Term
Cells adapt to different __________. |
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Definition
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Term
True or False: In cell injury, degenerative changes lead to both reversible and irreversible damage. |
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Definition
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Term
Cell injury with reversible damage affects a cell's __________. Cell injury with irreversible damage leads to __________ and __________ __________. |
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Definition
1) Physiology 2) Necrosis 3) Tissue dissolution |
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Term
Cells that adapt from injury transition toward what? |
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Definition
1) A neoplastic transformation |
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Term
What are the 3 detrimental outcomes associated with atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Decreased cell size 2) Organelles 3) Energy requirement |
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Term
True or False: Cell atrophy is completely reversible. |
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Definition
1) False: Cell atrophy can be reversible or irreversible depending on the insult. |
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Term
What are 5 types of cell atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Disuse 2) Menopause 3) Ischemia 4) Inflammation 5) Glandular |
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Term
What are the causes of disuse atrophy? |
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Definition
1) A plaster cast 2) Denervation (interruption of nerve connection to an organ or part) |
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Term
What are the causes of menopause atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Lack of endocrine stimulation |
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Term
What are the causes of ischemia atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Decreased blood flow 2) Reduced oxygenation 3) Tissue damaged 4) Delayed wound healing |
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Term
What are the causes of inflammation atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Stomach ulcers (H pylori) in which stomach lining cells die (increases risk of acquiring stomach cancer) |
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Term
What are the causes of glandular atrophy? |
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Definition
1) Atrophic regions of prostate 2) Increased risk of prostatic carcinoma |
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Term
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Definition
1) The increase in volume of an organ or tissue due to enlargement of component cells. |
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Term
What are examples of physiologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) During exercise (weight lifting) 2) Breast hypertrophy (during pregnancy) |
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Term
What is pathologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) The abnormal increase in the volume of an organ or tissue due to enlargement of component cells; leads to disease. |
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Term
What are the 3 types of pathologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) Compensatory 2) Adaptive 3) Precancerous |
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Term
What is an example of compensatory pathologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) A liver resection or kidney nephrectomy (often due to size) |
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Term
What is an example of adaptive pathologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) Hypertension (high blood pressure) leading to heart failure |
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Term
What is an example of precancerous pathologic hypertrophy? |
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Definition
1) Prostatic carcinomas arise in glands with preceding hypertrophy |
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Term
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Definition
1) The temporary increase of the cell number of an organ or tissue containing cells capable of mitotic division. |
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Term
True or False: Hyperplasia is terminally differentiated. |
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Definition
1) False: Hyperplasia is not terminally differentiated. |
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Term
What are 3 examples of terminally differentiated tissues? |
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Definition
1) Neural 2) Skeletal 3) Cardiac |
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Term
What are the 2 types of hyperplasia? |
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Definition
1) Physiological 2) Non-physiological |
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Term
What is an example of physiological hyperplasia? |
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Definition
1) Natural hormonal stimulation (e.g., during a woman's menstrual cycle) |
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Term
What is an example of non-physiological hyperplasia? |
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Definition
1) Abnormal hormonal stimulation (e.g., excess estrogen leading to endometrial carcinoma) |
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Term
True or False: Hyperplasia gives way to cancer. |
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Definition
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Term
True or False: Hyperplasia and hypertrophy cannot co-exist. |
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Definition
1) False: Hyperplasia and hypertrophy can co-exist when triggered by similar mechanisms. |
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Term
What are 2 triggers that will cause hypertrophy and hyperplasia simultaneously? |
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Definition
1) A pregnant uterus (estrogen and progesterone stimulation) 2) Reproductive cycling (increases number and size of endometrial and uterine stromal cells) |
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Term
A pregnant uterus causes what hormones to be stimulated? |
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Definition
1) Estrogen 2) Progesterone |
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Term
Reproductive cycling causes an increase in number and size of what cells? |
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Definition
1) Endometrial cells 2) Uterine stromal cells |
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Term
What are 6 triggers that will constantly cause hypertrophy and hyperplaisa to co-exist? |
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Definition
1) Early menarche 2) Late menopause 3) Nulliparity with continous menses 4) Irregular ovulation cycles 5) ERT during menopause 6) Tamoxifen as an anti-estrogen for breast cancer |
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Term
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Definition
1) Conversion of one adult differentiated cell type to another in response to chronic irritation, inflammation, and wound healing. |
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Term
What are 3 causes of metaplasia? |
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Definition
1) Chronic irritation 2) Inflammation 3) Wound healing |
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Term
What is another name for metaplasia? |
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Definition
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Term
True or False: Metaplsia causes no risk of cancer. |
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Definition
1) False: Metaplasia disposes cells to cancerous transformation |
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Term
What is an example of metaplasia? |
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Definition
1) Ciliated columnal epithelium being replaced by stratified squamous epithelium in the lining of a smoker's trachea. |
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Term
Where is metaplasia very likely to occur (example)? |
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Definition
1) Within a smoker's trachea |
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Term
True or False: The ciliated squamous epithelium can transition to metaplastic squamous carcinoma. |
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Definition
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Term
What occurs in Barrett's Esophagus? |
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Definition
1) Residual squamous mucosa (normal) is replaced by secretory metaplastic cells from the stomach wall as a result of acid reflux. |
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Term
In Barrett's Esophagus squamous mucosa cells are replaced by what new cells from what location? What is the primary cause for this change? |
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Definition
1) Secretory metaplastic cells 2) Stomach wall 3) Acid reflux |
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Term
Barrett's Esophagus increases the risk of what? |
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Definition
1) Ulcerated adenocarcinoma |
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Term
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Definition
1) Deranged cell growth resulting in atypical cells of various shapes and sizes. |
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Term
What are the 2 causes of dysplasia? |
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Definition
1) Chronic irritation 2) Inflammation |
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Term
True or False: Dysplasia is adaptive and reversible when insult is removed, and it does not increase cancer risk. |
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Definition
1) False: Dysplasia is adaptive and reversible when the insult is removed, but it CAN increase cancer risk. |
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Term
Dysplasia is adaptive and reversible under what conditions? |
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Definition
1) When the insult is removed. |
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Term
Uterine / endometrial dysplasia often leads to what condition? |
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Definition
1) Endometrial carcinoma (ERT) |
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Term
What is a common cause of cervical cancer (HPV)? |
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Definition
1) Cervical high grade intraepithelial squamous neoplasia |
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Term
True or False: Epithelium is a protective cell layer with slow turnover. |
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Definition
1) False: Epithelium is a protective cell layer with RAPID turnover |
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Term
In the uterine cervix, new cells are replaced by the dividing stem cell population in what cell layer? |
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Definition
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Term
In the skin, what layer separates the epithelium from connective tissue? |
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Definition
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Term
The lining of the __________ in the __________ __________ reveals the continuity between normal, dysplatic, and adenocarcinoma tissue. |
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Definition
1) Ileum 2) Small intestine |
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Term
The lining of the ileum in the small intestine reveals the continuity between what 3 tissue layers? |
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Definition
1) Normal 2) Dysplastic 3) Adenocarcinoma |
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Term
Cancers develop progressively through what type of process? |
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Definition
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Term
Between two extremes of fully normal and highly malignant tissue lies a broad spectrum of what type of tissues? |
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Definition
1) Tissues of an intermediate apperance |
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Term
Cellular transformation involves a gradual transition away from normal behavior towards what types of behaviors? |
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Definition
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Term
What indicates whether a stretch of chromatin is treated by the cell? |
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Definition
1) Normal modification of histone tails |
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Term
What are the 2 causes of transcriptional repression? |
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Definition
1) DNA methylation 2) Histone deacetylation |
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Term
What are the 2 causes of transcriptional activation? |
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Definition
1) Histone acetylation 2) DNA demethylation |
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Term
True or False: DNA acetylation is an important regulator of gene transcription. |
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Definition
1) False: DNA METHYLATION is an important regulator of gene transcription |
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Term
Alterations in __________ __________ are common in a variety of tumors as well as in development. |
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Definition
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Term
What genes are involved with DNA methylation? |
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Definition
1) Cell cycle regulation 2) p16 3) p15 4) Rb 5) BRCA1 6) MGMT 7) DAPK 8) TMS1 |
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Term
What genes are involved in cell cycle regulation? |
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Definition
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Term
What genes are associated with DNA repair? |
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Definition
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Term
What genes are associated with apoptosis? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
1) Molecules with incomplete electron shells which are able to establish chain reactions |
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Term
What are the negative effects of free-radicals? |
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Definition
1) Damage membranes 2) Cross-link proteins |
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Term
What are the 2 types of free radicals? |
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Definition
1) Endogenous 2) Exogenous |
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Term
What is the source of endogenous free radicals? |
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Definition
1) Oxygen in hyperoxide enviornments |
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Term
What is the source of exogenous free radicals? |
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Definition
1) Tobacco smoke 2) Organic solvents 3) Pesticides 4) UV radiation |
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Term
UV photons cause spectrum of what mutations? Where are they found? |
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Definition
1) p53 dimers 2) DNA of keratoses and basal cell carcinomas of the skin |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
True or False: CC dimers are usually repaired. |
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Definition
1) False: TT dimers are usually repaired, unless there is a mutation in the repair mechanism |
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Term
What causes a pyrimidine dimer to become deaminated? |
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Definition
1) Any cytosine involved in cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers; this is because a C to T transition is induced which is not often repaired. |
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Term
What is responsible for shielding keratinoctye nuclei from UV radiation? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
1) Vesicles carrying melanin pigments from keratinocytes to melanocytes located in the basal layers of the epidermis. |
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Term
Melanosomes carry melanin pigment from keratinocytes to melanocytes in what layers of the epidermis? |
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Definition
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Term
__________ __________ shield keratinocyte nuclei from UVB by acting as what? |
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Definition
1) Pigment parasols 2) Anti-oxidant |
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Term
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Definition
1) Cell adaptation or apoptosis |
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Term
Cell adaptation hypoxia leads to what results? |
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Definition
1) Expression of the HIF-1a and HIF-1b transcription factors |
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Term
What genes are activated through the expression of HIF-1a and HIF-1b? |
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Definition
Those encoding for: 1) Glycolytic enzymes (for anaerobic metabolism) 2) VEGF (for angiogenesis) 3) Inducible nitric oxide synthase and heme oxygenase-1 (for production of vasodilators) |
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Term
What is the expression of glycolytic enzymes for? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the expression of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) for? |
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Definition
1) Angiogensis (growth of new blood vessels from pre-existing ones) |
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Term
What is the expression of nitric oxide synthase and heme oxygenase-1 for? |
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Definition
1) Production of vasodilators |
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Term
The HIF-1a and HIF-1b activate genes which perform what functions? |
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Definition
1) Help cells survive at low oxygen levels 2) Act to restore normal oxygen levels |
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Term
What hypoxia is commonly associated with tumors? |
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Definition
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Term
HIF-1a expression is independently associated with a poor prognosis in what type of disease? |
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Definition
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Term
Intratumoral hypoxia is often most resistant to what therapies? |
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Definition
1) Chemotherapy 2) Radiation therapy |
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Term
What is one reason that intratumoral hypoxia is resistant to certain therapies, such as chemo and radiation therapy? |
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Definition
1) Intratumoral hypoxia is one which may be cycling very slowly or quiescent, and as a result may not be sensitive to agents which are most active in proliferating cells |
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Term
In a cross section of a poorly vascularized section of tumor tissue, oxygenated areas appear __________ and __________ while hypoxic areas stain __________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
True or False: Cancer cells are not vulnerable to extremes of temperature. |
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Definition
1) False: Cancer cells ARE vulnerable to extremes of temperature. |
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Term
In contrast to p53-deficient tumor cells, what type of cells survive much higher doses of drug 5-fluorouracil when incubated at __________ rather than 37 degrees Celsius? |
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Definition
1) p53 wild-type 2) 28 degrees |
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Term
High heat (__________) and UV exposure causes tumor cells to form what on the surface of degenerated cells? What does the body do in response to this? |
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Definition
1) Hyperthermia 2) Heat shock proteins 3) The body's immune system detects proteins TSTAs triggering the immune system to fight cancer cells |
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Term
Extensive tissue injury and disruption to neural and cardiac impulses depends on what factors? |
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Definition
1) Type and path of current 2) Duration of exposure |
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Term
True or False: Wet skin is more resistant than thick dry skin to electrical impulses. |
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Definition
1) False: Thick dry skin is more resistant than wet skin |
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Term
True or False: The greater the skin resistance, the lower the local skin burn. |
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Definition
1) False: The greater the skin resistance, the GREATER the local skin burn |
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Term
What is the order of (greatest to least) resistance to electrical current, beginning with bone and ending with the nerves? |
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Definition
1) Bone > Fat > Tendon > Skin > Muscle > Blood > Nerves |
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Term
A low dose of alternating electric current has shown efficacy for what type of cancer? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Free radical damages leads to the arrest of a cell at what stages? |
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Definition
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Term
In __________ __________ patients cannot repair damage and they often contract skin cancer. |
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Definition
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Term
A low dose of ionizing radiation is __________ while a high dose is __________. |
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Definition
1) Diagnostic 2) Therapeutic |
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Term
What are particulates in ionizing radiation? |
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Definition
1) Tiny fast-moving particles with both energy and mass |
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Term
How are particulates produced? |
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Definition
1) Through disintegration of an unstable atom |
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|
Term
What is the source of alpha particles? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles' effects are at the skin level unless penetration causing lung cancer? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles travel short distances due to large mass? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles are cannot penetrate the skin or a piece of paper? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the source of beta particles> |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles are taken up by the thyroid gland due to penetrating effects? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles are fast moving electrons? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which particles can travel far, and are more penetrating? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Early exposure to vinyl chloride causes what to occur? |
|
Definition
1) Adaptive changes in body cells 2) Injury 3) Cancer |
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|
Term
Free radical damage produced from CCl3 is most commonly found where? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Deficiency of folic acid leads to what negative consequence? |
|
Definition
1) Promotion of colon cancer due to abnormal incorporation of uracil into DNA |
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Term
Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to what results? |
|
Definition
1) Protection against oxidative damage |
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Term
Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to what negative consequence? |
|
Definition
1) The increased risk of cancer formation |
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Term
The quality and quantity of dietary fat contributes to the increased risk of what cancer? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Hyperglycemia can lead to what negative consequence? |
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Definition
1) An abnormal glucose metabolism which can increase a cancer risk in men and women |
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Term
The accumulation of fatty component in adipose tissues contributes to what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the 2 primary causes of gallbladder carcinoma? |
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Definition
1) Accumulation of bile obstruction pigments 2) Inflammation |
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|
Term
What is coal dust responsible for? |
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Definition
1) Black lung 2) Lung cancer |
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|
Term
What are the 3 stages of the wound healing process? |
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Definition
1) Inflammatory (first few days) 2) Proliferative (2-3 days - 3 weeks) 3) Remodeling (begins around 3 weeks after initial injury) |
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Term
What is Stage 1 of the wound healing process? How long does it take to occur? What occurs during this stage? |
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Definition
1) Inflammatory 2) Occurs within the first few days 3) Immediate hemostasis 4) Vascular dilation 5) Increase capillary permeability 6) Cellular infiltration (WBCs and phagocytes release growth factors) |
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Term
What is Stage 2 of the wound healing process? How long does it take to occur? What occurs during this stage? |
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Definition
1) Proliferative 2) Occurs within 2-3 days and lasts up to 3 weeks 3) Collagen, angiogensis, and cellular proliferation 4) Edema diminishes 5) Scar tissue laid down |
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Term
What is Stage 3 of the wound healing process? How long does it take to occur? What occurs during this stage? |
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Definition
1) Remodeling 2) Begins around 3 weeks after initial injury 3) Wound increases in tensile strength |
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|
Term
What factors are needed for effective wound healing? |
|
Definition
1) Methionine 2) Carbohydrates 3) Fats 4) Vitamins A, B, C and K 5) Minerals 6) Blood and nutrients |
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|
Term
What is methionine vital for? |
|
Definition
1) Cofactor in collagen synthesis |
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|
Term
What are carbs vital for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
1) Cell membrane synthesis |
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|
Term
What is Vitamin A vital for? |
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Definition
1) Epithelialization 2) Collagen synthesis |
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Term
What is Vitamin C vital for? |
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Definition
1) Collagen synthesis 2) Protein synthesis |
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Term
What is Vitamin B vital for? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are minerals vital for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are blood and nutrients vital for? |
|
Definition
1) Adequate blood flow 2) Oxygen delivery 3) Appropriate inflammatory and immune response |
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|
Term
Acute inflammation is __________ while chronic inflammation is __________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What 4 cell types are involved in acute inflammation |
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Definition
1) Neutrophils 2) Basophils 3) Eosinophils 4) Mononuclear cells |
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Term
What is the role of neutrophils? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the role of basophils |
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Definition
1) Contain heparin and histamines |
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Term
What is the role of eosinophils? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the role of mononuclear cells? |
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Definition
1) Produce monocytes and macrophages |
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Term
What 4 cell types are involved in chronic inflammation? |
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Definition
1) Monocytes and macrophages 2) Lymphocytes 3) Fibroblasts 4) Plasma cells |
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|
Term
What is the primary cause of the halt of an acute inflammation? |
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Definition
1) a programmed switch initiating a termination sequence |
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|
Term
What are the roles of resolvins and protectins? |
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Definition
1) Help to initiate apoptosis of neutrophils which are then phagocytosed by macrophages |
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|
Term
What do macrophages secrete? What is the result of this secretion? |
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Definition
1) TGF beta and anti-inflammatory cytokines 2) Force macrophages to leave through lymphatics |
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