Term
A 50 yr old obese male with HTN comes to your clinic to recieve care for his chronic fatigue. A CBC is performed and an elevated H&H is discovered. Whta is the most likely cause of elevated hemoglobin level? |
|
Definition
Sleep apnea induced erythrocytosis |
|
|
Term
What are the acute phase cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which class of bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer? |
|
Definition
Gram positive
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
Name all the gram negative bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name all the gram positive bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are beta lactamases found on the bacteria?
How are they significant? |
|
Definition
Int he periplasm
they are responsible for drug resistance to penicillins |
|
|
Term
What are the Encapsulated Bacteria? |
|
Definition
Some Killers Have Nice Sexy Capsule Bodies
Step. pneumonia
Klebsiella pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza B
Neisseria Meningitidis
Salmonella
Cryptococcus neoformans
Group B Strep |
|
|
Term
How would you test to see if a bacteria is encapsulated? |
|
Definition
Quelling for a Shelling
Quelling reaction where antibodies bind to the capsule (shell) |
|
|
Term
Which vaccines are made from capsular antigens? |
|
Definition
- H. influenzae type B vaccine
- meningococcal vaccines
- S. pneumoniae vaccine (pneumovax)
|
|
|
Term
Patients with C5-9 complement deficiency have an increased susceptibility to which bacterial species? |
|
Definition
Neisseria
gram- cocci
[image] |
|
|
Term
A 32 year-old African American man with a past medical history of sickle cell anemia presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He has no complaints. His physician notes that he likely has an increased susceptibility to infections with certain organisms. Which of complement deficiency has a similar pattern of increased susceptibility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bacteria lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and has cholesterol in its cell membrane?
What agar is it cultured on? |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma
non-gram staining
Eaton's Agar
responsible for "walking/atypical pneumonia"
[image] |
|
|
Term
A 26-year-old female goes to her primary care physician complaining of severe vaginal itching with a malodorous yellow-green discharge. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she does not take any medications. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Urinalysis is positive for white blood cells. Wet mount results are shown below.
[image]
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for her partner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lung of a 45-year-old Caucasian male who died from Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection reveals the following at autopsy. Of the steps leading to the formation of this structure, which occurs first?
[image] |
|
Definition
Bacterium-mediated inhibition of phagosome-lysosome fusion |
|
|
Term
A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis after a recent trip to Eastern Europe. After drug susceptibility testing is completed, he is given a regimen of antibiotics as treatment. He returns two weeks later complaining of decreased visual acuity and color-blindness. Which drug of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug that is most likely to cause this side effect? |
|
Definition
Pt is taking Ethambutol
Toxic side-effects include retrobulbar neuritis that results in color-blindness, decreased visual acuity, and central scotoma. Ethambutol is a bacteriostatic agent that works by obstructing the formation of the tubercular cell wall through its inhibition of arabinogalactan synthesis.
[image] |
|
|
Term
A 44-year-old Caucasian male presents with a fever, recent weight loss, and a cough productive of bloody sputum. A chest X-ray and CT scan were performed, revealing cavities near the apex of his lungs. The patient is started on rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide. Formation of the cavities in the patient's lungs is mainly mediated by what cells? |
|
Definition
The immune response against M. tuberculosis primarily is marked by granuloma formation and is mediated by TH1 cells. Granulomas eventually contain caseous necrosis at their center and can cavitate. |
|
|
Term
37-year-old man previously treated with monotherapy for latent tuberculosis develops new-onset cough, night sweats and fever. He produces a sputum sample that is positive for acid-fast bacilli. Resistance testing of his isolated bacteria finds a mutation in the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. To which of the TB antibiotics might this patient's infection be resistant? |
|
Definition
The patient's infection would most likely be resistant to rifampin, which works by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
[image] |
|
|
Term
Primary tuberculosis usually develops in which part of the lung? |
|
Definition
Primary tuberculosis is characterized by a fibrocavitary disease of the middle or lower lobes of the lung with/without involvement of hilar/mediastinal nodes. Together, these findings are termed a Ghon complex when visible on chest radiograph.
[image] |
|
|
Term
What does the Giemsa stain identify? |
|
Definition
Borriela
Plasmodium
Trypanosomes
Chlamydia
|
|
|
Term
What does the PAS stain for |
|
Definition
- glycogen
- mucopolysaccharides
- used to diagnose Whipple's disease (Tropheryma whippelii)
"PAS the sugar before I whip you" |
|
|
Term
What does Ziehl-Neelson stain for? |
|
Definition
Acid fast organisms
- Mycobacterium
- Nocardia (partially acid fast)
- Cryptosporidum oocysts
|
|
|
Term
What is India Ink used to stain for? |
|
Definition
- Cryptococcus neoformans
- stain is not taken up by polysaccharide capsule, creating a transparent halo
- mucicarmine can also be used to stain capsule red
[image][image]
|
|
|
Term
What are silver stains used to identify? |
|
Definition
Pneunmocystis, Legionella and Fungi |
|
|
Term
What bacterial structure mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of th cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structure is th space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in Gram- bacteria? |
|
Definition
Periplasm
reason for a lot of penicillin resistance |
|
|
Term
Which bacterial strucutre mediates motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bacterial form provides resistance to dehydration, heat and chemicals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bcteria do not stain well? |
|
Definition
Gram -
"These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color"
Tryponema
Rickettsia
Mycoplasma
Mycobacterium
Legionella
Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- A systemic coagulation disorder with
- pathologic hypercoagulation with formation of microthrombi
- become hypocoagulable as coagulation factors are consumed
- May occur secondary to
- sepsis
- most commonly E. coli, N. meningitidis
- endotoxins released damage vessels walls and stimulate coagulation
- N. meningitidis may lead to Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
- neoplasms
- acute promyelocytic leukemia
- caused by release of Auer rods/primary granules
- adenocarcinomas
- caused by release of procoagulant mucin
- trauma/crush injuries
- caused by release thromboplastin which activates extrinsic cascade
- rattlesnake bite
- obstetric complications
|
|
|
Term
What are the known toxins sexreted by Staph aureus, and what are their actions? |
|
Definition
α-toxin→ hemolysis
β-toxin→ sphingomyelinase
γ-toxin Proteins A, B, and C→ A+B=hemolysin,
B+C= leukocidin
Hemolysin→hemolysis
Leukocidin→destroys leukocytes
Enterotoxins A-E →food poisoning→vomiting & diarrhae
TSST-1→release of cytokines→Toxic Shock Syndrome
Epidermolytic/Exfoliative→epithelial lysis→scalded skin syndrome
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What known toxins are secreted by Streptococcus pyogenes? |
|
Definition
(Group A Strep)
Streptolysin O→ hemolysis (oxygen labile-*ASO titers* )
Streptolysin S→ hemolysis (oxygen stabile)
Erythrogenic/pyrogenic→ skin rash and fever (Scarlet fever)
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent causing the pseudomembrane?
[image] |
|
Definition
Cornyebacterium Diptheria
Elongation Factor-2 is the exotoxin that causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis
do not scrape! can cause toxin to get into circulation and can be lethal to the heart and neurons
[image] |
|
|
Term
What does the guy with the accordion represent?
[image] |
|
Definition
This image is Pseudomonas
the guy represent the exotoxin A that inhibits EF-2
(like diptheria)
|
|
|
Term
Which exotoxin inhibits ACh release causing flaccid paralysis? |
|
Definition
Clostridium botulinum
botulinum toxin
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which exotoxin is a lecinthinase that causes gas gangrene? |
|
Definition
alpha toxin
Clostridium perfiringens
[image]
|
|
|
Term
Which exotoxin stimulates adenylate cyclase causing a release of Cl- and water into the gut and watery diarrhea? |
|
Definition
Cholera toxin and heat labile E.Coli toxin |
|
|
Term
Which exotoxin blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What five bacteria secrete enterotoxins? |
|
Definition
Enterotoxin: exotoxin that causes water and electrolyte imbalances and diarrhea
Vibrio Cholera
E.Coli
Salmonella
Shigella
Staph. Aureus |
|
|
Term
What organisms are most commonly implicated in subacute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Viridans Strep
Enterococci
Coagulase negative Staph (S.epidermidus) |
|
|
Term
A woman is breast feeding and develops redness and swelling of her right breast over a period of 24 hours.
Exam reveals a warm fluctuant mass. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infections are caused by Strep pyogenes? |
|
Definition
Pyogenic:
Pharyngitis
Endocarditis
Skin infections
Necrotizing fascitis
Bacteremia
Toxin-mediated:
Scarlet Fever
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Autoimmune mediated:
Acute Glomerulonephritis
Rheumatic Fever
|
|
|
Term
What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid? |
|
Definition
HORMONES:
Stimulatory:
Histamine and Gastrin
Inhibitory:
Prostaglandins
Somatostatins
Secretin
GIP
________________________
DRUGS
PPIs
H2 blockers
Antimuscarinics (atropine) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of N-acetylcysteine given as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you treat Corynebacterium Diptheria? |
|
Definition
Penicillin or Erythromycin + anti-toxin
-immunize the patient
|
|
|
Term
Which organisms can form spores? |
|
Definition
Clostridium species (C.perferingins, tetani, botulinum)
Bacillus species (B. anthracis, cereus)
Coxiella Burnetti (Rickettsial species) |
|
|
Term
How often do you give a tetanus booster? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the obligate anaerobes? Why are they anaerobes and how do you treat them? |
|
Definition
Can't Breath Air
Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces
lack the enzymes to neutralize oxygen
Metronidazole and Clindamycin
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the obligate aerobes? |
|
Definition
Nocardia
Bacillus Anthracis
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Pseudomonas
|
|
|
Term
Which bacteria are common causes of neonatal infections? |
|
Definition
Group B strep
Listeria Monocytogenes
E.Coli |
|
|
Term
What is the major biochemical cause of penicillin resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of penicillin drugs? |
|
Definition
BACTERIOCIDAL:
cell wall inhibitor that binds PBP
blockd transpeptidase cross linking of cell wall
activates autolytic enzymes
gram + bacteria
strep
spirochetes (syphillis) Penicillin G
Toxicity: HSR
[image] |
|
|
Term
How do Aminopenicllins work? What are the clinical uses for ampicillin and amoxicillin? |
|
Definition
same as penicillins but a wider spectrum
they are not resistant to enzymes like penicillinase, beta lactamase
Gram+ bacteria
Gram- rods
UTIs, Neonatal Infections
HEELPSS
H.Influenza
E.Coli
Enterococci
Listeria
Proteus Mirabilis
Salmonella
Shigella
Amoxicillin: Oral
Ampicillin: IV
Toxicity:
HSR like penicillin
Rash with/after mononucleosis infection
Pseudomembranous colitis
|
|
|
Term
What are the penicillase resistant penicillins? |
|
Definition
Methicillin
Nafcillin
Dicloxacillin
same mechanism as penicillan but have resistance
uses: Staph Aureus infections except MRSA
Toxicity: HSR
INnterstitial nephritis
|
|
|
Term
Which penicillins are anti-pseudomonal? |
|
Definition
Ticarcillin
Carbenicillin
Pipercillin
not resistant to penicillinase
used for pseudomonal infections |
|
|
Term
What are the beta lactamase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Sulbactam
Clavulanic Acid
used combined with a penicillin |
|
|
Term
Which penicillin would you use for syphillis infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which penicillin would you use to treat a UTI? |
|
Definition
Extended spectrum Aminopenicillin: Amoxocillin or Ampicillin |
|
|
Term
Which penicillin would you use to treat a pseudomonas infection? |
|
Definition
Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin, Piperacillin |
|
|
Term
What penicillin would you use to treat a neonatal infection? |
|
Definition
Ampicillin with Gentomicin |
|
|
Term
What are the bacteriostatic antibiotics and what do they do (generally)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the first generation Cephalosporins?
Clinical use? |
|
Definition
bacteriocidal antibiotics
Cephazolin
Cephalexin
Gram positive cocci and PEK
Proteus
E.Coli
Klebsiella
Uses:
-UTIs
-URIs
-prophylaxis against skin infections and S.viridans endocarditis from dental procedures
|
|
|
Term
What are the 2nd generation Cephalosporins?
|
|
Definition
Cefoxitin
Cefaclor
Cefuroxime
gram positive cocci and HENS PEcK and Anaerobes
Haemophilus influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria
Serratia
Proteus
E.Coli
Klebsiella
Uses |
|
|
Term
What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins?
clinical uses? |
|
Definition
Remeber -Triaxone is a tri generation. Triax, Tax, Taz, dinir
Ceftriaxone (Meningitis, CAP, Gonorrhea)
Cefotaxime
Ceftazidime (Pseudomonas)
Cefdinir
as a whole:
more serious Gram negative infections
more resistant to beta lactamases
|
|
|
Term
What is the 4th generation cephalosporine and its clinical use? |
|
Definition
Cefepime
very broad
strong gram positive, gram negative and pseudmonas |
|
|
Term
Which bacterial infections CANNOT be covered by Cephalosporins alone? |
|
Definition
LAME
Listeria
Atypicals (Mycoplasma and Chlamydia)
MRSA
Enterococci
|
|
|
Term
Which Cephalosporin has the longest half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the toxicity of Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
- Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin)+Cephalosporins= Nephrotoxicity
[image]
- Ethanol + some Cephalosporins= Disulfuram like reaction
inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
- severe allergy to penicillin may also have reaction to Cephalosporins
|
|
|
Term
What drugs can have a disulfuram-like reaction if taken with alcohol? |
|
Definition
Metronidazole
[image]
some obscure cephalosporins..
Cefotetan
Cefamandole
Cefoperazone
Procarbazine
1st gen sulfonylureas (Tolbutamide) |
|
|
Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you chose to use for UTI prevention? |
|
Definition
1st or 2nd
Cephazolin
Cephalexin
Cefoxitin
Cefaclor
Cefuroxime
|
|
|
Term
Which eneration of cephalosporin would you use for Serraitia UTI? |
|
Definition
2nd generation
Cefoxitime
Cefaclor
Cefuroxime |
|
|
Term
Which generation cephalosporin would you use for N.Meningitides? |
|
Definition
3rd generation
Cetriaxone
Cefotazidime
Cefotaxime
Cefdinir |
|
|
Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you use to treat pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
3rd or 4th
Tax, Taz Triaxone
Cefipime |
|
|
Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you use to treatotitis media due to nontypable H.flu? |
|
Definition
2nd generation
Cefoxitin
Cefaclor
Cefuroxime |
|
|
Term
What side effect would you be concerned about if a patient is recieving both ceftriazone and gentamycin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug is a monobactam, resistant to beta lactamase, and can only be used against gram negative rods by inhibiting cell wall synthesis and binding to PBP-3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Aztreonam similar to Aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
different mechanism of action but the spectrum of coverage is similar
Aztreonam covers gram negative rods only and aerobes
good to use in pts allergic to penicillin, bad kidneys and gram- infection
|
|
|
Term
When is Aztreonam most often used clinically? |
|
Definition
- pts with penicillin allergy
- pts with renal insufficiency (can't tolerate aminoglycosides)
- in combination with an antibiotic with gram + coverage (vancomycin+aztreonam)
synergistic with aminoglycosides |
|
|
Term
A 21-year-old sexually active male complains of fever, pain during urination, and inflammation and pain in the right knee. A culture of the joint fluid shows a bacteria that does not ferment maltose and has no polysaccharide capsule. The physician orders antibiotic therapy for the patient and symptoms subside within 2 days. What is the mechanism of action of this medication? |
|
Definition
Pt has disseminate N. Gonococcal infection which can be treated with a 3rd generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone.
Cefrtiaxone blocks cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic is a flouroquinolone that inhibits DNA gyrase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic is a cyclic polypeptide that interferes with cell wall synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which aminoglycoside antibiotic inhibits the 30S ribosome? |
|
Definition
Gentamycin
"My 30 yo Genta-men" |
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic is a glycopeptide that interferes with cell wall synthesis and can be used to treat MRSA, S. epidermidis, and C.diff infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is always administered with imipinem? Why? |
|
Definition
Cilistatin
Cilistatin inhibits renal dehydropeptidase l which inactivated imipiniem in the renal tubules |
|
|
Term
What organisms are Imipinime/Cilistatin and Meropenem effective against? |
|
Definition
empiric treatment of life threatening infections
ICU pts
very broad range: gram +, gram-, anaerobes
*BUT DOES NOT COVER MRSA or mycoplasma*
usually combined with vancomycin to cover MRSA |
|
|
Term
What are the toxicities related to Carbapenems? |
|
Definition
Impipenin/Cilistatin and Meropenem
seizures (meropenem reduced risk)
nausea
vomiting
[image]
GI upset
[image]
Skin rash
[image]
Allergy
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses of Vancomycin and the toxic side effects? |
|
Definition
Gram +
MRSA
Enterococcus (except VRE obviously)
C.diff (oral form)
Staph epidermidus (coag- staph)
Toxicity: NOT
Nephrotoxicty
Ototoxicty
Thrombophlebitis
Red man syndrome
itchy, redness, flushing
what to do: pretreat with antihistamine and slow infusion of Vancomycin
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor can cause Red Man Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor is the next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin? |
|
Definition
Augmentin
(Amoxicillin + Calvulinic Acid) |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor is used as prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Penicillin V
Aminopenicillin
Cephalexin
|
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is an aminoglycoside "pretender"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor would is used as inpatient treatment for MRSA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is sufficient for the treatment of syphillis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is used as a single dose treatment for gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is used as treatment for C. diff colitis? |
|
Definition
Oral vancomycin
*metronidazole is first line, but is not a cell wall inhibitor* |
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor would you use in the case of appendicitis desiring a broad spectrum coverage? |
|
Definition
Carbapenem: Imipinem+Cilistatin or Meropenem |
|
|
Term
Which cell wall inhibitors are effective against pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
Cefepime
Aztreonam
Carboxypenicillins |
|
|
Term
How does an organism obtain resistance to Vancomycin? |
|
Definition
amino acid change from
D-ala D-ala→ D-ala D-lac
[image] |
|
|
Term
What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment
Rx: no nutrasweet, increased dietary tyrosine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment
Rx: Decreased methionine, increased cysteine + B6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment?
Rx. Acetazolamide to alkaline urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What genetic syndrome fits the treatment?
Rx: decreased fructose and sucrose intake
|
|
Definition
Fructose Intolerance
(aldolase B deficiency)
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which genetic syndrome fits the treatment?
Rx: increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (fats) |
|
Definition
Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which genetic syndrome fits the treatment?
Rx:exclude galactose and lactose from the diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
extrapulmonary tuberculosis that impacts the spine, Pott's disease has an effect that is sometimes described as being a sort of arthritis for the vertebrae that make up the spinal column. More properly known as tuberculosis spondylitis
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the distinction between a Ghon Complex and a Ghon Focus?
|
|
Definition
Ghon focus: calcified lung scar
Ghon complex: hilar lymphadenopathy and a calcified lung scar
seen in primary TB |
|
|
Term
Which Mycobacterium species fits the following:
- Causes leprosy
- Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD pts
- Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children
- Causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients
- Causes hand infection in aquarium workers
|
|
Definition
- Causes leprosy=Mycobacterium leprae
- Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD pts= Mycobacterium kansasii
- Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children= Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
- Causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients= MAI /MAC
- Causes hand infection in aquarium workers= Mycobacterium marinum
|
|
|
Term
What does a positive PPD skin test indicate? |
|
Definition
-past exposure
-past BCG vaccine
-infection |
|
|
Term
What does a negative PPD skin test indicate? |
|
Definition
-immunocompromised
-steroids
-sarcoidosis
-malnourishment
-no infection |
|
|
Term
Rifampin is used to treat what disease prophylactically? |
|
Definition
Meningiococcal Meningitis |
|
|
Term
What is the only agent used as solo prophylaxis in TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug cocktail is used in the treatment of tubercolosis? |
|
Definition
RIPE
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
|
|
|
Term
What antibiotic is used for prevention of MAI in AIDS patients? (Mycobacterium Avium Intracellulare)
When? |
|
Definition
Azithromycin
CD4 count<50 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Azithromycin
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Streptomycin |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Mycobacterium Leporae? |
|
Definition
Dapsone
Rifampin
Clofazamine
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of Isoniazid?
Toxicity? |
|
Definition
decreases synthesis of mycolic acids
toxicity: neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity, drug induced lupus (anti-histone ABs)
[image][image]
Pyrodoxine (B6) helps prevent toxic side effects
|
|
|
Term
What drugs are known for causing drug induced lupus? |
|
Definition
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Hydralazine |
|
|
Term
What are the Rs of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase inhibitor
Revs up microsomal cytochrome p450
Red/orange body fluids
Rapid resistance develops if used alone
[image] |
|
|
Term
What infections is Rifampin used for? Toxicity? |
|
Definition
TB
Leprosy
Meningococcal prophylaxis (close contacts)
H.influenzae type B prophylaxis (close contacts)
Toxicity: hepatotoxicity
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What is an important side effect of ethambutol? |
|
Definition
decreases carbohydrate polymerization of the mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinocyltransferase
Toxicity: Optic neuropathy
red/green colorblindness (reversible)
[image] |
|
|
Term
The mother of a patient recently hospitalized for Haemophilus meningits calls the clinic becasue she notices blood in her urine. What is the likely cause of her symptoms? |
|
Definition
She was most likely treated prophylactically with Rifampin which causes body fluids to turn red/orange |
|
|
Term
A patient is attempting to recall for you what medications he is taking and there is one medication that he is taking to "keep his lungs healthy" that he also says can "hurt his nerves" unless he takes his B vitamin. What med is he referring to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs are famous for inducing cytochrome p450? |
|
Definition
BCG PQRS
Barbituates
Carbamazepine
Griseofulvin
Phenytoin
Quinidine
Rifampin
St.John's Wart |
|
|
Term
What drugs are famous for inhibiting cytochrome p450? |
|
Definition
PICK EGGS
Protease Inhibitors
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Grapefruit Juice
Sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
What is the classic presenting symptom in a patient with Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
erythema chronica migrans (bulls eye rash)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What diseases might have Bell's Palsy as a complication? |
|
Definition
Lovely Belle Had An STD
Lyme Disease
Herpes Zoster
AIDS
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes |
|
|
Term
What pupillary sign might point you to a diagnosis of syphillis? |
|
Definition
Argyll Robertson Pupil
Small and irregular bilaterally
-not reactive to light
constricts with accomodation
[image]
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What organism is associated with the floowing clue?
-Pet prairie dog
-Ixodes tick
-Dog bite
-Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten
-Rabbit hunter |
|
Definition
Pet prairie dog:Yersinia pestis
Ixodes tick: Borrelia burgdorferi
Dog bite: Pasturella multocida
Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten:
Bartonella (Cat sctratch)
Rabbit hunter: Francisella tularensis |
|
|
Term
What is the Rickettsial triad of symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cold agglutinins or cryoagglutinins are typically what kind of Immunoglobulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic should be used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Tetracyclines or Macrolides
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic do you use for early Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic do you use for late Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you culture Haemophilus Influenzae? |
|
Definition
Chocolate Agar with Factor V (nicotinamide)
and Factor X (hematin)
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are the toxins Bordatella pertussis uses to infect? |
|
Definition
Pertussis toxin: ribosylates Gi-->increases cAMP and cuases leukocytosis
Adenylate Cylcase toxin:increases cAMP (similar to edema factor of B.anthracis)
Tracheal toxin: damages cilia of the trachea
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the gram negative bacilli that infect the respiratory tract? |
|
Definition
Bordatella Pertussis, H. Influenzae, Legionella
[image][image]
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are three major spirochetes? |
|
Definition
Borrelia (lyme disease)
Leptospirosis
Treponema Pallidum (syphillis)
[image]
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
Who is at risk for Rickettsia Prowazekii infections? |
|
Definition
Epidemic Typhus
Army recruits, prisoners, refugee camps
close quarters
rash starts at trunk and spreads out
rash spares hands, feet and head
pneumonia
myalgia
encephalitis and even coma if serious
spread via louse-->defecates-->scratch-->in blood stream
Tx: Doxycycline[image]
|
|
|
Term
Which rickettsial rash begins at extremities and is transmitted by the dermacentor tick? |
|
Definition
Rickettsia Rickettsii
[image] |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with difficulty breathing after adopting a new kitten. What cell plays a role in late activation of this disease process? |
|
Definition
eosinophils play a role in late activation
mast cells: early activation
resolution: macrophages
remodeling: epithelial cells
sensitization: dendritic and TH2 cells |
|
|
Term
Which drug would you use to challenge/diagnose a patient with asthma? |
|
Definition
Methacholine is a muscarinic cholinergic agonist which is used along with pulmonary function testing to measure bronchiolar hyperactivity. With a positive test result, set at a decrease in FEV1 of greater than or equal to 20% when prior pulmonary function tests (PFTs) were normal, the sensitivity of this test for asthma diagnosis is 90%. When PFTs show a baseline decrease in FEV1, bronchodilator response of greater than 12% is suggestive of asthma over other obstructive lung diseases, though bronchodilator response can be seen in other obstructive lung diseases as well. |
|
|
Term
What is ITP?
labs, tx,..? |
|
Definition
Quantitative primary hemostasis disorder:
thrombocytopenia→petechiae
ITP: antibodies against Gp2b/3a;platelets are consumed by splenic macrophages; most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children(acute) and adults(chronic)
associated with SLE (secondary) IgG can cross placenta and cause short lived thrombocytopenia in newborns
Labs:
↓platelet count
normal PT/PTT
↑MEGAkaryocytes on bone marrow bx
Tx: corticosteroids (children)
IVIG (short lived defense: idea is spleen will eat up these IG instead of the platelet bound ones)
Splenectomy (site of antibody production and destruction)
__________________________________________
Qualitative:
|
|
|
Term
What are the Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia? |
|
Definition
Characterisitics of BOTH:
Quantitative platelet disorder and Primary hemostasis disorder and hemolytic anemia
pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels seen in TTP and HUS
RBC shearing→schistocytes→hemolytic anemia
Skin and mucosal bleeding
Fever
Renal Insufficiency
CNS abnormalities
Thrombocytopenia
↑BT
Normal PT/PTT
Anemia with schistocytes
↑megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy
_____________________________________
TTP: ADAMSTS13 deficiency, metalloprotease needed to chop up vWF into monomers due to autoimmune against it
vWF accumulates→abn. platelet adhesion→microthrombi→RBC shearing→hemolysis and thrombocytopenia
commonly seen in adult females
Tx: Plasmapherisis and corticosteroids
___________________________________________
HUS: endothelial damage by drugs or infection E.Coli O157.H7 (undercooked beef) verotoxin damages endothelial cells causing platelet microthrombi→RBCs sheared→schistocytes→hemolysis and trombocytopenia
↑uremia |
|
|
Term
Where does vWF come from? |
|
Definition
alpha granule of platelet
Weibel Palade bodies of the endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
What are the Qualitative primary hemostasis disorders?
What other things can case them> |
|
Definition
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Genetic Gp1b deficiency
mild thrombocytopenia and enlarged platelets
______________________________________
Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia
Genetic GpIIb/IIIa deficiency imparing platelet aggregation with other platelets via fibrinogen
_________________________________________
Aspirin
blocks COX2 ingibiting production of TXA2 which impairs platelet aggregation (signaling of platelets from the platelet)
_________________________________________
Uremia
poor kidney function causes a build up of nitrogenous waste products which impairs both adhesion and aggregation
|
|
|
Term
What are the key clinical features of Secondary hemostasis disorders? |
|
Definition
deep tissue bleeding into muscles and joints
rebleeding after surgical procedures (wisdom teeth ex.) |
|
|
Term
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A?
Labs?
|
|
Definition
Factor VIII (8) deficiency
deep tissue joint and post surgical bleeding
↑PTT
normalPT
↓Factor VIII
normal platelet count and bleeding time
remember
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the deficincy in Hemophilia B? |
|
Definition
Factor IX deficiency
↑PTT
↓Factor IX
normal PT
|
|
|
Term
How do you determine if a patient has a coagulation factor deficiency or inhibitor? |
|
Definition
Mixing study
PTT does not correct upon mixing normal plasma with patients plasma if inhibitor is present
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common inherited coagulation disorder?
Tx? |
|
Definition
vWF disorder
AD: decreased vWF→poor adhesion→mild mucosal and skin bleeding
increased bleeding time
↑PTT
(vWF stabalizes Factor 8 but no clinical problems)
normal PT
Abnormal ristocetin test
Tx: Desmopressin : increases the release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
How does Vitamin K deficienct cause bleeding disorder? |
|
Definition
disrupts the function of multiple factors:
Vitamin K is activated by epoxide reductase in the liver and the Vitamin K is needed for gammacarboxylation of Factors 10, 9, 7, 2, C and S
Pharm reminder:
(Warfarin/coumadin blocks epoxide reductase) |
|
|
Term
What causes Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia?
How do you correct it and what are the complications? |
|
Definition
Heparin can form complexes with platelet factor 4 which causes an IgG response causing the destruction of platelets by the spleen
Fragments of destroyed platelts can stay in blood stream and activate remaining platelets leading to thrombosis
Tx, stop heparin
treat with another anticoagulant (not coumadin bc of risk for skin necrosis)
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pathologic activation of coagulation cascade→widespread micothrombi→ischemia and infarction and overtime thrombocytopenia resulting in bleeding
Bleed from IV sites
mucosal surfaces
↓platelet count
↑PT/PTT
↓Fibrinogen
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
elevated fibrin split products (D-dimer)
best screening test
Tx: address underlying cause and perhaps transfuse blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
converts plasminogen to plasmin so fibrin and fibrinogen can be cleaved to reduce fibrinolysis
breaks down clots
prevents clots from forming
prevents platelet aggregation
MORE INFO: a protein involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It is a serine protease found on endothelial cells,lining blood vessels. As an enzyme, it catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the major enzyme responsible for clot breakdown. Because it works on the clotting system, tPA is used in clinical medicine to treat embolic or thrombotic stroke. Use is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke and head trauma. The antidote for tPA in case of toxicity is aminocaproic acid. |
|
|
Term
Increased fibrinogen split products without D-dimers is characteristic of what? |
|
Definition
Disorder of Fibrinolysis
(NOT DIC bc you see D-dimers with DIC) |
|
|
Term
How can you distinguish between a thrombus from a postmortem clot? |
|
Definition
Lines of Zahn and attachment to vessel wall
[image] |
|
|
Term
What does a healthy, undamaged endothelium secrete to prevent pathologic thrombus formation? |
|
Definition
PGI2
HLM
(Heparin Like molecules->activates antithrombin III)
NO
(Nitric Oxide)
tPA
(converts plasminogen to plasmin which has many functions)
Thrombomudulin
(modulates thrombin activity to activate Protein C which is an inhibitor to the coagulation cascade) |
|
|
Term
What canc ause endothelial damage and increase the risk for thrombosis? |
|
Definition
atherosclerosis
vasculitis
high levels of serous homocysteine
(Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency which inhibits the conversion of homocysteine to methionine
Deficiency in CBS causing homocystinuria) |
|
|
Term
Would you give a pt with suspected Protein C or S deficiency warfarin? |
|
Definition
NO! They are at an increased risk for skin necrosis
When you give warfarin, the new factors will be degraded (2,7,9,10,C,and S) but Protein C and S will degrade first (and these pts are already deficient) and there will be 2,7,9,10 that will still be active for a period of time and they will be at an increased risk for hypercoaguable state and thrombosis in the skin
warfarin skin necrosis |
|
|
Term
What is the most common inherited cause of hypercoaguable state? |
|
Definition
Factor V Leiden
mutated Factor V that isn't shut off by Proteins C and S causing a hypercoaguable state |
|
|
Term
How do you monitor heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why are oral contraceptives associates with hypercoaguable states? |
|
Definition
estrogen induces increased production of coagulation factors and inceases risk of thrombosis |
|
|
Term
Where do fat embolus usually lodge? |
|
Definition
vessels of the lung
patient may presen with dyspnea and petechia onthe chest
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
What causes a gas embolus? |
|
Definition
when you dive, the increased pressure causes nitrogen to dissolve into the blood
If you ascend to quickly the nitrogen can precipitate out of blood as gas bubbles and these bubbles get lodged in places
bends: joint and muscle pain
chokes: respiratory symptoms
Chronic: Caisson's disease: multifolcal ischemic necrosis of bone
[image] |
|
|
Term
Embolus characterized by squamous cells and keratin debris |
|
Definition
Amniotic emblous
very serious bc often go to the lungs and can cause SOB-->Neurologic symptoms-->DIC and death
the cells in the emboli from he fetus can cause DIC
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common source of DVT? |
|
Definition
Femoral, iliac or popliteal veins |
|
|
Term
What imaging would show a vascular filling defect in the case of PE? |
|
Definition
Spiral CT
also...
Lower extremeity doppler to image DVT
D-dimer elevation |
|
|
Term
Why do you see a wedge shaped infarction in the setting of pulmonary infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common souce of a systemic embolism? |
|
Definition
thromboembolism fromt the left heart |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can you give a patient that is being treated with chemotherapy and expereincing neturopenia as a result? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can cause neutrophilic leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
Bacterial infection
Tissue necrosis
will see a less shift, with immature neutrophils lacking an Fc receptor (decreased CD16)
High cortisol state
causes marginated pool of neutrophils to drop into circulation this is why pts on cortisol a\have an increased WBC |
|
|
Term
When would you see eosinophilia? |
|
Definition
Allergic reactions
Parastitic infection
Hodgkin lymphoma (mediated by IL-5) |
|
|
Term
In what cancer state will you classicially see Basophilia? |
|
Definition
CML
Philadelphia cream cheese with Basol |
|
|
Term
What infection classically causes lymphocytic leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
Bordetella pertussis (lymphocytosis promoting factor)
&
Viral infections
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pharynx, liver, spleen
LAD-paracortex hyperplasia
increased CD8 T cells
high white count of atypical lymphocytes (CD8 T cells)
splenomegaly (PALS --risk for rupture:no contact sports for a year)
screening: monospot test detecting IgM heterophile antibodies
sheep/horse agglutination
negative test: think CMV
confirm: EBV capsid antigen
Rash if exposed to penicillin
|
|
|
Term
What is the definition of acute leukemia? |
|
Definition
an acumulation of >20%blasts in the bone marrow |
|
|
Term
What is the marker to distinguish ALL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the marker to distinguish AML? |
|
Definition
MPO+/ Auer rods
(myeloperoxidase)
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common type of ALL? |
|
Definition
B-ALL
lymphoblasts express:
CD10, CD19, CD20
associated with Trisomy 21 (after age of 5)
t(12;21)
excellent repsonse to chemo
common in kids
requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF
chemo has to be directly injected there
_______________________________
t(9;22)
poor prognosis
more commonly seen in adults
(Ph+ALL) |
|
|
Term
For T-ALL, what do th cells express? |
|
Definition
CD2-CD8
presents as mediastinal mass
seen in teenagers |
|
|
Term
How can we subclassify AML? |
|
Definition
Based on:
cytogenic abnormalities
lineage of myeloblasts
surface markers
classic type t(15;17) disrupts retinoic acid receptor RAR
promyelocytes accumulate with numerous Auer rods-->increased risk for DIC
Tx: ATRA
binds RAR causing promyelobasts to mature
|
|
|
Term
Which leukemia characteristically infiltrates the gums? |
|
Definition
Acute Monocytic Leukemia
lack MPO
|
|
|
Term
Acute megakaryoblastic Leukemia |
|
Definition
AML assoc. with Downs Syndrome (before the age of 5)
REMEMBER!:
ALL (after the age of 5) |
|
|
Term
What are myelodysplastic syndromes? |
|
Definition
Cytopenias with hypercellular bone marrow and abnormal maturation with increased blasts
most pts die from infection or bleeding
may progress to acute leukemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do neoplastic cells of CLL express? |
|
Definition
naive B cells that co-express CD5 and CD20
also see smudge cells on histology
|
|
|
Term
What are the complication s of CLL? |
|
Definition
Hypogammaglobulinemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
transformation to diffuse large B cell lymphoma |
|
|
Term
What is hairy cell leukemia? |
|
Definition
neoplastic proliferation of mature B cells
hairy cytoplasmic processes
positive for TRAP
dry TAP with bone marrow aspiration
NO LYMPADENOPATHY
Tx: 2-CDA
Adenosine deaminase inhibitor
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which leukemia is commonly seen in Japan and Carribean? |
|
Definition
ATLL
associated with HTLV-1
neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4 T cells
Rash (Pautrier microabscesses)
Generalized LAD
Hepatosplenomegaly
Seazry syndrome if spread to the blood (cerebriform nuclei)
Lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia
don't automatically think multiple myeloma if you see lytic bone lesions, read and look for rash and other stuff.. |
|
|
Term
Polycythemia vera is associated with what mutation? |
|
Definition
JAK2 kinase mutation
symptoms of hyperviscosity
blurry vision and headache
Bud-Chiari:thrombosis in hepatic vein causing infarction
flushed face due to congestion
itching after bathing
decreased EPO
normal SaO2
tx- phlebotomy and hydroxyuea |
|
|
Term
Myelofibrosis, Essential Thrombocytopenia, Polycythemia Vera |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes follicular lymphoma? |
|
Definition
t(14,18)
BCL2 on 18 translocates to Ig heavy chain locus on 14
results in overexpression of bcl2 which inhibits apoptosis
Tx-cxt or rituximab |
|
|
Term
Which interleukin is associated with multiple myeloma progression? |
|
Definition
IL-6
IL-6 is not only a growth factor, but also a survival factor in MM, inhibiting apoptosis in myeloma cells. IL-6 interacts with several factors which are involved in the pathogenesis of MM, such as adhesion molecules, tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes. Considering the essential role of IL-6, it could serve as a target for new therapeutic interventions. Neutralizing the effect of IL-6 may result in a regression of tumour progression.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reversible ischemic heart disease due to >70%stenosis due to atherosclerosis that causes ischemia during exertion or emotional stress
hallmark: cellular swelling
presents: chest pain
for less than 20 minues that radiates to left arm or jaw
diaphoresis
shortness of breath
EKG: ST-segment depresion(subendocardial ischemia)
relived by rest or nitroglycerin (vasodilates arteries and veins)
[image]
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
chest pain that occurs at rest
due to ruptures atheosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and incomplete occlusion of coronary artery
reversible injury to myocytes (cellular swelling)
ST-segment depression
relieved by nitroglycerin
High risk of progression to MI
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is prinzmetal angina? |
|
Definition
reversible chest pain due to coronary artery spasm
episodic chest pain unrelated to exertion
reversible injury (cellular swelling)
EKG shows ST-segment elevation due to transmural ischemia
Relieved by Nitroglycerin or calcium channel blockers
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
necrosis of cardiac myocytes due to rupture of atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and complete occlusion of the coronary artery
other causes are coronary artery vasospasm, emboli and vasculitis (Kawasakis)
presents: sever crushing chest pain that radiates to left arm or jaw for greater than 20 min.
diaphoresidyspnea
symptoms are NOT RELIVED BY NITROGLYCERIN
Left anterior descinding is most commonly involved (infarction of anterior left ventricle and anterior portion of septum)
Right coronary artery is second most common site
(Posterior left ventricle and posterior ventricular septum)
Left circumflex is the third most common artery
First phase:
first subendocardial infarction (<50% of the wall) (EK:ST DEPRESSION)
_________________________________
2nd phase:
THEN transmural infarction (EKG: ST ELEVATION)
EKG:
test for cardiac enzymes:
Troponin I (most sensitive and specific)
CK-MB (useful for detecting reinfarction days after MI)
Rises 4-6 HRS after infarction
PEAKS AT 24
Returns to normal by 72 hours
Tx:
ASA/heparin
supplemental O2
Nitrates
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
also: fibrinolysis or angioplasty
can cause
contraction band necrosis
repurfusion injury (O2 causes free readicals which further damage tissue) |
|
|
Term
What happens to a heart within the first month after an MI?
complications? |
|
Definition
---coagulative necrosis----
1 day
---(day 1-3) inflammation (neutrophils)
fibrinous pericarditis *chest pain w/ friction rub(only with transmural infarction)*---
---(day 4-7) more inflammation ( macrophages)
rupture of ventricular wall which causes tamponade
rupture of IV septum which leads to shunt rupture of papillary muscle which causes mitral insufficiency---
1 week
-----Granulation tissue: red border emerging from infarct, plump foibroblas, collagen and blood vessels--
1 month
---scar (dense type I collagen)-----aneurysm, mural thrombus or Dressler syndrome |
|
|
Term
What is sudden cardiac death? |
|
Definition
unexpected death due to cardiac disease
occurs without symptoms or within les than an hour of symptoms
usually due to a fatal ventricular arrhythmia usually
>90% preexisiting atherosclerosis
other causes:
mitral valve prolapse
cardiomyopathy
cocaine abuse (vasospasm)
|
|
|
Term
What are the causes of left sided heart failure? |
|
Definition
ischemia
hypertension (hypertrophy)
dilated cardiomyopathy
myocardial infarction
restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
|
|
Term
What are heart failure cells? |
|
Definition
hemosiderin laden macrophages as a consequence of capillaries that ruptured due to increased pressure from pulmonary congestion. The macrophages eat up the blood and the iron accumulates within them. |
|
|
Term
Why is one of the mainsay of CHF treatment and ACE inhibitor? |
|
Definition
because a failing heart will not pump blood out effectively, the RAAS will percieve the low blood pressure and release renin to activate angiotensin and eventually aldosterone
collectively this system will increase vascular resistance and increase blood volume further excacerbating the CHF |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of right sided heart failure?
clinical features? |
|
Definition
Left heart failure
others:
left to right shunt
chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale)
clinincal features:
JVD
Painful hepatosplenomegaly (nutmeg liver)
cardiac cirrhosis
dependent pitting edema |
|
|
Term
Wha are the signs of left sided heart failure? |
|
Definition
DOE(dyspnea on exertion)
Cardiac dilation
Pulmonary congestion (crackles heard)
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
Orthopnea |
|
|
Term
What medications are used to treat acute heart failure? |
|
Definition
L,M,N,O,P
Lasix
Morphine
Nitrates
Oxygen
Positioning/pressors
|
|
|
Term
What medications are used to treat chronic heart failure? |
|
Definition
ACE Inhibitors
Digoxin
Beta blockers
Diuretics
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the cardiac glycosides (digoxin, digftoxin)? |
|
Definition
inhibit the Na/K ATPase
decrease extracellular Na which increased untracellular calcium which increases contractility |
|
|
Term
Which Rickettsial species has properties unique from the other Rickettsial organisms. What are those unique properties? |
|
Definition
No vector
No rash
causes interstiital pneumonia
negative weil-felix
aerosol transmission
endospore |
|
|
Term
What is the classic presentation of congenital pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
palpable olve
infant doesnt feed well
hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
nonbilious projectile vomiting
2 weeks of age
[image] |
|
|
Term
What layer is the regenerative layer of the endometrium (stem cells)? |
|
Definition
Basalis
loss of basalis is called Asherman Syndrome
due to overagressive dilation and curettage(D&C) |
|
|
Term
What is the characteristic cell indicative of chronic endometritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an endometrial side effect of Tamoxifen? |
|
Definition
Endometrial polyp
antiestrogenic in breast
weakly proestrogenic in the uterus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterin endometrial lining
presents with dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain
may cause infertility
can see involvement in many places
ovary:chocolate cyst
fallopian tube: scarring
myometrium: adenomyosis
etc..
cause:
retrograde menstruation theory
metaplastic theory
lymphatic dissemination theory
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
endometrial tissue outside of the endometrium excluding the ovary (ovary is the chocolate cyst)
increased risk of carcinoma at these locations especially the ovary |
|
|
Term
psammoma bodies can arise in mesothelioma and cystadenocarcinoma of the uterus
meningiomas
cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
medullary (papillary) thryroid cancer
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
white whirly regular multiple masses in the uterus |
|
Definition
leiyomyoma
asymptomatic usually (can cause bleeding, infertility and pelvic mass if presents)
usually pre-menopausal women |
|
|
Term
single lesion with necrosis and hemorrhage arising de novo in the uterus |
|
Definition
leiomyosarcoma
(post menopausal women) |
|
|
Term
ovarian cancer with urothelial tissue |
|
Definition
|
|