon by gut bacteria to form urobilinogen
some is excreted
some is reabsorbed |
|
|
Term
Concentric onion skin fibrosis of the bile duct
is associated with what disease?
|
|
Definition
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
men around 40yo
60% p-ANCA
ulcerative colitis
cholangiocarcinoma
beads on a string with ERCP
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
Anti-mitochondria
middle aged females
Pruritis without Jaundice
What is the dieases and treatment?
|
|
Definition
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
TX: Ursodiol
|
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose gallstones? |
|
Definition
right upper quadrant ultra sound |
|
|
Term
What is a sign of Cholecystitis? |
|
Definition
Positive Murphy's Sign
pain upon deep palpation and deep breathing
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis? |
|
Definition
PBC: middle aged females, positive Anit-mitochondria Ab, Autoimmune diseases *like CREST scleroderma*
PSC:unknown etiology, p-ANCA, middle aged males, ERCP of beading and stricturing, associated with ulcerative colitis and cholangiocarcinoma
|
|
|
Term
What is Reynold's pentad for cholangitis? |
|
Definition
Fever
Jaundice
Right Upper Quadrant Pain
Hypotension
Altered Mental Status |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for developing gallstones? |
|
Definition
Four Fs
Female
Fat
Fertile
Forty |
|
|
Term
What is Abetalipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
AR disorder lacking ApoB48 ApoB100
Tx: Vitamin E helps
Sx:
failure to thrive
steatorrhea
Acanthocytosis
[image]
retinitis pigmenosa
ataxia
enterocytes swollen with TGs
[image] |
|
|
Term
What deficiency causes familial hyperlipidemia? |
|
Definition
Deficiency of LDL receptors
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which Apoprotein activates LCAT? |
|
Definition
Apo A-1
A-1 steak sauce on a cat |
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein mediates chylomicron secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein mediates chylomicron secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein mediates VLDL secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein binds to LDL receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein is a cofactor for lipoprotein lipase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Apo protein mediates the uptake of remnant particles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme is inhibited by statins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme for fatty acid synthesis? |
|
Definition
Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
[image] |
|
|
Term
Where do you make fatty acids?
Where do you degrade them? |
|
Definition
synthesis: cytoplasm
degradation: mitochondria |
|
|
Term
What Amino acid is a precursor to the following molecules:
Histamine
Porphyrin, heme
Nitric Oxide
GABA
Creatine
SAM |
|
Definition
Histamine: Hisitidine
Porphyrin, heme: Glycine
Nitric Oxide: Arginine
GABA: Glutamate
Creatine: Arginine
SAM: Methionine |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme of the urea cycle? |
|
Definition
Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 1
[image]
gets nitrogen from ammonium
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common disorder of the urea cycle? |
|
Definition
Ornithine Trancabamoylase Deficiency
BUN is low
hyperammonemia: hepatoencephalopathy
Tx: Phenylbutyrate
Lactulose |
|
|
Term
How is Lactulose used as a drug? |
|
Definition
It is digested by bacteria in the colon and creates an acidic environment in the colon allowing ammonia to diffuse into the colon where it is acidified and made into ammonium where it can be excreted out of the body |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis? |
|
Definition
Carbomoyl Phosphate Synthetase II
gets nitrogen from glutamine
cytosol
|
|
|
Term
Which enzymes are required to turn Phenylalanine to DOPA? |
|
Definition
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Dihydropterin reductase |
|
|
Term
What are the byproducts of MAO and COMT enzymatic activity on Dopamin, NE, and E? |
|
Definition
Dopamine--> HVA
Norepinephrine-->VMA
Epinephrine-->Metanephrine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
deficiency in enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase or the cofactor Tetrahydropbioterin (BH4)
phenylketones build up
can cause mental retardation
growth retardation
fair skin and hair
mousy body odor
If mom has poorly managed PKU, the fetus will suffer-mental retardation, microcephaly and congenital heart defects
screen infants 2-3 days after birth bc mom can give tyrosine to baby but after delivery, you can check for phenylketones if they have PKU
[image] |
|
|
Term
Dark urine, dark connective tissues and these findings in the eyes
[image] |
|
Definition
Alkaptonuria
deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase
benign, but can cause arthralgias |
|
|
Term
What is Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
|
|
Definition
deficiency of the enzyme alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase
leading to a buildup of the branched amino acids Isoleucine, Leucine and Valine
causes mental retardation and death
[image] |
|
|
Term
What three well known drugs are metabolized via zero order kinetics? |
|
Definition
Phenytoin
Ethanol
Aspirin
PEA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acid disassociation constant
the pH where the amount of which the protonated form is equal to the nonprotonated form
If pH is lower than pKa, there is more protonated form
If pH is higher than pKa, there is more nonprotonated form |
|
|
Term
How do you treat acidic drug overdoses? |
|
Definition
Sodium bicarbonate
bicarbonate becomes concentrated in the urine which becomes basic and weak acids will be trapped in the urine and excreted |
|
|
Term
How do you treat basic drug overdoses? |
|
Definition
Treat basic drug OD (i.e., amphetamines) with NH4Cl (Ammonium Chloride) traps basic drug in the acidic urine |
|
|
Term
What are Phase I reactions of drug metabolism? |
|
Definition
Hydrolysis Oxidation Reduction
results in a slightly polar, water soluble (usually) active metabolite
cytochrome p450 rxns are Phase I rxns
Elderly people lose these rxns first
[image] King Hor 1st active king in 450BC, lost throne when got old |
|
|
Term
What are Phase II reactions of Drug metabolism? |
|
Definition
Conjugation reactions
Acetylation
Glucoronidation
Sulfation
Methylation
very polar, inactive metabolites that can be excreted |
|
|
Term
Which cytochrome metabolizes most of the drugs? |
|
Definition
CYP3A4
If you give two drugs that are both metabolized by the same enzyme, you can have drug-drug interactions
either inducing or inhibiting effect |
|
|
Term
What drugs are p450 Inhibitors? |
|
Definition
PICK EGS
Protease Inhibitors
Isonazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Grapefruit Juice
Sulfonamides
|
|
|
Term
What drugs are p450 Inducers? |
|
Definition
BCG PQRS
Barbituates
Carbamazepine
Griseofulvin
Phenytoin
Quinidine
Rifampin
St. Johns Wart |
|
|
Term
How would you treat ethanol or methanol poisoning? |
|
Definition
Fomepizole
inhibits Alcohol dehydrogenase
Fomepizole prevents formation of Formaldehyde
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is Disulfuram used for? |
|
Definition
Disulfuram inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, the second step in alcohol metabolism.
Acetaldehydes build up in the blood and cause very untoward symptoms like nausea, vomiting, headache and hypotension
used to discourage alcohol consumption in addicts
Other drugs that have a disulfuram-like reaction:
metronidazole
certain cephalosporins
procarbazine
1st gen. sulfonylureas |
|
|
Term
Know your drug suffixes
very high yield!
write down as many as you can or have someone quiz you |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme for the following metabolic pathways?
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenisis
TCA Cycle
Glycogen Synthesis
Glycogenlysis |
|
Definition
Glycolysis : Phsophofructokinase
__________________________________
Gluconeogenesis: Fructose-1.6-bisphosphophatase
___________________________________
TCA Cycle: Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
_______________________________________
Glycogen Synthesis: Glycogen Synthase
__________________________________________
Glycogenlysis: Glycogen Phosphorylase |
|
|
Term
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A? |
|
Definition
Factor VIII
prolonged PTT
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the deficiency of Hemophilia B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do patients become transiently hypercoaguable when they first start treatment with Warfarin? |
|
Definition
Because warfarin not only inhibits Factors II, VII, IX, X, but it also inhibits Protein C and S more rapidly Protein C and S normally inhibits Factors V, and VIII (ACCELERATING FACTORS) so you should give pts heparin for first days they are on warfarin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What mineral is necessary for coagulation?
How can this be used clinically to decrease coagulation? |
|
Definition
Calcium
Calcium binders can decrease coagulation (IV citrate)
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
Which coagulation factors are dependent in Vitamin K for synthesis? |
|
Definition
Factors II, VII, IX, X
10,9,7,2
Protein S
Protein C
SC in 1972 was filled with Koalas
|
|
|
Term
Vitamin K deficiency will result in what changes to PT and PTT? |
|
Definition
Increase both
(intrinsic PTT
extrinsic PT)
|
|
|
Term
In general what kind of hemorrhages do you see with coagulation disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
40-50% of hereditary thrmobosis syndromes
mutation of Factor V which is resitant to inhibition by protein C |
|
|
Term
What is Prothrombin G20210A Mutation? |
|
Definition
Mutation of Guanine to Alanine |
|
|
Term
What are some of the effects of bradykinin on the body? |
|
Definition
increased vascular permeability
vasodilation
increased pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
superchargeS antithrombin
short half life
can be used in pregancy bc doesn't cross placenta
used: pulmonary embolism, stroke, DVT, MI
monitor PTT
SE:bleeding, bone loss, osteporosis, HIT (Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia-->hypercoagulable state so have to treat hese patients with Lepirudin/Bivalrudin |
|
|
Term
What are Lepirudin and Bivalrudin ? |
|
Definition
Direct thrombin inhibitor (like antithrombin) (derived from leech spit) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat a patient with HIT? |
|
Definition
1.stop heparin
2. stop the clotting potential -start them on a direct thrombin inhibitor until platelets rise again (can't start warfarin right awat for risk of warfarin necrosis in HIT pts) and
3. start warfarin
Explanation:In HIT, the immune system forms Antibodies against heparin when it is bound to a protein, Platelet Factor 4. These antibodies are usually of the IgG class and their development usually takes about five days. However, those who have been exposed to heparin in the last few months may still have circulating IgG, as IgG-type antibodies generally continue to be produced even when their precipitant has been removed.
The IgG antibodies form a complex with heparin and PF4 in the bloodstream causing platelet activation---> formation of blood clots----->platelet count drops---->thrombocytopenia
|
|
|
Term
What do you use to reverse heparin when too much has been given? |
|
Definition
Protamine Sulfate
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are the LMW heparins? |
|
Definition
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Dalteparin
inactivate Factor Xa
longer half life
can be given subcutaneous instead of IV like heparin
no need to monitor
not interchangeable however
"Low Maintenance"
"Longer Life"
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka Coumadin
inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase
inhibits liver from manufacturing clotting factors
effects PT
used for: atrial fibrillation, DVT prophylaxis and treatment, PE treatment
pts on warfarin shouldn;t eat green leafy veggies or food high in Vit.K
TERATOGEN! Do not use in pregnacy. crosses placenta |
|
|
Term
What are the important differences between heparin and warfarin?
|
|
Definition
Heparin:
IV
short half life
immediate acting
treatment for overdose:protamine sulfate
[image]
(Hepburn is the Protaganist)
monitor: PTT
safe in pregnant women
_______________________________________
Warfarin:
Oral
long half life
must be started with heparin initially or become hypercoagulable
treatment for overdose: Oral or IV Vit.K or fresh frozen plasma
monitor: PT/INR
TERATOGENIC
[image]
declares WAR on the fetus
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
activate plasmin to lyse clots
used in early MI, acute stroke
tPA, rPA, TNK-tPA
contraindicated in pts. with active bleeds, hx of intracranial bleeds, recent surgery, bleeding diatheses, severe HTN
Treat toxicity with: Aminocaproic Acid (inhibits fibrinolysis) |
|
|
Term
What disorder might you suspect in a patient with a perianal fistula? What study would you order to further confirm your suspicion? |
|
Definition
Crohn's disease
barium small bowel follow through
looking for string sign |
|
|
Term
What are the embryologic origins of bone marrow? |
|
Definition
Young Liver Synthesis Blood
Yolk Sac
Liver and Spleen
Bone Marrow
(flat bones especially on young children)
axial skeleton in adults |
|
|
Term
What molecule is responsible for the biconcave shape and flexibility of RBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the average life spanc of a healthy RBC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology to the disease
Acanthocytes |
|
Definition
Liver disease
Abetalipoproteinemia
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology to the disease
Basophilic Stippling |
|
Definition
TAIL
Thalassemias
Anemia (chronic)
Iron deficiency
Lead Poisoning
inhibiting enzyme that breaks down RNA
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology to the disease
Heinz Bodies and Bite Cells |
|
Definition
G6PDeficiency
[image][image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology with the disease.
Elliptocytes |
|
Definition
Hereditary Elliptocytosis
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology with the disease.
Macroovalocyte |
|
Definition
Megaloblastic Anemia
Marrow Failure
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathaology with the disease.
Sideroblast |
|
Definition
nuclear RBC precursors with granules of iron in cytoplasm
found in bone marrow of healthy people
Too many is called a ringed-sideroblast in the bone marrow and this is not normal
Anemia due to a lot of other things
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology with the disease
Schistocyte |
|
Definition
Fragmented RBCs by being forced through areas like fibrin bands in vasculature
DIC
TTPHUS
[image] |
|
|
Term
Associate the pathology with the disease.
Spherocytes |
|
Definition
Hereditary Spherocytosis
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Thalassemia
Hemoglobin C
Asplenia
Liver disease
[image]
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What name is given to immature erythrocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another way to say Polycythemia? |
|
Definition
Eythrocytosis (too many RBCs) |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme in Heme synthesis? |
|
Definition
ALA Synthase
require B6
[image]= [image] +[image] |
|
|
Term
Abdominal pain, port wine urine, polyneuropathy, psychological disturbances
What's the disease and cause? |
|
Definition
Acute Intermittent Porphyria
uroporphyrinogen I synthase |
|
|
Term
Blistering, photosensitivity, tea colored urine, facial hyperpigmentation, excessive hair growth, elevated ALT and AST
What's the disease and cause? |
|
Definition
Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
deficiency in Uroporphoryinogen decarboxylase
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
GI disturbances, basophilic stippling, microcytic anemia, wrist drop and foot drop, darkened gingiva
What disease? |
|
Definition
Lead poisoning
Burton's lines
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are some of the different causes of polycythemia? |
|
Definition
elevated erythropoietin
renal cell carcinoma
HCC
Pheochromocytoma
Hemangioblastoma
Chronic Hypoxia (COPD , OSA)
Polycythemia Vera
Down Syndrome
|
|
|
Term
What is the structure of HbH? |
|
Definition
4 Beta globins
seen in:
alpha thalassemia
Hemoglobin H disease
A House of 4 Beta fish will be bad because they each have to be the alpha
[image]
[image]
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What charge is on histones?
What gives them this charge? |
|
Definition
Positive
Lysine and Arginine
LA makes you positive bc its always sunny
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the Purines and Pyrimadines? |
|
Definition
Nucleotides:
Purines: Adenine and Guanine
Pyrimidine: Cytosine,Uracil (deaminated Cytosine) and Thiamine
CUT the Pyrimadine
[image]
C-G has 3 H bonds (more C-G, Higher melting temp,stronger bond)
A-T has 2 H bonds
|
|
|
Term
What do you need for Purine Synthesis? |
|
Definition
Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine
CO2, Tetrahydrofolate
[image][image][image]
Carbon sources: CO2, Tetrahydrofolate and Glycine |
|
|
Term
What do you need for Pyrimidine Synthesis? |
|
Definition
Aspartate, Glutamine, Tetrahydrofolate, CO2
[image][image][image]
Carbomyl phosphate-->Orotic acid (Base) +sugar
[image] [image][image]
For an erotic night for 2, make a Py (Pie), but you will need to start with your 2 Carb base and add sugar and take a dip in the pool
Carbomyl phosphate Synthetase II- rate limiting step (found in the cytosol)[image]
|
|
|
Term
What causes Orotic Aciduria? |
|
Definition
Two causes:
1: disruption in urea cycle Ornithine TransCarbamylase Deficiency (OTCD)
2: The inability to convert Orotic acid to UMP, ends up in the urine
due to enzyme defects
AR disorder
failure to thrive
Megaloblastic anemia that does not improve with folate or B12 supplementation
Normal Ammonia levels
[image]
[image]
|
|
|
Term
Elevated Orotic Acid
Hyperammonemia |
|
Definition
Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency
OTCD
disruption of Urea Cycle |
|
|
Term
What drug inhibits Ribonucleotide reductase?
Why? |
|
Definition
UMP--->UDP
Hydroxyurea inhibits this enzyme
used to treat sickle cell
[image]
and drugs to treat cancer
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pyrimidine Analog that irreversibly Inhibits Thymydilate Synthase
dUMP--(x)--->dTMP
[image][image]
[image]
5-flouwers and a Py were seen at the dUMP to show cancer can't stop thy beauty
|
|
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Term
|
Definition
Anticancer/immunosuppressant drug that inhibits enzyme Dihydrofolate reductase from making folate in eukaryotes
The Method is Reducing the Trees
[image] [image] |
|
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Term
|
Definition
bacteriostatic agent that inhibits Dihydroreductase in Prokaryotes inhibiting folate production
Tri reducing the trees
[image] |
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Term
What is 6-Mercaptopurine? |
|
Definition
drug that inhibits PRPP Synthetase and thus inhibits purine synthesis
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|
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Term
|
Definition
Mycophenolate Mofetil is an Immunosuppressant that inhibits Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase in the de novo pathway of purine synthesis (guanine)
which is needed for creation of B and T cells
drug used for autoimmune disorders and organ transplant to prevent rejection
Myco Ino Mono
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Term
What is the relationship between Azathioprine and Allopurinol? |
|
Definition
Xanthine----(xanthine oxidase)--->Uric acid
6-Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine are metabolized by Xanthine oxidase.
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase
So if these drugs are taken with Allopurinol, their toxicity is increased
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Term
What are the PURINE Salvage deficiencies? |
|
Definition
HGPRT deficiency
Lesch-Nhyan Syndrome
deficiency of HGPRT----> build up of uric acid
gout, self mutilation(lip biting), writhing chorea, mental retardation
Tx: Allopurinol (only for hyperuricemia)
[image]
_______________________________________
Adenosine Deaminase deficiency
SCID
AMP--->Adenosine--(X)-->Inosine
chronic diarrhea, severe, recurrent infections, failure to thrive, absen thymic shadow
[image][image][image][image]
Tx: Enzyme replacement, Gene therapy, bone marrow transplant
___________________________________________
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|
Term
What is the rate limiting step in purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
Glutamine PRPP Aminotransferase |
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|
Term
How many adenine residues are found in a molecule of DNA if one strand contains A=3000, G=500, C=1500, and T=1000? |
|
Definition
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Term
What are the similarities and differnces of methotrexate and Trimethoprim? |
|
Definition
similarities: both are Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
differences:
TMP:bacteriostatic, works in prokaryotes : treats UTIs, used in combo with Sulfamehoxazole
Methotrexate: anti-cancer and immunosupressant: used in eukaryotes |
|
|
Term
What kind of errors does UV light make at the DNA level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What diseases are associated with Nucleotide excision DNA repair defect? |
|
Definition
Xeroderma Pigmentosa: hypersensitivity to UV light-->1000x increased risk of skin cancer
__________________________________________
Ataxia Telengiectasia: sensitivity to ionizing radiation, immunodeficeincy, ataxia beginning 1-2 years
_________________________________________
Bloom Syndrome: hypersensitivity to sunlight, leukemias and lymphomas are common, avg. age of cancer onset is 25
______________________________________
Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer
_______________________________________
BRCA1 and BRCA2 |
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|
Term
DNA Synthesis goes what direction? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which medication matches the following statement? • Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase • Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase • Inhibits thymidylate synthase • Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase • Inhibits PRPP synthetase |
|
Definition
• Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase : HYDROXYUREA
• Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase: TRIMETHOPRIM (prok) and METHOTREXATE (euk)
• Inhibits thymidylate synthase : 5-FLOUROURACIL
• Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase: MYCOPHENOLATE
• Inhibits PRPP synthetase: 6-MERCAPTOPURINE
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|
Term
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase matches the following description?
- Replicates lagging strand, synthesizes RNA primer
- Replicates mitochondrial DNA
- Replicates leading strand DNA
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Definition
- Replicates lagging strand, synthesizes RNA primer: DNA Polymerase alpha
- Repairs DNA: DNA polymerase beta, and epsilon
- Replicates mitochondrial DNA : DNA polymerase gamma
Replicates leading strand DNA: DNA Polymerase delta |
|
|
Term
What are the differences between CPS I and CPS II? |
|
Definition
CPS I:
rate limiting enzyme in urea cycle
loaction : mitochondria
nitrogen source: ammonia
_____________________________________________
CPS II:
rate limiting enzyme in pyrmidine synthesis
location:cytosol
nitrogen source: glutamine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bound to ferritin in the liver
Ferritin is released from the liver during times of inflammation or infection bc it can bind teh iron that the bacteria want and need to replicate
So increased levels of ferrtitin in serum could be indicative of inflammation/infection
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Term
What two main molecules is Iron bound to in the blood? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin and Transferrin |
|
|
Term
Zinc is essential for what?
What does Zinc deficiency cause? |
|
Definition
Carbonic Anhydrase
Wound Healing
Lactate Dehydrogenase
Zinc Deficiency :
decreased wound healing
rash around eyes, mouth, nose, anus
*acrodermatitis enteropathica*
[image]
anorexia
diarrhea
growth retardation
impaired night vision
infertility
depressed mental function
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Transferrin binds Iron in the blood and transports it from one location to the next
half life of 8 days
increased in times of Iron Deficiency
(think of lots of cabs waiting by the curb when peak times are low-- less customers, more cabs available) |
|
|
Term
What are the main two molecules Iron is bound to in cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some signs of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
Tetany and neuromuscular irritability
Chvostek's sign
Trousseau's sign
[image] |
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Term
What enzymes does lead inhibit? |
|
Definition
ALA dehydrogenase
Ferrochelatase
resulting in microcytic anemia
ringed sideroblasts (RBC precursors with mitochondira and lost of IRON)
[image] |
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|
Term
What is the treatment of lead toxicity? |
|
Definition
ADULTS:
EDTA
Succimer
______________________________________
CHILDREN:
EDTA
Dimercaprol
Succimer (3rd line) |
|
|
Term
Where does Mercury deposit? |
|
Definition
kidney and brain
[image][image] |
|
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Term
|
Definition
some areas of Bangladesh have arsenic in ground water
causes:
increase of cancer in every tissue, especially:
in lungs, skin
basal cell and squamous cell
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
some areas of Bangladesh have arsenic in ground water
causes:
increase of cancer in every tissue, especially:
in lungs, skin
basal cell and squamous cell
look for key clinical finding : garlic odor breath
[image]
Tx: Dimercaprol
[image] |
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|
Term
Cadmium poisoning target which areas of the body? |
|
Definition
Lung, Kidney, Bone
[image][image][image]
Obstructive lung disease
increased risk of lung cancer
Kidney injury
Osteoperosis/Osteomalacia
Calcium loss |
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic matches the following description?
• Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase • Binds 50S, blocking translocation • Bind 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA • Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase • Inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase • Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase
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|
Definition
• Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase: Streptogramins, Chlormaphenicol
_________________________________________
• Binds 50S, blocking translocation: Linezolid, Macrolides
________________________________________
• Bind 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA:Tetracyclines
________________________________________
• Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase:Rifampin
___________________________________________
• Inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase: Flouroquinolones
___________________________________________
• Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase: Trimethoprime
|
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|
Term
What are the microcytic anemias?
How do you tell? |
|
Definition
Look for MCV first <80 fL
HYPOchromic cells= low MCHC
MC: Iron Deficiency Anemia[image]
-due to blood loss,increased demand, colon cancer
hypochromic, assoc. with Plummer Vinson and glossitis
ferritin is low
transferrin is high
%transferrin saturation<12%
_________________________________________
Thalassemias: AR disorder of hemoglobin synthesis
Alpha Thalassemia[image]
defect in alpha globin synthesis
Alpha Thalassemia (African and Asians)
(2 or more alpha globins-mild)
HgH disease (4 beta globins)
[image]
Hydrops Fetalis (no alpha globin production)
_____________________________________________
Beta Thalassemia (mediterranean populations) [image]
Beta Thal minor
Beta Thal Major (no beta globins,severe anemia--> requires a lot of blood transfusions-->hemochromatosis (treat with deroxamine to chelate iron)
Histology:
-Target cells, marrow expansion and -hyperplasia (crew cut in skull imaging),
-increase in HgF (two alpha and two gamma)
____________________________________________
Lead poisoning [image]
ferrochetalase and ALA dehydrogenase are inhibited
sideroblastic anemia
(ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow: mitochondria in RBC precursors with granules filled with lead)
__________________________________________
Anemia of Chronic Inflammation
Iron is trapped in Macrophages
ferritin is normal or high
serum iron is low
transferrin is low
% transferrin saturation: normal or elevated
TIBC is decreased
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|
Term
What is anemia of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
Not anemia but rather a manifestation of increased plasma volume |
|
|
Term
What are the two general causes of anemia? |
|
Definition
Decreased cell production
(hematopoietic cell damage from infection, drugs, radiation etccc oR deficiency of factors required for heme or DNA synthesis like Iron, B12, folate)
Increased RBC loss
(hemorrhage, destruction) |
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia? |
|
Definition
Chronic Blood Loss
-menorrhagia
-bleeding GI lesion (like carcinoma of colon) (USA)
-hookworm disease (outside USA)
[image]
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|
|
Term
What test can be used to diagnosis beta-thalassemia minor? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
What lab findings allow you to distinguish iron deficiency anemia from a microcytic, hypochromic anemia resulting from thalassemia? |
|
Definition
Iron Deficiency:
Decreased serum Iron
Decreased Ferritin
Increased TIBC
_________________________________
Thalassemia
Normal Iron
Normal Ferritin
Normal TIBC
Target Cells |
|
|
Term
What should you rule-out in a male over 50 with new onset iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
Colon Cancer
(blood loss from lesion) |
|
|
Term
What are the Macrocytic Anemias? |
|
Definition
HMCV> 100 in adults
Megaloblastic (impaired DNA synthesis)
B12 deficiency Anemai: neurologic deficits
[image]
Folate deficiency Anemia
In both look for hypersegmented neutrophils, glossitis, elevated homocysteine
causes: malnutrition, malabsorption (disease, drugs, alcohol), increased requirement (pregnancy)
__________________________________________
Orotic Aciduria
*doesn't respond to B12 or folate replacement
________________________________________
____________________________________
Non-Megaloblastic
Liver disease
Alcoholism (can cause both megaloblastic and nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia)
Drugs:
AZT, 5-Flourouracil, Hydroxyurea ----->myelosuppression----> anemia
|
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|
Term
What are the normocytic Anemias? |
|
Definition
Hemolytic vs. Nonhemolytic Anemias
Nonhemolytic
Anemia of Chronic disease
-inflammatry mediator IL-6 causes liver to trap Iron
low iron
low TIBC
normal-high ferritin
_____________________________
Aplastic Anemia
-pancytopenia
caused by infections, drugs, radiation, Fancon's anemia, idiopathic
-hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltration
[image]
-fatigue, malaise, pallor, petechia, purpura, mucosal bleeding, infections
Chronic Kidney Disease
kidneys stop making Erythropoietin
______________________________________
Hemolytic
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|
Term
A patient is diagnosed with a macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia. What is the danger of giving folate alone? |
|
Definition
May correct the anemia, but if it is a comboned folate and B12 deficiency you have not addressed the B12 Deficiency and patient can develop peripheral neuropathy |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of anemia given the following statement?
• Microcytic anemia + swallowing difficulty + glossitis
• Microcytic anemia + > 3.5% HbA2
• Megaloblastic anemia not correctable by BI2 or folate
• Megaloblastic anemia along with peripheral neuropathy
• Microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling
• Microcytic anemia reversible with B6
• HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia
• Normocytic anemia + red urine in the morning • Normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine
|
|
Definition
• Microcytic anemia + swallowing difficulty + glossitis:
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
• Microcytic anemia + > 3.5% HbA2:
Beta Thalassemia
• Megaloblastic anemia not correctable by BI2 or folate:
Orotic Aciduria
• Megaloblastic anemia along with peripheral neuropathy
B12 Deficiency
• Microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling
Lead Poisoning
• Microcytic anemia reversible with B6
Sideroblastic Anemia
• HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia
Zidovudine (possibly)
• Normocytic anemia + red urine in the morning
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
• Normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine
Chronic Kidney disease |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 mecanisms cell employ to break down protein? |
|
Definition
Calcium dependent enzymes
Ubiquitin protein ligase
lysosomes |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for lead posioning? |
|
Definition
Succimer and EDTA in Adults
Dimercaprol, EDTA and Succimer (3RD line) in Kids |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
normocytic, normochromic anemia
Intravascular or Extravascular
Intravascular:
decreases haptoglobin
increase in unconjugated bilirubin
types:
Paroxsymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
Mechanical Destruction (Aortic stenosis, prosthetic valves)
____________________________________________
Extravascular
something wrong with RBCs and cells are actively destroyed by macrophages in spleen
G6PD
Sickle Cell
HgC disease
Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
Hereditary Spherocytosis
|
|
|
Term
The Omotic fragility test is used to diagnose what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two protozoal diseases that can cause hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a warm agglutinin and a cold agglutinin? |
|
Definition
different kinds of autoimmune hemolytic anemias
Warm: IgG chronic anemia, or with certain drugs seen in SLE, CLL, alpha-methyldopa
______________________________________________
Cold: IgM, acute anemia triggered by cold, seen in CLL, Mycoplasma Pneumonia infections, EBV |
|
|
Term
An 11-year-old child presents with a chronic non-healing ulcer on his foot and imaging shows a small calcified spleen. What drug can improve his symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What name is given to anemia resulting from mechanical destruction of erythrocytes due to aortic stenosis or prosthetic heart values? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
Peptidyl transferase (ribozyme) |
|
|
Term
What conditions are associated with target cells? |
|
Definition
HALT said the huntress to her target
HbC disease
Asplenia
Liver Disease
Thalassemia
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are the platelet disorders? |
|
Definition
BIG T
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome:
hereditary defect: platelet plug formation,
decreased GpIb-->defect in platelet to vWF adhesion
increased BT, decreased PC
enlarged platelet that are taken out of circulation by the spleen
__________________________________________
Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia
hereditary defect: platelet plug formation
decreased GpIIb/IIIa-->defect in platele to platelet aggregation
normal platelet count, increased BT
No platelet clumping on lab smears
___________________________________________
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
[image]
acquired defect: anti GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
causing splenic macrophages to chew up platelt/antibody complexes and decrease platelt life span
increased megakaryotes, decreased PC, increased BT
___________________________________________
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
defect: ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotease)
causes a decrease in degradation of vWF multimers
increased vWF multimers-->increased platelet agg & thrombosis-->decreased platelet survival
Labs show schistocytes, increased LDH, decreased PC, increased BT
Sx: pentad:
Neuro
Renal (Uremia)
Fever
Thrombocytopenia
Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia
________________________________________
TTP-HUS
milder form of TTP
Triad: Hemolysis, Uremia, Thrombocytopenia
assoc. with E.Coli 0157:H7 infection
[image] |
|
|
Term
What molecule is expressed on the surface of a platelet after it becomes activated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder? |
|
Definition
von Willebrand's disease
mixed platelet and coagulation disorder
Tx: DDAVP(Desmopressin) releases vWF stored in endothelium
increased BT, normal or increased PTT
mild disease, AD
Dx: Ristocetin cofactor assay |
|
|
Term
What are the two Mixed platelet and coagulation disorders? |
|
Definition
von Willebrand's disease
&
DIC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A mixed platelet and coagulation disorder characterized by widespread clotting that leads to a deficieincy in clotting factors, creating a bleeding state
Causes: Stop Making New Thrombi
Sepsis (gram-)
Trauma
Obstetric complications
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephrotic Syndrome
Transfusion
Labs: schistocytes, increased fibrin split products (D-dimers), decreased fibinogen, decreased coag factors V and VIII
Increased PT, PTT, and BT
Decreased PC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor resulting in decreased DNA Synthesis (S phase specific)
treats: Melanoma, Sickle Cell(increases HbF), and CML
Toxicity: Bone marrow suppression, GI upset
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
What are Clopidegrol and Ticlopidine? |
|
Definition
Platelet inhibitors
ADP receptor blockers
reducing expression of GpIIb/IIIa-->no platelet aggregation
used for: acute MI, prevent strokes, 6-12 months after stenting following, aspirin alternative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monoclonal antibody
block GpIIb/IIIa
USED FOR: acute coronary syndromes, especially non-ST elevation MI, and angioplasty
can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the following drugs?
• Streptokinase
• Aspirin • Clopidogrel • Abciximab • Tirofiban • Ticlopidine • Enoxaparin • Eptifibatide |
|
Definition
• Streptokinase (tPA): converts plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves fibrin and breaks clots *thrombolytic*
• Aspirin: irreversibly inhibits COX-1
• Clopidogrel: blocks ADP receptors
• Abciximab: binds to GpIIb/IIIa
• Tirofiban: binds to GpIIb/IIIa
• Ticlopidine: blocks ADP receptor
• Enoxaparin:LMW heparin: catalyzes activation of anithrombin III
• Eptifibatide: binds to Gp IIb/IIIa
|
|
|
Term
What CNS lymphomas are associated with AIDS? |
|
Definition
Kaposi Sarcoma
Invasive SCC
CNS lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma |
|
|
Term
What cancer is associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between Leukemia and Lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Leukemia is lymphoid or myeloid neoplasms with widespread involvement of bone marrow. Tumor cells found in peripheral blood
Lymphoma is discrete tumor masses arising from the lymph nodes |
|
|
Term
What is Hodgkin's Lymphoma? |
|
Definition
localized single group of nodes with contiguous spread, rubbery feel, can be seen mediatinally sometimes
Characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells
CD30+ and CD15+B cell origin
more of these cells, the worse the prognosis
[image]
Bimodal distribution=young adults &>55yo.
more common in men except for nodular sclerosing type
1/2 associated with EBV
low grade fever, night sweats, weight loss, painless lymphadenopathy
[image]
Types:
MC: Nodular Sclersosing (good px --only one more common in women than men)
2nd MC: Mixed Cellularity (poor px :()
Lymphocyte predominant (good px)
Lymphocyte depleted (poor px :( )
|
|
|
Term
What are Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas? |
|
Definition
more extranodular involvement
peak incidence 20-40 years
assoc. with HIV and Immunosuppression
Fever, constitutional sx
majority of B cell lineage (except, of course, lymphoblastic T cell lymphomas)
Subtypes:
Burkitt's Lymphoma: t8;14 translocation of c-myc(8) and heavy chain Ig(14)
adolescents and young adults
Starry sky appearance
[image]
sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages
assoc. with EBV
Jaw lesion in endemic form (Africa)
Pelvic or Abdomen in sporadic
______________________________________________
Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma:
older adults but 20% are children, most common adult NHL and in the USA in general!, may be mature T cell in origin 20%
____________________________________________
Mantle Cell Lymphoma:
older males
t(11;14) translocation of cyclin D1 and heavy chain Ig
poor prognosis
CD5+
___________________________________________
Follicular Lymphoma:
Adults
t(14;18) translocation of heavy chain Ig (14 and bcl-2(18)
difficult to cure; indolent course
bcl-2 inhibits apopotosis |
|
|
Term
What is the lymphoma equivalent of CLL? |
|
Definition
Small lymphocytic lymphoma |
|
|
Term
What lymphoma is associated with chronic Celiac's disease? |
|
Definition
Intestinal T cell lymphoma |
|
|
Term
What is the general histologic characteristic of acte leukemias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
most common malignancy in children
males>females
whites>blacks
predominance of lymphoblasts in the circulating blood and bone marrow
bone pain is common
most have TdT
PAS+
very good prognosis-->very responsive to therapy
best prognosis is CD10+ type, hyperdiploidy and t(12;21)/TEL-AML1 rearrangement
assoc. with Down's Syndrome
difficult to dx on blood smear
poor prognosis: Philadephia Chr. t(9;22)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acute Myeloid(myeloblastic) Leukemia
most often in adults
chracteristic Auer Rods
[image]
predominance of myeloblasts
most CD 13/33+
nonspecific esterase+ myeloid cells
PAS-
worse prognosis than ALL
associated with numerous risk factors (including Down's Syndrome)
classification into subgroups based on a variety of factors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
(same as small lymphocytic lymphoma)
<5% blasts (more mature cells)
characterized by proliferation of neoplastic lymphoid cells (usually B cells) with widespread infiltration of the bone marrow, peripheral blood, lymph nodes, spleen, liver and other organs
older than 60 yo, mostly men
express surface Ig and pan-B cell markers like CD19, CD20 and CD5+ also
often appear as smudge cells
[image]
peripheral WBC count can vary normal to high
hepatosplenomegaly,lymphadenopathy
Complications: Warm antibody hemolytic anemia
Hypoagammaglobulinema
Survival 5-10 years
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a chromic form of AML
Philadelphia chromosome always present
t(9;22) bcr-abl
fatigue, abdominal pain and splenomegaly
|
|
|
Term
Name the 4 important Myeloproliferative Disorders |
|
Definition
monoclonal proliferation of mature myeloid cells
Polycythemia Vera
Essential Thrombocytosis
Myelofibrosis
CML
|
|
|
Term
Erythrocytosis, plethora, headache, splenomegaly, hyper-viscosity, and low erythropoietin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bone marrow infiltrated with fibrotic tissue..? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bone marrow infiltrated with adipose...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Multiple Myeloma? |
|
Definition
malignancy of plasma cells
large production of antibodies
most common tumor of the bone in ppl over 50
hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, back pain
plasma cells make local osteolytic cytokines that stimulate osteoclasts and inhibit osteoblasts
susceptible to infection, amyloidosis (deposition of monoclonal IgG light chains (usually)), punched out lytic bone lesions, excessive monoclonal antibodies in serum and urine *not measured on ordinary urinalysis*
M protein, proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Signet ring cell in ovary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
signet ring cells
RBCs=malaria
ovary=krukenberg tumor (metastasis from stomach)
stomach= gastric adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
How do you test for a capsule (shell)? |
|
Definition
Quelling test
"Quelling for a shelling" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Epiglottitis
Haemophilus influenza type B (uncommon bc of vaccine) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
scarlet fever
kawasakis disease |
|
|
Term
Name all the drugs that have anticholinergic SE |
|
Definition
*do not give to pts with delerium, dementia, BPH, ileus*
Atropine
TCAs
H1 blockers (Diohenhydramine)
LOW potency Neuroleptics (Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine)
Digoxin
Amantadine
Promethazine |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause coronary vasospasm? |
|
Definition
*don't give to ppl at risk for MI, CAD, prinzmetal angina*
Cocaine
Amphetamines
Methamphetamines
Triptans (migraines and cluster headaches)
Ergotamines |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause cutaneous flushing? |
|
Definition
Vancomycin (RED man syndrome)
Niacin
Adenosine
Dihydripyridine CCBs (-dipines) |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs cause torsades de pointes?
What is treatment for torsades? |
|
Definition
Class IA Na channel blockers
Class III K channel blockers
Macrolides
Haloperidol
Chloroquine
Protease inhibitors (-navir)
tx: IV magnesium |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause agranulocytosis? |
|
Definition
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
Colchicine
PTU
Methimazole
Dapsone
|
|
|
Term
What drugs cause aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
Chloramphenicol (grey baby syndrome)
Benzene
NSAIDs
PTU
Methimazole |
|
|
Term
What can cause hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients? |
|
Definition
Isoniazid
Sulfonamides
Primaquine
High dose aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nitrofurantoin
Dapsone
Fava beans
Napthalene |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
Phenytoin
Methotrexate
Sulfa drugs
Zidovudine |
|
|
Term
What two important drugs can cuase thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
Heparin (HIT)
H2 blockers |
|
|
Term
Name three important drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis |
|
Definition
Bleomycin
Busulfan
Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic) |
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause focal to massive heaptic necrosis? |
|
Definition
Halothane
Acetaminophen
Valproate
Amanita phalloides (mushroom toxin) |
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