Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Step 1: Liver, biochem, pharm, heme
DIT J-L
226
Medical
Graduate
03/09/2015

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Which cranial nerves innervate muscles derived from the branchial arches?
Definition

CN V1,V2: 1st branchoal arch

 

CN VII: 2nd branchial arch

 

CNIX: 3rd branchial arch

 

CN X: 4th and 6th branchial arch

 

5,7,9,10

Term

What is the result of a glycolytic enzyme deficiency?

 

Definition
RBC hemolysis
Term
What is a result of a deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase?
Definition
Neurologic defects
Term
WhicH Hep viruses are spread fecal oral?
Definition

Hep A and Hep E

 

naked viruses (no envelope)

 

NO HCC risk

Term
Which Hep viruses increase risk of HCC?
Definition

Hep B (integrates into host genome and acts as an oncogene)

 

Hep C (from chronic inflammation)

 

Hep D

Term
How do you treat HCV?
Definition

 IFN-alpha

Ribavirin

Term

What type of viruses are

Hep A

Hep B

Hep C

Hep D

Hep E

Definition

Hep A: Picornavirus RNA

 

Hep B: Hepadnavirus DNA

 

Hep C: Flavivirus RNA

 

Hep D: Delta virus RNA

 

Hep E: Hepevirus RNA

Term
What are the hepatitis B serologic markers?
Definition

HBsAg : (surface antigen) indicates ACTIVE infection

 

Anti-HBs: (Antibody to the surface antigen)indicates recovered status

 

HBcAg:new disease

 

Anti-HBc: history of disease

 

HBeAg:(envelope antigen) ACTIVE VIRAL replication and HIGH TRANSMISSABILITY

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
Which HepB serologic marker would you see in a patient immunized to Hep B?
Definition
Anti-HBs only
Term
What are some serologic markers you might see in the setting of Autoimmune hepatitis?
Definition

ANA(+)

ANti-smooth muscle(+)

Anti-liver-kidney microsomal (+)


Anti-mitochondrial (-)

Virologic markers (-)

Term

How do you treat an infection with Entamoeba histolytica?

What would you see serologically and in the stool?

Definition

Tx: Metronidazole

[image]

 

Histologogy:trophozoites

Stool: Cysts

 

also can cause liver abscesses and bloody diarrhea

[image][image]

 

Term

What is the vector for Leishmania?

How do you treat it?

Definition

Sand fly

Tx: sodium stibogluconae

[image]

 

can cause visceral and cutaneous infections

hepatosplenomegaly

macrophages containing amastagotes

[image]

Term
What is "bronze" diabetes?
Definition

hereditary hemochromatosis

iron deposition in pancreas: diabetes

iron deposition in skin: hyperpigmentation

[image][image]

Iron Man has a Bronze chrome Face but deep down he is soft and sweet.

 

 

Term
What is Wilson's disease?
Definition

AR disease causing an inability to get copper into bile for excretion so it builds up in liver, brain, cornea, kidney and joints

Tx: Penicillamine

 

low ceruloplasmin is diagnostic

Cirrhosis of liver

Golden rings aroound the eye

Basal ganglia degeneration with parkinsonian symptoms

hemolytic anemia

HCC

Fanconi Syndrome

Asterexis

Dementia

Dysarthria

Dyskinesia

 

 

 

[image]

Term

What is hemochromatosis?

 

What are the diagnostic markers?

 

What is the treatment?

Definition

excess Iron deposition

Cirrhosis

Diabetes

Skin pigmentation

 

elevated ferritin

elevated total iron (decreased total iron binding capacity)

increased transferrin saturation

 

decreased

increased risk of HCC

secondary(multiple transfusions) or primary (AR)

 

Tx: phlebotomy and deferoxamine

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
Cirrhosis with Emphysema in a young nonsmoker would cause you to suspect what?
Definition

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

 

Panacinar Emphysema specifically

codominant disease

[image]

Term
What type of hepatic tumors are women on OCs susceptible to?
Definition

Hepatic adenoma

 

[image][image]

Term
Vinyl chloride and Arsenic exposure predispose you to developing what kind of hepatic malignancy?
Definition

Hepatic Angiosarcoma

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What is the most common primary tumor of the liver in adults?
Definition

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

 

serum marker: alpha fetoprotein

 rsik factor for Bud-Chiari Syndrome

Term
A young man presents with ataxia and tremors. He has brown pigmentation in a ring around the periphery of his cornea. What treatment should he receive?
Definition

Penacillamine

He has Wilson's disease

Term
A 20-year-old man contracts influenza then presents with an idiopathic hyperbilirubinemia. What is the most likely cause?
Definition

Gilbert syndrome

stress caused jaundice

Term
What cocktail of medications is commonly taken by patients suffering from cirrhosis?
Definition

Lactulose (for hepatic encephalopathy)

Vitamin K (to maximize clotting potential)

Diuretics (for ascites and edema)

Beta-blocker  (to preent bleeding of esophageal varices)

Term
Which immunoglobulin isotype is associated with eosinophilia?
Which cytokine is associated with differentiation of eosinophils?
Definition

IgE (E for Eosinophils)

 

IL-5

Term
How does a high fiber diet help with cholesterol?
Definition
bile contains cholesterol and fiber binds bile and increases its secretion, thus more cholesterol is excreted as well
Term
What is the overall differential diagnosis for hyperbilirubinemia?
Definition

Unconjugated billirubin: Blood, Bugs/Drugs/ Enzyme

 

Increased bilirubin production

hemolytic anemia

sickle cell

Hematoma breakdown

 

[image]



Increased bilirubin uptake and storage

Post viral hepatitis

Rifampin

[image]


Decreased UDP-GT activity

Gilbert's Syndrome

Crigler Najjar Syndrome

Neonatal physiologic jaundice


[image]

__________________________________________

 

Conjugated: Transport, Damage,  Intra/Extra Obstruction

Impaired transport:

-Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

-Rotor Syndrome

[image]


 

Biliary epithelial damage

-hepatitis

-cirrhosis

-liver failure

[image]

 

 

Intrahepatic Biliary Obstruction

-primary biliary sclerosis

-Sclerosing cholangitis

-Chlorpromazine and arsenic


[image]


Extrahepatic biliary obstruction

-pancreatic neoplasms

-choledocholithiasis

-pancreatitis

-cholangiocarcinoma


[image]

 

 

Term
What is the fate of bilirubin after it is conjugated and secreted into the GI tract?
Definition

acted upon by gut bacteria to form urobilinogen

some is excreted

some is reabsorbed

Term

Concentric onion skin fibrosis of the bile duct

is associated with what disease?

 

Definition

 

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

men around 40yo

60% p-ANCA

ulcerative colitis

cholangiocarcinoma

beads on a string with ERCP

 

[image]

[image]

Term

Anti-mitochondria

middle aged females

Pruritis without Jaundice

 

What is the dieases and treatment?

 

Definition

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

TX: Ursodiol

 

Term
How do you diagnose gallstones?
Definition
right upper quadrant ultra sound
Term
What is a sign of Cholecystitis?
Definition

Positive Murphy's Sign

pain upon deep palpation and deep breathing

[image]

Term
What is the difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Definition

PBC: middle aged females, positive Anit-mitochondria Ab, Autoimmune diseases *like CREST scleroderma*

 

PSC:unknown etiology, p-ANCA, middle aged males, ERCP of beading and stricturing, associated with ulcerative colitis and cholangiocarcinoma

 

Term
What is Reynold's pentad for cholangitis?
Definition

Fever

 

Jaundice

 

Right Upper Quadrant Pain

 

Hypotension

 

Altered Mental Status

Term
What are the risk factors for developing gallstones?
Definition

Four Fs

 

Female

Fat

Fertile

Forty

Term
What is Abetalipoproteinemia?
Definition

AR disorder lacking ApoB48 ApoB100

 

Tx: Vitamin E helps

 

Sx:

failure to thrive

steatorrhea

Acanthocytosis

[image]

retinitis pigmenosa

ataxia

 

enterocytes swollen with TGs

 

 

[image]

Term
What deficiency causes familial hyperlipidemia?
Definition

Deficiency of LDL receptors

[image]

Term
Which Apoprotein activates LCAT?
Definition

Apo A-1

 

A-1 steak sauce on a cat

Term
Which Apo protein mediates chylomicron secretion?
Definition
Apo B-48
Term
Which Apo protein mediates chylomicron secretion?
Definition
Apo B-48
Term
Which Apo protein mediates VLDL secretion?
Definition

Apo B-100

 

Term
Which Apo protein binds to LDL receptor?
Definition

Apo B100

[image]

Term
Which Apo protein is a cofactor for lipoprotein lipase?
Definition
Apo C-11
Term
Which Apo protein mediates the uptake of remnant particles?
Definition
ApoE
Term
What enzyme is inhibited by statins?
Definition

HMG-CoA reductase

 

 

Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme for fatty acid synthesis?
Definition

Acetyl CoA Carboxylase

[image]

Term

Where do you make fatty acids?

 

Where do you degrade them?

Definition

synthesis: cytoplasm

 

degradation: mitochondria

Term

What Amino acid is a precursor to the following molecules:

Histamine

Porphyrin, heme

Nitric Oxide

GABA

Creatine

SAM

Definition

Histamine: Hisitidine

 

Porphyrin, heme: Glycine

 

Nitric Oxide: Arginine

 

GABA: Glutamate

 

Creatine: Arginine

 

SAM: Methionine

Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme of the urea cycle?
Definition

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 1


[image]


gets nitrogen from ammonium

Term
What is the most common disorder of the urea cycle?
Definition

Ornithine Trancabamoylase Deficiency

 

BUN is low

hyperammonemia: hepatoencephalopathy

 

Tx: Phenylbutyrate

Lactulose

Term
How is Lactulose used as a drug?
Definition
It is digested by bacteria in the colon and creates an acidic environment in the colon allowing ammonia to diffuse into the colon where it is acidified and made into ammonium where it can be excreted out of the body
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis?
Definition

Carbomoyl Phosphate Synthetase II


gets nitrogen from glutamine

cytosol

Term
Which enzymes are required to turn Phenylalanine to DOPA?
Definition

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Dihydropterin reductase

Term
What are the byproducts of MAO and COMT enzymatic activity on Dopamin, NE, and E?
Definition

Dopamine--> HVA

 

Norepinephrine-->VMA

 

Epinephrine-->Metanephrine

Term
What is PKU?
Definition

deficiency in enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase or the cofactor Tetrahydropbioterin (BH4)

 

phenylketones build up

can cause mental retardation

growth retardation

fair skin and hair

mousy body odor

 

If mom has poorly managed PKU, the fetus will suffer-mental retardation, microcephaly and congenital heart defects

 

 

 

screen infants 2-3 days after birth bc mom can give tyrosine to baby but after delivery, you can check for phenylketones if they have PKU

[image]

Term

Dark urine, dark connective tissues and these findings in the eyes

[image]

Definition

Alkaptonuria

 

deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase

 

benign, but can cause arthralgias

Term

What is Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

 

 

Definition

deficiency of the enzyme alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase

leading to a buildup of the branched amino acids Isoleucine, Leucine and Valine

causes mental retardation and death

 

[image]

Term
What three well known drugs are metabolized via zero order kinetics?
Definition

Phenytoin

Ethanol

Aspirin

 

PEA

Term
What is pKA?
Definition

Acid disassociation constant

the pH where the amount of which the protonated form is equal to the nonprotonated form

 

If pH is lower than pKa, there is more protonated form

 

If pH is higher than pKa, there is more nonprotonated form

Term
How do you treat acidic drug overdoses?
Definition

Sodium bicarbonate

 

bicarbonate becomes concentrated in the urine which becomes basic and weak acids will be trapped in the urine and excreted

Term
How do you treat basic drug overdoses?
Definition
Treat basic drug OD (i.e., amphetamines) with NH4Cl (Ammonium Chloride) traps basic drug in the acidic urine
Term
What are Phase I reactions of drug metabolism?
Definition

 

Hydrolysis Oxidation Reduction

 

 

results in a slightly polar, water soluble (usually) active metabolite

cytochrome p450 rxns are Phase I rxns

 

Elderly people lose these rxns first

[image] King Hor 1st active king in 450BC, lost throne when got old

Term
What are Phase II reactions of Drug metabolism?
Definition

Conjugation reactions

 

Acetylation

Glucoronidation

Sulfation

Methylation

 

very polar, inactive metabolites that can be excreted

Term
Which cytochrome metabolizes most of the drugs?
Definition

CYP3A4

 

If you give two drugs that are both metabolized by the same enzyme, you can have drug-drug interactions

either inducing or inhibiting effect

Term
What drugs are p450 Inhibitors?
Definition

PICK EGS

 

Protease Inhibitors

Isonazid

Cimetidine

Ketoconazole

 

Erythromycin

Grapefruit Juice

Sulfonamides

 

Term
What drugs are p450 Inducers?
Definition

BCG PQRS

 

Barbituates

Carbamazepine

Griseofulvin

Phenytoin

Quinidine

Rifampin

St. Johns Wart

Term
How would you treat ethanol or methanol poisoning?
Definition

Fomepizole

inhibits Alcohol dehydrogenase

 

Fomepizole prevents formation of Formaldehyde

[image]

Term
What is Disulfuram used for?
Definition

Disulfuram inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, the second step in alcohol metabolism.

 

Acetaldehydes build up in the blood and cause very untoward symptoms like nausea, vomiting, headache and hypotension

 

used to discourage alcohol consumption in addicts

 

Other drugs that have a disulfuram-like reaction:

metronidazole

certain cephalosporins

procarbazine

1st gen. sulfonylureas

Term

Know your drug suffixes

very high yield!

 

write down as many as you can or have someone quiz you

Definition
[image]
Term

What is the rate limiting enzyme for the following metabolic pathways?

 

Glycolysis

Gluconeogenisis

TCA Cycle

Glycogen Synthesis

Glycogenlysis

Definition

Glycolysis : Phsophofructokinase

__________________________________

 

Gluconeogenesis: Fructose-1.6-bisphosphophatase

___________________________________

 

TCA Cycle: Isocitrate Dehydrogenase

_______________________________________

 

Glycogen Synthesis: Glycogen Synthase

__________________________________________

 

Glycogenlysis: Glycogen Phosphorylase

Term
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A?
Definition

Factor VIII

 

prolonged PTT

[image]

Term
What is the deficiency of Hemophilia B?
Definition

Factor IX

 

prolonged PTT

 

 

Term
Why do patients become transiently hypercoaguable when they first start treatment with Warfarin?
Definition

Because warfarin not only inhibits Factors II, VII, IX, X, but it also inhibits Protein C and S more rapidly

 

Protein C and S normally inhibits Factors V, and VIII (ACCELERATING FACTORS)

 

so you should give pts heparin for first days they are on warfarin

Term
How does heparin work?
Definition
It inhibits thrombin
Term

What mineral is necessary for coagulation?

How can this be used clinically to decrease coagulation?

Definition

Calcium

 

Calcium binders can decrease coagulation (IV citrate)

[image][image]

Term
Which coagulation factors are dependent in Vitamin K for synthesis?
Definition

Factors II, VII, IX, X

10,9,7,2

 

Protein S

Protein C

 

SC in 1972 was filled with Koalas

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
Vitamin K deficiency will result in what changes to PT and PTT?
Definition

Increase both

 

(intrinsic PTT

extrinsic PT)

 

Term
In general what kind of hemorrhages do you see with coagulation disorders?
Definition
Macrohemorrhages
Term
Factor V Leidein
Definition

40-50% of hereditary thrmobosis syndromes

mutation of Factor V which is resitant to inhibition by protein C

Term
What is Prothrombin G20210A Mutation?
Definition
Mutation of Guanine to Alanine
Term
What are some of the effects of bradykinin on the body?
Definition

increased vascular permeability

vasodilation

increased pain

Term
What is heparin?
Definition

superchargeS antithrombin

short half life

 

can be used in pregancy bc doesn't cross placenta

 

used: pulmonary embolism, stroke, DVT, MI

monitor PTT

SE:bleeding, bone loss, osteporosis, HIT (Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia-->hypercoagulable state so have to treat hese patients with Lepirudin/Bivalrudin

Term
What are Lepirudin and Bivalrudin ?
Definition
Direct thrombin inhibitor (like antithrombin)
(derived from leech spit)
Term
How do you treat a patient with HIT?
Definition

1.stop heparin

2. stop the clotting potential -start them on a direct thrombin inhibitor until platelets rise again  (can't start warfarin right awat for risk of warfarin necrosis in HIT pts) and

3. start warfarin

 

Explanation:In HIT, the immune system forms Antibodies against heparin when it is bound to a protein, Platelet Factor 4. These antibodies are usually of the IgG class and their development usually takes about five days. However, those who have been exposed to heparin in the last few months may still have circulating IgG, as IgG-type antibodies generally continue to be produced even when their precipitant has been removed.

 

The IgG antibodies form a complex with heparin and PF4 in the bloodstream causing platelet activation---> formation of blood clots----->platelet count drops---->thrombocytopenia

 

 

Term
What do you use to reverse heparin when too much has been given?
Definition

Protamine Sulfate

 

[image]

 

Term
What are the LMW heparins?
Definition

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

Dalteparin

 

inactivate Factor Xa

longer half life

can be given subcutaneous instead of IV like heparin

no need to monitor

not interchangeable however

 

"Low Maintenance"

"Longer Life"

 

Term
What is Warfarin?
Definition

aka Coumadin

inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase

inhibits liver from manufacturing clotting factors

 

effects PT

used for: atrial fibrillation, DVT prophylaxis and treatment, PE treatment

 

pts on warfarin shouldn;t eat green leafy veggies or food high in Vit.K

 

TERATOGEN! Do not use in pregnacy. crosses placenta

Term

What are the important differences between heparin and warfarin?


 

Definition

Heparin:

IV

short half life

immediate acting

treatment for overdose:protamine sulfate

[image]

(Hepburn is the Protaganist)

monitor: PTT

safe in pregnant women

 

_______________________________________

 

 

Warfarin:

Oral

long half life

must be started with heparin initially or become hypercoagulable

treatment for overdose: Oral or IV Vit.K or fresh frozen plasma

monitor: PT/INR

TERATOGENIC

[image]

declares WAR on the fetus


Term
What are thrombolytics?
Definition

activate plasmin to lyse clots

used in early MI, acute stroke

 

tPA, rPA, TNK-tPA

 

contraindicated in pts. with active bleeds, hx of intracranial bleeds, recent surgery, bleeding diatheses, severe HTN

 

Treat toxicity with: Aminocaproic Acid (inhibits fibrinolysis)

Term
What disorder might you suspect in a patient with a perianal fistula? What study would you
order to further confirm your suspicion?
Definition

Crohn's disease

barium small bowel follow through

looking for string sign

Term
What are the embryologic origins of bone marrow?
Definition

Young Liver Synthesis Blood

 

Yolk Sac

Liver and Spleen

Bone Marrow

(flat bones especially on young children)

axial skeleton in adults

Term
What molecule is responsible for the biconcave shape and flexibility of RBCs?
Definition
Spectrin
Term
What is the average life spanc of a healthy RBC?
Definition
120 days
Term

Associate the pathology to the disease

 

Acanthocytes

Definition

Liver disease

Abetalipoproteinemia

 

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology to the disease

 

Basophilic Stippling

Definition

TAIL

Thalassemias

Anemia (chronic)

Iron deficiency

Lead Poisoning

 

inhibiting enzyme that breaks down RNA

 

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology to the disease

 

Heinz Bodies and Bite Cells

Definition

G6PDeficiency

 

[image][image]

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology with the disease.

 

Elliptocytes

Definition

Hereditary Elliptocytosis

 

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology with the disease.

 

Macroovalocyte

Definition

Megaloblastic Anemia

Marrow Failure

 

[image]

Term

Associate the pathaology with the disease.

 

Sideroblast

Definition

nuclear RBC precursors with granules of iron in cytoplasm

 

found in bone marrow of healthy people

Too many is called a ringed-sideroblast in the bone marrow and this is not normal

 

Anemia due to a lot of other things

 

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology with the disease

 

Schistocyte

Definition

 

Fragmented RBCs by being forced through areas like fibrin bands in vasculature

 

DIC

TTPHUS

[image]

Term

Associate the pathology with the disease.

 

Spherocytes

Definition

Hereditary Spherocytosis

 

[image]

Term
Tear drop cells
Definition

Myelofibrosis

[image]

Term
Target Cells
Definition

Thalassemia

Hemoglobin C

Asplenia

Liver disease

 

[image]

 

Term
Howel Jolly Bodies
Definition
Asplenia
Term
What name is given to immature erythrocytes
Definition
reticulocytes
Term
What is another way to say Polycythemia?
Definition
Eythrocytosis (too many RBCs)
Term
What is the rate limiting enzyme in Heme synthesis?
Definition

ALA Synthase

 

require B6

[image]= [image] +[image]

Term

Abdominal pain, port wine urine, polyneuropathy, psychological disturbances

 

What's the disease and cause?

Definition

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

 

uroporphyrinogen I synthase

Term

Blistering, photosensitivity, tea colored urine, facial hyperpigmentation, excessive hair growth, elevated ALT and AST

 

What's the disease and cause?

Definition

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

 deficiency in Uroporphoryinogen decarboxylase

[image][image]

Term

GI disturbances, basophilic stippling, microcytic anemia, wrist drop and foot drop, darkened gingiva

 

What disease?

Definition

Lead poisoning

 

Burton's lines

[image]

Term
What are some of the different causes of polycythemia?
Definition

elevated erythropoietin

renal cell carcinoma

HCC

Pheochromocytoma

Hemangioblastoma

Chronic Hypoxia (COPD , OSA)

Polycythemia Vera

Down Syndrome

 

Term
What is the structure of HbH?
Definition

4 Beta globins

 

seen in:

 

alpha thalassemia

Hemoglobin H disease

 

A House of 4 Beta fish will be bad because they each have to be the alpha

[image]

[image]

[image]

[image]

Term

What charge is on histones?

 

What gives them this charge?

Definition

Positive

 

Lysine and Arginine

 

LA makes you positive bc its always sunny

[image]

Term
What are the Purines and Pyrimadines?
Definition

Nucleotides:

 

Purines: Adenine and Guanine

 

 

Pyrimidine: Cytosine,Uracil (deaminated Cytosine) and Thiamine

 

CUT the Pyrimadine

[image]

 

 

C-G has 3 H bonds (more C-G, Higher melting temp,stronger bond)

 

A-T has 2 H bonds

 

Term
What do you need for Purine Synthesis?
Definition

Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

CO2, Tetrahydrofolate

[image][image][image]

 

Carbon sources: CO2, Tetrahydrofolate and Glycine

Term
What do you need for Pyrimidine Synthesis?
Definition

Aspartate, Glutamine, Tetrahydrofolate, CO2

 

[image][image][image]

 

Carbomyl phosphate-->Orotic acid (Base) +sugar

 [image]  [image][image]

For an erotic night for 2, make a Py (Pie), but you will need to start with your 2 Carb base and add sugar and take a dip in the pool

 

Carbomyl phosphate Synthetase II- rate limiting step (found in the cytosol)[image]

 

Term
What causes Orotic Aciduria?
Definition

Two causes:

 

1: disruption in urea cycle Ornithine TransCarbamylase Deficiency (OTCD)


2: The inability to convert Orotic acid to UMP, ends up in the urine

due to enzyme defects

AR disorder

failure to thrive

 

Megaloblastic anemia that does not improve with folate or B12 supplementation


Normal Ammonia levels

 [image]

 

[image]

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term

Elevated Orotic Acid

Hyperammonemia

Definition

Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency

OTCD

disruption of Urea Cycle

Term

What drug inhibits Ribonucleotide reductase?

Why?

Definition

UMP--->UDP

 

Hydroxyurea inhibits this enzyme

 

used to treat sickle cell

[image]

and drugs to treat cancer

[image]

Term
What is 5-Flourouracil?
Definition

Pyrimidine Analog that irreversibly Inhibits Thymydilate Synthase


dUMP--(x)--->dTMP

 

[image][image]

[image]

 

5-flouwers and a Py were seen at the dUMP to show cancer can't stop thy beauty

 

Term
What is Methotrexate?
Definition

Anticancer/immunosuppressant drug that inhibits enzyme Dihydrofolate reductase from making folate in eukaryotes

 

 

The Method is Reducing the Trees

[image] [image]

Term
What is Trimethoprim
Definition

bacteriostatic agent that inhibits Dihydroreductase in Prokaryotes inhibiting folate production

 

Tri reducing the trees

[image]

Term
What is 6-Mercaptopurine?
Definition

drug that inhibits PRPP Synthetase and thus inhibits purine synthesis



Term
What is Mycophenolate?
Definition

Mycophenolate Mofetil is an Immunosuppressant that inhibits Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase in the de novo pathway of purine synthesis (guanine)

which is needed for creation of B and T cells

 

drug used for autoimmune disorders and organ transplant to prevent rejection


Myco Ino Mono

Term
What is the relationship between Azathioprine and Allopurinol?
Definition

Xanthine----(xanthine oxidase)--->Uric acid

 

6-Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine are metabolized by Xanthine oxidase.

 

Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase

 

So if these drugs are taken with Allopurinol, their toxicity is increased

 

 

 

 

Term
What are the PURINE Salvage deficiencies?
Definition

HGPRT deficiency

Lesch-Nhyan Syndrome

deficiency of HGPRT----> build up of uric acid

gout, self mutilation(lip biting), writhing chorea, mental retardation

Tx: Allopurinol (only for hyperuricemia)

[image]

 

_______________________________________

 

Adenosine Deaminase deficiency

SCID

 

AMP--->Adenosine--(X)-->Inosine

 

chronic diarrhea, severe, recurrent infections, failure to thrive, absen thymic shadow

[image][image][image][image]

Tx: Enzyme replacement, Gene therapy, bone marrow transplant

___________________________________________

 

 

Term
What is the rate limiting step in purine synthesis?
Definition
Glutamine PRPP Aminotransferase
Term
How many adenine residues are found in a molecule of DNA if one strand contains
A=3000, G=500, C=1500, and T=1000?
Definition
4000
Term
What are the similarities and differnces of methotrexate and Trimethoprim?
Definition

similarities: both are Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors

 

differences:

TMP:bacteriostatic, works in prokaryotes : treats UTIs, used in combo with Sulfamehoxazole

 

Methotrexate: anti-cancer and immunosupressant: used in eukaryotes

Term
What kind of errors does UV light make at the DNA level?
Definition
Thiamine-Thiamine dimers
Term
What diseases are associated with Nucleotide excision DNA repair defect?
Definition

Xeroderma Pigmentosa: hypersensitivity to UV light-->1000x increased risk of skin cancer

__________________________________________

 

Ataxia Telengiectasia: sensitivity to ionizing radiation, immunodeficeincy, ataxia beginning 1-2 years

_________________________________________

 

Bloom Syndrome: hypersensitivity to sunlight, leukemias and lymphomas are common, avg. age of cancer onset is 25

______________________________________

 

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

_______________________________________

 

BRCA1 and BRCA2

Term
DNA Synthesis goes what direction?
Definition
5'-3'
Term
Which medication matches the following statement?
• Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
• Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
• Inhibits thymidylate synthase
• Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
• Inhibits PRPP synthetase
Definition

• Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase : HYDROXYUREA


• Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase: TRIMETHOPRIM (prok) and METHOTREXATE (euk)


• Inhibits thymidylate synthase : 5-FLOUROURACIL


• Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase: MYCOPHENOLATE


• Inhibits PRPP synthetase: 6-MERCAPTOPURINE

Term

What eukaryotic DNA polymerase matches the following description?

  • Replicates lagging strand, synthesizes RNA primer
  • Repairs DNA
  • Replicates mitochondrial DNA
  • Replicates leading strand DNA
Definition
  • Replicates lagging strand, synthesizes RNA primer: DNA Polymerase alpha
  • Repairs DNA: DNA polymerase beta, and epsilon
  • Replicates mitochondrial DNA : DNA polymerase gamma

Replicates leading strand DNA: DNA Polymerase delta

Term
What are the differences between CPS I and CPS II?
Definition

CPS I:

rate limiting enzyme in urea cycle

loaction : mitochondria

nitrogen source: ammonia

_____________________________________________

 

CPS II:

rate limiting enzyme in pyrmidine synthesis

location:cytosol

nitrogen source: glutamine

Term
How is iron stored?
Definition

bound to ferritin in the liver

 

Ferritin is released from the liver during times of inflammation or infection bc it can bind teh iron that the bacteria want and need to replicate

 

So increased levels of ferrtitin in serum could be indicative of inflammation/infection

 

Term
What two main molecules is Iron bound to in the blood?
Definition
Hemoglobin and Transferrin
Term

Zinc is essential for what?

What does Zinc deficiency cause?

Definition

Carbonic Anhydrase

Wound Healing

Lactate Dehydrogenase

 

Zinc Deficiency :

decreased wound healing

rash around eyes, mouth, nose, anus

*acrodermatitis enteropathica*

[image]

anorexia

diarrhea

growth retardation

impaired night vision

infertility

depressed mental function

 

Term
What is Transferrin?
Definition

Transferrin binds Iron in the blood and transports it from one location to the next

 

half life of 8 days

 

increased in times of Iron Deficiency

(think of lots of cabs waiting by the curb when peak times are low-- less customers, more cabs available)

Term
What are the main two molecules Iron is bound to in cells?
Definition
Myoglobin and Ferritin
Term
What are some signs of hypocalcemia?
Definition

Tetany and neuromuscular irritability

Chvostek's sign

Trousseau's sign

[image]

Term
What enzymes does lead inhibit?
Definition

ALA dehydrogenase

Ferrochelatase

 

resulting in microcytic anemia

ringed sideroblasts (RBC precursors with mitochondira and lost of IRON)

[image]

Term
What is the treatment of lead toxicity?
Definition

ADULTS:

EDTA

Succimer

______________________________________

 

CHILDREN:

EDTA

Dimercaprol

Succimer (3rd line)

Term
Where does Mercury deposit?
Definition

kidney and brain

 

[image][image]

Term
Arsenic poisoning?
Definition

some areas of Bangladesh have arsenic in ground water

causes:

increase of cancer in every tissue, especially:

in lungs, skin

basal cell and squamous cell

[image]

Term
Arsenic poisoning?
Definition

some areas of Bangladesh have arsenic in ground water

causes:

increase of cancer in every tissue, especially:

in lungs, skin

basal cell and squamous cell

 

look for key clinical finding : garlic odor breath

[image]

Tx: Dimercaprol

[image]

Term
Cadmium poisoning target which areas of the body?
Definition

Lung, Kidney, Bone

[image][image][image]

Obstructive lung disease

increased risk of lung cancer

Kidney injury

Osteoperosis/Osteomalacia

Calcium loss

Term

Which antibiotic matches the following description?


• Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase
• Binds 50S, blocking translocation
• Bind 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA
• Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase
• Inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase
• Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase

Definition

• Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase: Streptogramins, Chlormaphenicol

_________________________________________


• Binds 50S, blocking translocation: Linezolid, Macrolides

________________________________________


• Bind 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA:Tetracyclines

________________________________________


• Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase:Rifampin

___________________________________________


• Inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase: Flouroquinolones

___________________________________________


• Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase: Trimethoprime

Term

What are the microcytic anemias?

How do you tell?

Definition

Look for MCV first <80 fL

HYPOchromic cells= low MCHC

MC: Iron Deficiency Anemia[image]

-due to blood loss,increased demand, colon cancer

hypochromic, assoc. with Plummer Vinson and glossitis

ferritin is low

transferrin is high

%transferrin saturation<12%

_________________________________________

Thalassemias: AR disorder of hemoglobin synthesis

Alpha Thalassemia[image]

defect in alpha globin synthesis

Alpha Thalassemia (African and Asians)

(2 or more alpha globins-mild)

HgH disease (4 beta globins)

[image]

Hydrops Fetalis (no alpha globin production)

 

_____________________________________________

 

Beta Thalassemia (mediterranean populations) [image]

Beta Thal minor

Beta Thal Major (no beta globins,severe anemia--> requires a lot of blood transfusions-->hemochromatosis (treat with deroxamine to chelate iron)

Histology:

-Target cells, marrow expansion and -hyperplasia (crew cut in skull imaging),

-increase in HgF (two alpha and two gamma)

____________________________________________

Lead poisoning  [image]

 

ferrochetalase and ALA dehydrogenase are inhibited

sideroblastic anemia

(ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow: mitochondria in RBC precursors with granules filled with lead)

__________________________________________

Anemia of Chronic Inflammation

Iron is trapped in Macrophages

ferritin is normal or high

serum iron is low

transferrin is low

% transferrin saturation: normal or elevated

TIBC is decreased

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
What is anemia of pregnancy?
Definition
Not anemia but rather a manifestation of increased plasma volume
Term
What are the two general causes of anemia?
Definition

Decreased cell production

(hematopoietic cell damage from infection, drugs, radiation etccc oR deficiency of factors required for heme or DNA synthesis like Iron, B12, folate)

 

Increased RBC loss

(hemorrhage, destruction)

Term
What are the most common causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Definition

Chronic Blood Loss

-menorrhagia

-bleeding GI lesion (like carcinoma of colon) (USA)

-hookworm disease (outside USA)

 

[image]

 

 

Term
What test can be used to diagnosis beta-thalassemia minor?
Definition
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis
Term
What lab findings allow you to distinguish iron deficiency anemia from a microcytic, hypochromic anemia resulting from thalassemia?
Definition

Iron Deficiency:

Decreased serum Iron

Decreased Ferritin

Increased TIBC

 

_________________________________

Thalassemia

Normal Iron

Normal Ferritin

Normal TIBC

Target Cells

Term
What should you rule-out in a male over 50 with new onset iron deficiency anemia?
Definition

Colon Cancer

 

(blood loss from lesion)

Term
What are the Macrocytic Anemias?
Definition

HMCV> 100 in adults

Megaloblastic (impaired DNA synthesis)

 

B12 deficiency Anemai: neurologic deficits

[image]

 

Folate deficiency Anemia

 

In both look for hypersegmented neutrophils, glossitis, elevated homocysteine

 

causes: malnutrition, malabsorption (disease, drugs, alcohol), increased requirement (pregnancy)

__________________________________________

 

Orotic Aciduria

*doesn't respond to B12 or folate replacement

________________________________________

 

 

____________________________________

Non-Megaloblastic

 

Liver disease

Alcoholism (can cause both megaloblastic and nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia)

 

Drugs:

AZT, 5-Flourouracil, Hydroxyurea ----->myelosuppression----> anemia

 

Term
What are the normocytic Anemias?
Definition

Hemolytic vs. Nonhemolytic Anemias


Nonhemolytic


Anemia of Chronic disease

-inflammatry mediator IL-6 causes liver to trap Iron

low iron

low TIBC

normal-high ferritin

_____________________________

Aplastic Anemia

-pancytopenia

caused by infections, drugs, radiation, Fancon's anemia, idiopathic

-hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltration

[image]

-fatigue, malaise, pallor, petechia, purpura, mucosal bleeding, infections

 

Chronic Kidney Disease

kidneys stop making Erythropoietin

______________________________________

Hemolytic

 

Term
A patient is diagnosed with a macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia. What is the danger of giving folate alone?
Definition
May correct the anemia, but if it is a comboned folate and B12 deficiency you have not addressed the B12 Deficiency and patient can develop peripheral neuropathy
Term

What is the cause of anemia given the following statement?

• Microcytic anemia + swallowing difficulty + glossitis


• Microcytic anemia + > 3.5% HbA2


• Megaloblastic anemia not correctable by BI2 or folate


• Megaloblastic anemia along with peripheral neuropathy


• Microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling


• Microcytic anemia reversible with B6


• HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia


• Normocytic anemia + red urine in the morning
• Normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine

Definition

• Microcytic anemia + swallowing difficulty + glossitis:

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome


• Microcytic anemia + > 3.5% HbA2:

Beta Thalassemia


• Megaloblastic anemia not correctable by BI2 or folate:

Orotic Aciduria


• Megaloblastic anemia along with peripheral neuropathy

B12 Deficiency


• Microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling

Lead Poisoning


• Microcytic anemia reversible with B6

Sideroblastic Anemia


• HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia

Zidovudine (possibly)


• Normocytic anemia + red urine in the morning

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria


• Normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine

Chronic Kidney disease

Term
What are the 3 mecanisms cell employ to break down protein?
Definition

Calcium dependent enzymes

Ubiquitin protein ligase

lysosomes

Term
What is the treatment for lead posioning?
Definition

Succimer and EDTA in Adults

 

Dimercaprol, EDTA and Succimer (3RD line) in Kids

Term
Hemolytic Anemia
Definition

normocytic, normochromic anemia

Intravascular or Extravascular

 

Intravascular:

decreases haptoglobin

increase in unconjugated bilirubin

 

types:

Paroxsymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

Mechanical Destruction (Aortic stenosis, prosthetic valves)

____________________________________________

Extravascular

something wrong with RBCs and cells are actively destroyed by macrophages in spleen

 G6PD

Sickle Cell

HgC disease

Pyruvate Kinase deficiency

Hereditary Spherocytosis

 

 

Term
The Omotic fragility test is used to diagnose what disease?
Definition
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Term
What are two protozoal diseases that can cause hemolytic anemia?
Definition

Babesiosis

Malaria

Term
What is the difference between a warm agglutinin and a cold agglutinin?
Definition

different kinds of autoimmune hemolytic anemias

 

Warm: IgG chronic anemia, or with certain drugs seen in SLE, CLL, alpha-methyldopa

______________________________________________

 

Cold: IgM, acute anemia triggered by cold, seen in CLL, Mycoplasma Pneumonia infections, EBV

Term
An 11-year-old child presents with a chronic non-healing ulcer on his foot and imaging shows a small calcified spleen. What drug can improve his symptoms?
Definition
Sickle Cell: Hydroxyurea
Term
What name is given to anemia resulting from mechanical destruction of erythrocytes due to aortic stenosis or prosthetic heart values?
Definition
Macroangiopathic anemia
Term
What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis?
Definition
Peptidyl transferase (ribozyme)
Term
What conditions are associated with target cells?
Definition

HALT said the huntress to her target

 

HbC disease

Asplenia

Liver Disease

Thalassemia

 

[image]

 

Term
What are the platelet disorders?
Definition

BIG T



Bernard-Soulier Syndrome:

  hereditary defect: platelet plug formation,

decreased GpIb-->defect in platelet to vWF adhesion

increased BT, decreased PC

enlarged platelet that are taken out of circulation by the spleen

__________________________________________

 

 

Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

hereditary defect: platelet plug formation

decreased GpIIb/IIIa-->defect in platele to platelet aggregation

normal platelet count, increased BT

No platelet clumping on lab smears

___________________________________________

 

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

[image]

acquired defect: anti GpIIb/IIIa antibodies

causing splenic macrophages to chew up platelt/antibody complexes and decrease platelt life span

increased megakaryotes, decreased PC, increased BT

 

___________________________________________

 

 

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

defect: ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotease)

causes a decrease in degradation of vWF multimers

increased vWF multimers-->increased platelet agg & thrombosis-->decreased platelet survival

Labs show schistocytes, increased LDH, decreased PC, increased BT

 

Sx: pentad:

Neuro

Renal (Uremia)

Fever

Thrombocytopenia

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia

 

________________________________________

 

TTP-HUS

milder form of TTP

Triad: Hemolysis, Uremia, Thrombocytopenia

assoc. with E.Coli 0157:H7 infection

 

[image]

Term
What molecule is expressed on the surface of a platelet after it becomes activated?
Definition
GpIIb/IIIa
Term
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
Definition

von Willebrand's disease

 

mixed platelet and coagulation disorder

 

Tx: DDAVP(Desmopressin) releases vWF stored in endothelium

 

increased BT, normal or increased PTT

 

mild disease, AD

Dx: Ristocetin cofactor assay

Term
What are the two Mixed platelet and coagulation disorders?
Definition

von Willebrand's disease

&

DIC

Term
What is DIC?
Definition

A mixed platelet and coagulation disorder characterized by widespread clotting that leads to a deficieincy in clotting factors, creating a bleeding state

Causes: Stop Making New Thrombi

 

Sepsis (gram-)

Trauma

Obstetric complications

Pancreatitis

Malignancy

Nephrotic Syndrome

Transfusion

 

Labs: schistocytes, increased fibrin split products (D-dimers), decreased fibinogen, decreased coag factors V and VIII

 

Increased PT, PTT, and BT

Decreased PC

Term
What is Hydroxyurea?
Definition

Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor resulting in decreased DNA Synthesis (S phase specific)

 

treats: Melanoma, Sickle Cell(increases HbF), and CML

 

Toxicity: Bone marrow suppression, GI upset

[image][image]

Term
What are Clopidegrol and Ticlopidine?
Definition

Platelet inhibitors

ADP receptor blockers

reducing expression of GpIIb/IIIa-->no platelet aggregation

 

used for: acute MI, prevent strokes, 6-12 months after stenting following, aspirin alternative

Term
What is Abciximab?
Definition

monoclonal antibody

block GpIIb/IIIa

 

USED FOR: acute coronary syndromes, especially non-ST elevation MI, and angioplasty

 

can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia

Term

What is the mechanism of action of the following drugs?

• Streptokinase

• Aspirin
• Clopidogrel
• Abciximab
• Tirofiban
• Ticlopidine
• Enoxaparin
• Eptifibatide

Definition

Streptokinase (tPA): converts plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves fibrin and breaks clots *thrombolytic*

 

Aspirin: irreversibly inhibits COX-1


Clopidogrel: blocks ADP receptors


Abciximab: binds to GpIIb/IIIa


• Tirofiban: binds to GpIIb/IIIa


• Ticlopidine: blocks ADP receptor


• Enoxaparin:LMW heparin: catalyzes activation of anithrombin III


• Eptifibatide: binds to Gp IIb/IIIa

Term
What CNS lymphomas are associated with AIDS?
Definition

Kaposi Sarcoma

Invasive SCC

CNS lymphoma

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Term
What cancer is associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis?
Definition
Marginal Cell Lymphoma
Term
What is the difference between Leukemia and Lymphoma?
Definition

Leukemia is lymphoid or myeloid neoplasms with widespread involvement of bone marrow. Tumor cells found in peripheral blood

 

Lymphoma is discrete tumor masses arising from the lymph nodes

Term
What is Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
Definition

localized single group of nodes with contiguous spread, rubbery feel, can be seen mediatinally sometimes

 

Characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells

CD30+ and CD15+B cell origin

more of these cells, the worse the prognosis

[image]

Bimodal distribution=young adults &>55yo.

more common in men except for nodular sclerosing type

 

1/2 associated with EBV

 

low grade fever, night sweats, weight loss, painless lymphadenopathy

 

[image]

 

Types:

 

MC: Nodular Sclersosing (good px --only one more common in women than men)

 

2nd MC: Mixed Cellularity (poor px :()

 

Lymphocyte predominant (good px)

 

Lymphocyte depleted (poor px :( )

 

 

Term
What are Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas?
Definition

more extranodular involvement

peak incidence 20-40 years

 

assoc. with HIV and Immunosuppression

Fever, constitutional sx

majority of B cell lineage (except, of course, lymphoblastic T cell lymphomas)

 

Subtypes:

 Burkitt's Lymphoma: t8;14 translocation of c-myc(8) and heavy chain Ig(14)

adolescents and young adults

Starry sky appearance

[image]

sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages

assoc. with EBV

Jaw lesion in endemic form (Africa)

Pelvic or Abdomen in sporadic

______________________________________________

 

Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma:

older adults but 20% are children, most common adult NHL and in the USA in general!, may be mature T cell in origin 20%

____________________________________________

Mantle Cell Lymphoma:


older males

t(11;14) translocation of cyclin D1 and heavy chain Ig

poor prognosis

CD5+

___________________________________________

 

Follicular Lymphoma:

Adults

t(14;18) translocation of heavy chain Ig (14 and bcl-2(18)

difficult to cure; indolent course

bcl-2 inhibits apopotosis

Term
What is the lymphoma equivalent of CLL?
Definition
Small lymphocytic lymphoma
Term
What lymphoma is associated with chronic Celiac's disease?
Definition
Intestinal T cell lymphoma
Term
What is the general histologic characteristic of acte leukemias?
Definition
>20% blasts
Term
What is ALL?
Definition

most common malignancy in children

males>females

whites>blacks

predominance of lymphoblasts in the circulating blood and bone marrow

bone pain is common

most have TdT

PAS+

 very good prognosis-->very responsive to therapy

best prognosis is CD10+ type, hyperdiploidy and t(12;21)/TEL-AML1 rearrangement

 

assoc. with Down's Syndrome

 

difficult to dx on blood smear

 

poor prognosis: Philadephia Chr. t(9;22)

 

Term
What is AML?
Definition

Acute Myeloid(myeloblastic) Leukemia

most often in adults

chracteristic Auer Rods

[image]

predominance of myeloblasts

most CD 13/33+

nonspecific esterase+ myeloid cells

PAS-

worse prognosis than ALL

associated with numerous risk factors (including Down's Syndrome)

classification into subgroups based on a variety of factors

Term
What is CLL?
Definition

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

 

(same as small lymphocytic lymphoma)

<5% blasts (more mature cells)

characterized by proliferation of neoplastic lymphoid cells (usually B cells) with widespread infiltration of the bone marrow, peripheral blood, lymph nodes, spleen, liver and other organs

 

older than 60 yo, mostly men

express surface Ig and pan-B cell markers like CD19, CD20 and CD5+ also

 

often appear as smudge cells

[image]

peripheral WBC count can vary normal to high

hepatosplenomegaly,lymphadenopathy

 

Complications: Warm antibody hemolytic anemia

Hypoagammaglobulinema

 

Survival 5-10 years

 

 

Term
What is CML?
Definition

a chromic form of AML

Philadelphia chromosome always present

t(9;22) bcr-abl

 

fatigue, abdominal pain and splenomegaly

 

 

Term
Name the 4 important Myeloproliferative Disorders
Definition

monoclonal proliferation of mature myeloid cells

 

Polycythemia Vera

 

Essential Thrombocytosis

 

Myelofibrosis

 

CML

 

Term
Erythrocytosis, plethora, headache, splenomegaly, hyper-viscosity, and low erythropoietin
Definition
Polycythemia Vera
Term
Bone marrow infiltrated with fibrotic tissue..?
Definition
Myelofibrosis
Term
Bone marrow infiltrated with adipose...?
Definition
Aplastic anemia
Term
What is Multiple Myeloma?
Definition

malignancy of plasma cells

large production of antibodies

 

most common tumor of the bone in ppl over 50

 

hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, back pain

plasma cells make local osteolytic cytokines that stimulate osteoclasts and inhibit osteoblasts

 

 

susceptible to infection, amyloidosis (deposition of monoclonal IgG light chains (usually)), punched out lytic bone lesions, excessive monoclonal antibodies in serum and urine *not measured on ordinary urinalysis*

M protein, proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow

[image]

Term
smudge cell
Definition
CLL
Term
Signet ring cell in ovary
Definition

Krukenberg tumor

 

Term
[image]
Definition

signet ring cells

 

RBCs=malaria

ovary=krukenberg tumor (metastasis from stomach)

stomach= gastric adenocarcinoma

Term
How do you test for a capsule (shell)?
Definition

Quelling test

 

"Quelling for a shelling"

Term
Steeple sign
Definition
Parainfluenza virus
Term
Thumb sign
Definition

Epiglottitis

 

Haemophilus influenza type B (uncommon bc of vaccine)

Term
strawberry tongue
Definition

scarlet fever

 

kawasakis disease

Term
Name all the drugs that have anticholinergic SE
Definition

*do not give to pts with delerium, dementia, BPH, ileus*

 

Atropine

 

TCAs

 

H1 blockers (Diohenhydramine)

 

LOW potency Neuroleptics (Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine)

 

Digoxin

 

Amantadine

 

Promethazine

Term
What drugs cause coronary vasospasm?
Definition

*don't give to ppl at risk for MI, CAD, prinzmetal angina*

 

Cocaine

 

Amphetamines

 

Methamphetamines

 

Triptans (migraines and cluster headaches)

 

Ergotamines

Term
What drugs cause cutaneous flushing?
Definition

Vancomycin (RED man syndrome)

 

Niacin

 

Adenosine

 

Dihydripyridine CCBs (-dipines)

Term
What drugs cause dilated cardiomyopathy?
Definition

Doxorubicin

 

Daunorubicin

Term

What drugs cause torsades de pointes?

 

What is treatment for torsades?

Definition

Class IA Na channel blockers

 

Class III K channel blockers

 

Macrolides

 

Haloperidol

 

Chloroquine

 

Protease inhibitors (-navir)

 

 

tx: IV magnesium

Term
What drugs cause agranulocytosis?
Definition

Clozapine

Carbamazepine

Colchicine

 

PTU

Methimazole

 

Dapsone

 

 

Term
What drugs cause aplastic anemia?
Definition

Chloramphenicol (grey baby syndrome)

 

Benzene

 

NSAIDs

 

PTU

 

Methimazole

Term
What can cause hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients?
Definition

Isoniazid

Sulfonamides

Primaquine

High dose aspirin

Ibuprofen

Nitrofurantoin

Dapsone

Fava beans

Napthalene

Term
What drugs cause megaloblastic anemia?
Definition

Phenytoin

Methotrexate

Sulfa drugs

Zidovudine

Term
What two important drugs can cuase thrombocytopenia?
Definition

Heparin (HIT)

H2 blockers

Term
Name three important drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis
Definition

Bleomycin

Busulfan

Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic)

Term
What drugs can cause focal to massive heaptic necrosis?
Definition

Halothane

 

Acetaminophen

 

Valproate

 

Amanita phalloides (mushroom toxin)

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