Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? |
|
Definition
An aircraft in distress.
FAR 91.133c |
|
|
Term
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? |
|
Definition
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
FAR 91.113 |
|
|
Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? |
|
Definition
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
FAR 91.113 |
|
|
Term
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? |
|
Definition
Both pilots should give way to the right.
FAR 91.113 |
|
|
Term
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft |
|
Definition
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
FAR 91.113 |
|
|
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? |
|
Definition
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
FAR 91.119 |
|
|
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? |
|
Definition
An altitude of 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft.
FAR 91.119 |
|
|
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? |
|
Definition
An altitude of 500 ft AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
FAR 91.119 |
|
|
Term
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? |
|
Definition
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
AFH |
|
|
Term
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? |
|
Definition
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
AFH |
|
|
Term
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 9) (Area A) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? |
|
Definition
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
AFH |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 9) (Area B) How should the flight conrols be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? |
|
Definition
Right aileron up, elevator up.
AFH |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 9) (area C) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? |
|
Definition
Left aileron down, elevator down.
AFH |
|
|
Term
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should |
|
Definition
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
AIM |
|
|
Term
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? |
|
Definition
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
AIM |
|
|
Term
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? |
|
Definition
All traffic or terrain features apear to be farther away than their actual distance.
AIM |
|
|
Term
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use |
|
Definition
a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? |
|
Definition
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
AIM |
|
|
Term
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? |
|
Definition
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Mist midair collision accidents occur during |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall |
|
Definition
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
FAR 91.129 |
|
|
Term
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) a pilot shall |
|
Definition
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
FAR 91.129 |
|
|
Term
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by |
|
Definition
blue omnidirectional lights.
AFH |
|
|
Term
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is |
|
Definition
three white lights and one red light.
AIM |
|
|
Term
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is |
|
Definition
an amber light signal.
AIM |
|
|
Term
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 48) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 48) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is |
|
Definition
above the glide slope.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 48) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is |
|
Definition
below the glide slope.
AIM |
|
|
Term
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it |
|
Definition
five times within five seconds.
AIM |
|
|
Term
An airport's rotating beacon operated during the daylight hours indicates |
|
Definition
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
AIM |
|
|
Term
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits |
|
Definition
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
AIM |
|
|
Term
How can a military airport be identified at night? |
|
Definition
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true |
|
Definition
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? |
|
Definition
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 50) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area |
|
Definition
cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
AIM |
|
|
Term
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 50) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing |
|
Definition
Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 50) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on |
|
Definition
Runway 18 and expect a direct crosswind from the right.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 51) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic |
|
Definition
left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 51) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the |
|
Definition
southeast of the airport.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 51) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a |
|
Definition
right-quartering headwind.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 51) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? |
|
Definition
Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHen should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? |
|
Definition
When it will compromise safety.
AIM |
|
|
Term
WHere is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published? |
|
Definition
Special notices section of the Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)
AIM |
|
|
Term
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot |
|
Definition
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
AIM |
|
|
Term
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is |
|
Definition
to enter 45 at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
PHB |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? |
|
Definition
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
AFH |
|
|
Term
What does the outbound destination sign identify? |
|
Definition
Identifies direction to take-off runway.
AIM |
|
|
Term
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed? |
|
Definition
Airport Advisory Service.
AIM |
|
|
Term
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? |
|
Definition
When departing from a runway intersection.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) (Area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47°39'30"N latitude and 100°53'00"W longitude? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) (Area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 23 and 32) (Area 2) At Coeur D/Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 23 and 32) (Area 2) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 23 and 32) (Area 2) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 36) (Area 3) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 4) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 6) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 3) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? |
|
Definition
Unmarked balloon on cable up to 3,000 ft MSL
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 2) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a |
|
Definition
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from |
|
Definition
2,000 ft to 2,500 ft.
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? |
|
Definition
Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3)
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 24) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are |
|
Definition
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 24) (Area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 24) (Area 3) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340 radial is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 25) (Area 1) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 ft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 25) (Area 2) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 ft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 2) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 8) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? |
|
Definition
Airports with control towers underlying class B, C, D, and E airspace are show in blue. |
|
|
Term
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? |
|
Definition
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 2) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 ft AGL are |
|
Definition
1 mile and clear of clouds.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from |
|
Definition
1,200 ft above the surface up to and including 17,999 ft MSL.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least |
|
Definition
1,000 ft and 3 miles
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only |
|
Definition
when the associated control tower is in operation.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs |
|
Definition
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
FAR 91.129 |
|
|
Term
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
FAR 91.130; 91.215 |
|
|
Term
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? |
|
Definition
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
FAR 91.131 |
|
|
Term
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? |
|
Definition
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
FAR 91.131 |
|
|
Term
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? |
|
Definition
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
FAR 91.131 |
|
|
Term
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in |
|
Definition
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
FAR 91.131 |
|
|
Term
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 ft AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 ft AGL or below during daylight hours? |
|
Definition
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 ft MSL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 ft MSL is |
|
Definition
500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontally.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL, but less than 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 ft AGL and below 10,000 ft MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of |
|
Definition
3 miles, and 500 ft below or 1,000 ft above the clouds in controlled airspace.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL, but less than 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 ft AGL and below 10,000 ft MSL during daylight hours is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL, but less than 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 ft MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 ft MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
No person may takeoff or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the |
|
Definition
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are |
|
Definition
1,000-ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is |
|
Definition
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
FAR 91.157 |
|
|
Term
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace? |
|
Definition
1 mile flight visibility.
FAR 91.157 |
|
|
Term
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? |
|
Definition
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
FAR 91.157 |
|
|
Term
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the |
|
Definition
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
FAR 91.157 |
|
|
Term
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? |
|
Definition
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of Class B primary airport), and Class C.
FAR 91.215 |
|
|
Term
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 ft MSL must be equipped with |
|
Definition
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude encoding capability.
FAR 91.215 |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of For Worth Meacham Field is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 2) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 4) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B? |
|
Definition
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? |
|
Definition
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 22) (Area 3) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? |
|
Definition
IFR training flights above 1,500 ft AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 23) (Area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 ft AGL are |
|
Definition
3 miles and 1,000 ft above, 500 ft below, and 2,000 ft horizontally from each cloud.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 ft AGL and 10,000 ft MSL are |
|
Definition
3 miles and 1,000 ft above, 500 ft below, and 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds.
FAR 91.155 |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 1) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport |
|
Definition
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 ft AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 ft AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL.
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 27) (Area 6) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is |
|
Definition
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft AGL.
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) The airspace overlying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) (Area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is |
|
Definition
Class D airspace to 3,200 ftMSL
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 24) (Area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 21) (Area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International? |
|
Definition
Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
FAR 91.130 |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 26) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized? |
|
Definition
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 23) (Area 3) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are |
|
Definition
1,200 ft AGL to 17,999 ft MSL
Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
FAR 91.130 |
|
|
Term
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? |
|
Definition
With the controlling agency's authorization.
FAR 91.133 |
|
|
Term
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? |
|
Definition
Excerise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on |
|
Definition
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
AIM |
|
|
Term
A non-tower satellite airport, within the Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the |
|
Definition
primary airport's control tower.
FAR 91.129 |
|
|
Term
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airpsace? |
|
Definition
Contract approach control on the appropriate frequency.
AIM |
|
|
Term
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? |
|
Definition
Air Traffic Control Tower.
FAR 91.157 |
|
|
Term
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has |
|
Definition
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
FAR 91.133, AIM |
|
|
Term
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? |
|
Definition
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
AIM |
|
|
Term
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1,200 ft AGL to, but does not include, |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the |
|
Definition
Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
PHB |
|
|