Term
Urnialysis: Pre-analytical Examination.
After recieving a 24 hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technician must first: |
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Definition
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Term
False results in urobilinogen testing may occur if the urine specimen is |
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Definition
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Term
A clean catch urine is submitted to the labortory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinealysis is done first, and three hours later , the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should: |
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Definition
be rejected due to time delay |
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Term
Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light? |
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Definition
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Term
Urine samples should be examoned within 1 hour of voiding because |
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Definition
Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine. |
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Term
The following results were obtained on a urine specimen at 8am.
pH: 5.5
protein: 2+
glucose 3+
ketones 3+
blood: negative
bilirubin: positive
nitrite: positive
If this urine was stored uncapped at 5*C without preservation and retested at 2pm. which of the following test results would be changed due to these storage conditions?
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Definition
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Term
A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. It is accpetible for culture only if the specimen has been stored: |
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Definition
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Term
A 24 hour urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney imparement was sent to the laboratory for hormone determination. The volume was 600 mL. but there was some question as to the completness of the 24-hour collection. The next step would be to: |
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Definition
check the creatinine level; if it is > 1 g do the procedure. |
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Term
Failure to observe RBC cast in a urine can be caused by: |
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Definition
centrafuging an unmixed urine |
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Term
eGRF calculated by the MDRD formula takes into account the age, BUN, race, albumin, and what else for its calculations? |
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Definition
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Term
The creatinine clearance is reported in: |
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Definition
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Term
Microalbumin can be measured by a random urine collection. An increased microalbumin is predictive of: |
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Definition
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Term
Physical examination:
A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will most likely have: |
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Definition
a pale urine with a high specific gravity |
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Term
While performing an analysis of a baby's urine , the technologist notices the specimen to have a mousy odor. Of the following substances that may be excreted in urine, the one that most characteristically produces this odor is: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would be affected by allowing the urine specimen to remain at roon temperature for 3 hours before analysis? |
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Definition
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Term
An ammonia like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who: |
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Definition
Have an infection with Proteus sp |
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Term
Urine that develops a port wine color after standing due to the formation of: |
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Definition
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Term
Acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of |
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Definition
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Term
Urine from a 50 year old man was noted to turn dark upon standing. This change is caused by: |
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Definition
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Term
The clarity of a urine sample should be determined: |
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Definition
following thorough mixing of the specimen. |
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Term
Milky urine from a 24 year old wonam would most likely contain: |
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Definition
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Term
A brown black urine would most likely contain: |
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Definition
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Term
The yellow color of a urine is primarily due to: |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
A urine specimen collected on an apparently healthy 25 year old man shortly after he finished eating lunch was cloudy but showed normal results on a multiple reagent strip analysis.The most likely cause of the turbidity is: |
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Definition
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Term
In which of the following metabolic diseases will urine turn dark brown to black upon standing : |
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Definition
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Term
Urine osmolality is related to: |
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Definition
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Term
Urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of the kidney to: |
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Definition
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Term
Osmolality is a measure of |
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Definition
dissolved particles, including ions |
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Term
A patient urine sample has an increased protein and a high specific gravity . Which of the following would be a more accurate measure of urine concentration? |
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Definition
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Term
To prepare a solution appropriate for quality control of the refractometer, a technician should use: |
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Definition
sodium chloride with a specific gravity of 1.022 |
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Term
A urines specific gravity is directly porportional to it's: |
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Definition
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Term
Isothenuria is associated with a specific gravity which is usually: |
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Definition
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Term
The fluid leaving the glomerulus normally has a specific gravity of: |
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Definition
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Term
An antidiuretic hormone dificiency is associated with a: |
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Definition
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Term
Use of a refractometer over a urometer is preferred due to the fact that the refractometer uses: |
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Definition
small volume of urine and compensates for temperature. |
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Term
Calibration of refractometers is done by measuring the specific gravity of distilled water and |
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Definition
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Term
The method of choice for performing a specific gravity measurement of urine following administration of x-ray contrast dyes is: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution test to assess renal tubular function? |
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Definition
osomolality and specific gravity |
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Term
Refractive index is a comparison of: |
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Definition
light velocity in air to light velocity in solution |
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Term
Chemical Examination:
Which of the following can give a false negative protein reading? |
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Definition
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Term
The Ph of a urine specimen measures the: |
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Definition
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Term
Upon standing at room temperature, a urine Ph typically |
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Definition
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Term
Urine reagent strips should be stored in a: |
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Definition
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Term
The principle of the reagent strip for urine protein depends on: |
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Definition
protein error of indicators |
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Term
The protein section of the urine strip is most sensitive to: |
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Definition
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Term
Routine screening of urine samples for glycosuria is performed primarily to detect: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine? |
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Definition
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Term
A test area of a urine reagent strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This section will react with: |
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Definition
acetoacetic acid (diacetic acid) |
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Term
A reagent strip impregnated with stabilized , diazotized 2,4-dichloroaniline will yield a positive reaction with: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following factors will not interfere with the reagent strip test for leukicytes? |
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Definition
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Term
Excess urine on the reagent strip can turn a normal Ph result into a falsley acidic pH when which of the following reagents runs into the Ph pad. |
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Definition
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Term
When employing the urine reagent strip method, a false-positive protein result may occur in the presence of: |
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Definition
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Term
A 17 year old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substace would most likely be found in her urine? |
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Definition
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Term
A 2 year old child has a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by: |
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Definition
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Term
A patients urinalysis revealed a positive bilirubin and a decreased urobilinogen level. These results are associated with: |
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Definition
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Term
A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative biliribin may indicate: |
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Definition
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Term
Microscope analysis of a urine specimen yields a moderate amount of red blood cells in spite of a negative result for occult blood using a reagent strip. The technologist should determine if this patient has taken: |
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Definition
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Term
The purpose for routeinly screening diabetes mellitus patients for microalbuminemia is to monitor the development of |
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Definition
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Term
The principle of the reagent strip test for microalbuminuria is: |
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Definition
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Term
The reason the albumin:creatinine ratio can be run on a random specimen is: |
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Definition
creatinine corrects for over or under body hydration. |
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Term
To prepare a reagent used in confirmatory protein testing, a technician would: |
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Definition
dissolve 3g sulfosalicylic acid in 100 mLs of water. |
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Term
A positive result for bilirubin on a reagent strip should be followed up by: |
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Definition
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Term
Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine has a positive reaction for blood, but no RBCs were seen on microscopic examination. After centrifugation the supernatant fluid is red. The abnormal color is caused by |
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Definition
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Term
A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a passthrough reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of: |
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Definition
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Term
When performing a routein urinalysis, the technician notes a 2+ protein result.
He should: |
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Definition
confirm with acid precipitation |
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Term
The confirmatory test for positive protein result by the reagent strip method uses: |
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Definition
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Term
A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase reagent strip and a copper reduction test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretatons are correct? |
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Definition
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Term
A urinalysis is performed on a 2 week old infant with diarrhea shows a negative reaction with the glucose oxidase reagent strip. A copper reduction tablet should be performed to check the urine sample for the presence of: |
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Definition
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Term
When using a sulfosalicylic acid test, false positive protein results may occur in the presence of |
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Definition
radiographic contrast media |
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Term
Which of the following is the primary reagent in the copper reductrion tablet |
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Definition
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Term
Microscopic examination:
In most compound light microscopes, the ocular lens has a magnification of: |
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Definition
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Term
The best way to lower the light intensity of the microscope is to : |
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Definition
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Term
The advantage of using phase microscopy in urinalysis is to: |
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Definition
enhance constituants with a low refractive index |
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Term
The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as: |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids |
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Term
A microscope examination of urine sediment reveals ghost cells. These red blood cells seen in urine with a : |
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Definition
specific gravity of < 1.007 |
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Term
Glitter cells are a microscopic finding of: |
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Definition
White blood cells in hypotonic urine |
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Term
What cell is most commonly associated with vaginal contamination? |
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Definition
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Term
A reagent strip for blood has been reported positive. Microscopic examination fails to yield red blood cells. This patient's condition can be called: |
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Definition
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Term
Ghost red blood cells are seen in urine that is |
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Definition
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Term
The possibility of detecting glitter cells is associated with urine that is: |
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Definition
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Term
An eosinophil count may be requested on urine from a patient with suspected: |
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Definition
acute interstistal nephritis
acute interstistal nephritis is caused by an allergic reaction resulting in inflammation of the renal tubules. The reaction is frequently caused by a medication. As a result of the allergic reaction, eosinophils are increased. An eosinophil count can aid in confirming the diagnosis. |
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Term
Clue cells are a form of: |
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Definition
Squamous epithelial cells |
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Term
Which of the following cells is most likely to be seen in the urine sediment following a catheterization procedure? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient addmitted following an accident involving massive crush injuries has the following urinalysis results:
color: red brown microscopic findings
clarity: clear renal tubular epithelial cells 5-10
specific gravity: 1.011 renal tubular cell cast 1-2
pH: 6.0
protein: 1+
blood: large
glucose: negative
ketones: negative
nitrite: negative
leukocyte: negative
bilirubin: negative
urobilinogen: negative
The descrepancy between the large amount of blood and the absence of microscopy is caused by: |
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Definition
The presence of myoglobin in the urine sample
Myoglobin is a product of muscle distruction. The reagent strip reaction for blood is positive with the presence of RBCs hemoglobin , and myoglobin. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin are toxic to renal tubules , resulting in decreased urine flow , favoring cast formation and the sloughing of damaged cells. Notice also that the specimen is clear. |
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Term
What is the most likely diagnosis given this microscopic finding?
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
[image]
Identify the formed element in this photomicrograph:
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Definition
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Term
All cast typically contain |
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Definition
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Term
Hyline cast are usually found: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following cast is most likely to be found in healthy people? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following cast is most indicative of end stage renal disease? |
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Definition
waxy
Broad cast indicte extream stasis of urine flow through the nephron. Stasis allows cast to form in the larger collecting ducts. Damaage to the walls of the distal convouluted tubule also cause broader cast to form |
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Term
A technologist performed a STAT microscopic urinalysis and reported the following
WBC: 10-13
RBC: 2-6
hyline cast: 5-7
bacteria: 1+
The centrafuge tube was not discarded and the sedament was reevaluated microscopically 5 hours after the above results are reported. A second technologist reported the same results except 2+ bacteria and no hyline cast were found. The most probable explanation for the second technologist findings is: |
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Definition
Cast dissolve due to an increase in urine Ph.
Multiplication of the bacteria caused the urine to become alkaline, causing the cast to dissolve |
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Term
Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell: |
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Definition
eccentrically placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell |
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Term
The urine microscopic constituants that best differentiate between cystitis and pylonephritis are: |
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Definition
WBC cast
Plelonephritis is an inflammation /infection of the renal tubules. Therefore white blood cell cast would indicate the location of the source of the inflammation /infection . Cystitis is an infection of the bladder. |
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Term
Epithelial cell cast are most indicative of: |
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Definition
tubular necrosis
Damage to the renal tubules causes sloughing of the cell lining the tubules, making these cells the most promonent in the cast formation, Although cast are seen in each of the other listed disorders, each has its own most promonient cast features ie red blood cells, fat, and white blood cells |
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Term
Granular cast found in the urine of a football player admitted to the hospital with a broken leg occuring during the game csn be the result of: |
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Definition
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Term
Which of thr following cast most frequently appears appears to have a brittle consistancy |
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Definition
Waxy Waxy cast are seen with an extreme stasis of urine flow, indicating they have remained in the tubules for an extended time. These aging cast are more refractile, and often contain notches and jagged edges as the result of granular disentergration |
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Term
To distinguish between a clump of WBCs and a WBC cast, it is important to observe: |
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Definition
The presence of the cast matrix |
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Term
Spherical urothelial cells may be confused with |
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Definition
renal tubular epithelial cells
The eccentric placement of the nucleus in renal tubular cells differentiates them from spherical urothelial cells , which have a centrally placed nucleus. |
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Term
Prior to reporting a red blood cell cast, it is important to observe : |
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Definition
free floating RBCs\Before reporting a red blood cast, it is essential to observe free floating RBCs in the sediment. A coursley granular cast may sometimes resemble a red blood cast. Without the presence of free red blood cells, a red cell cast could not have been formed in the tubules |
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Term
In a specimen with a large amount of bilirubin, which of the following sediment constituants would be noticeably bile stained: |
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Definition
renal tubular epithelial cell cast. |
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Term
What is the most likely diagnosis given this microscopic finding?
[image] |
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Definition
glomerulonephritis'
RBC cast, protein and RBCs together are indicative of glomerular nephritis. RBC cast form when there is bleeding in the glomerulus and tubules |
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Term
A white precipitate in a urine specimen with a Ph of 7.5 would most probalbly be caused by: |
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Definition
amorphous phosphates
Amorphous phosphates are found in alkaline urine. Under conditions such as refrigeration, they produce a white precipitate. Urates produce a pink precipitate, and WBCs and bacteria do not precipitate. |
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Term
Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate? |
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Definition
cystine
cystine crystals appear as a hexogonal plates, frequently in clumps, Tyrosine crystals are needle shaped, leucine crystals are round and cholesteral crystals are flat with notched croners |
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Term
The Primary component of most urinary calculus is |
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Definition
calcium
Approximately 75% of renal calculi are composed of calcium compounds (oxalate, Phosphate and others). Magnesium ammonium phosphate makes up about 15% of the calculi |
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Term
After warming a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of: |
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Definition
urates
Amorphous urates will dissolve when the specimen is breifly warmed. Amorphous phosphates are dissolved by the addition of acid, which will destroy other sediment constituents. |
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Term
Tiny colorless, dumbell shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sedament. They most likely are: |
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Definition
calcium carbonate
Calcium carbonate cryatals are small dumbell shaped or round crystals often seen in clumps. With careful examination, dumbell shaped forms can be distinguished. |
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Term
Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine: |
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Definition
calcium oxalate
Calcium oxalate crystals are found in in acidic and nutural urine, but not in alkaline urine. |
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Term
Using polorized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent? |
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Definition
cholesterol
Cholesterol is the only one of these lipids capable of polorizing light. |
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Term
Which of the following crystals is seen in amber urine with a positive bilirubin? |
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Definition
tyrosine
Tyrosine crystals are fine needles often seen in clumps. Leucine are spherical with concentric striations. Cholesterol crystals are flat plates with notched corners. Hemosiderin granules are dark, and often clumped. |
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Term
Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) numerous crystals are found in the urine. The shape of these crystals is: |
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Definition
oval/dumbell
Calcium oxide monohydrate crystals are most frequently seen following ingestion of ethylene glycol/ antifreeze. Unlike the more commonly seen envelope-shaped diydrate crystals , they are oval or dumbell shaped. |
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Term
Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains: |
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Definition
4+ protein
Increased lipids in the urine is a characteristic of the nephroyic syndrome. Massive amounts of protein are also associated with the nephrotic syndrome. |
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Term
The finding of a large amount of uric acid crystals in a urine specimen from a 6 month old boy |
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Definition
could indicate Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Lesch-Nyhan symdrome is an inherited disorder of purine metabolism. The first indication of this disorder may be the presence of uric acid indicating the incomple metabolism of dietary purines. |
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Term
The following crystal is found in:
[image] |
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Definition
Alkaline Ph and is non pathogenic
Triple phosphste crystals, nicknamed coffin lids are nonpathologic. They are found in alkaline urines, usually urines with bacterial growth.
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Term
Identify this crystal
[image] |
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Definition
uric acid
Uric acid has many shapes, is found in acid urine and is non pathologic. The reader should become familiar with different shapes. |
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Term
Alkaline urine showed this microscopic finding:
[image]
the technologist should: |
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Definition
dissolve with acetic acid
The crystals are amorphous phosphates.
These can be dissolved with dilute acetic acid. In order to view other formed elements that are obscured. |
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Term
Polorized light can often be used to differentiate between : |
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Definition
fibers and mucus clumps
Contaminants frequently contain substances capable of polorizing light. |
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Term
The presence of this element in urine indicates the presence of:
[image] |
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Definition
powder
Starch granules are very refractile and produce a maltese cross under polorized light, Oil air bubbles and pollon grains do not polorize |
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Term
Identify the formed element in this photomicrograph:
[image] |
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Definition
cloth fiber
Cloth fiber is a contaminant it should noe be confused with a cast . Fiber can have a rough and stringy appearance. Vegatable fibers have intracate repeating detail |
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Term
A technologist is having trouble differentiating between red blood cells , oil droplets and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to: |
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Definition
lyse the red blood cells
Acetic acid lyses red blood cells, but not oil droplets or yeast. cetic acid will also lyse other formed elements and should be added to an aliquot of the settlement |
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Term
A urine specimen is tested and has the following results:
Reagent strip Microscopic findings
glucose 3+ >100 WBCs/hpf
Protein 1+ many yeast cells
This is indicative of: |
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Definition
Diabetes mellitis
Yeast cells are a commonly seen in urine specimens from persons with diabetes mellitus, because the high glucose contesn provides an excellant growth media for yeast. |
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Term
When identifying urinary crystals, which reagent strip result is most important? |
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Definition
pH
Urine crystals formation is associated with the optional pH needed for their formation (acid,alkaline or neutural). |
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Term
Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the: |
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Definition
lukocytes is positive
Based on the time between collection and analysis of a urine specimen and the method of preservation, bacteria can be a heavy contaminate of urine. A positive LE test indicating the actual presence of WBCs confirms the actual presence of an infection. |
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Term
Which of the following exhibits rapid motility in urine sediment? |
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Definition
Trichomonas vaginalis
The flagellite Trichomonas vaginalis moves rapidly through the sediment . If not moving, it may resemble a WBC , and careful examination of phase microscopy is needed to visualize the flagellum, Urine is Toxic to spermatozoa |
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Term
Which of the following is consistant with this urine microscopic finding?
[image] |
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Definition
nitrates
Many bacteria produce nitrites from nitrate. If the biochemical strip is positive for nitrite, you should find bacteria in the sediment |
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Term
A 21 year old woman had glucose in her urine with a normal blood sugar. These findings are most consistant with |
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Definition
renal glucose uria
Glucose in the urine of a person with a normal blood glucose is indicative of renal tubule damage or the inherited disorder, renal glucoseuria, in which transport receptors are absent in thr proximal convoluted tubule |
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Term
Which of the following positive chemical reacions is most closely associated with the presence of yeast in the urine sediment? |
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Definition
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Term
Complete examination:
A 59 year old man is evaluated for back pain. Urine studies (urinalysis by multiple reagent strip) should include:
Urinalysis
specific gravity: 1.017
pH: 6.5
protein: negative
glucose: negative
blood: negative
Microscopic findings
rare epithelial cells
Urine protein electrophoresis: monoclonal spike in gamma globulin region
Which of the following statements best explain these results? |
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Definition
Urine protein is falsley negative because the method is not sensitive ofr Bence Jones protein
Reagent strip test for proteinuria are primarily sensitive to albumin. The monoclonal spike in the gamma region indicates the presence of Bence jones protein that is immunoglobulin rather than albumin. |
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Term
The results of a urinalysis on a first morning specimen are:
Specific gravity: 1.024
pH: 8.5
protein negative
glucose: negative
Microscopic findings
uric acid crystalsThe next step is to repeat the:
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Definition
Ph and microscopic findings
Uric acid crystals are seen in acid urine. The reagent strip pH may have been recorded wrong . Uric acid crystals have many shapes, and an artifact may have been mistaken for the uric acid crystals. |
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Term
The following urinalysis results were obtained from an 18 year old woman in labor:
pH; 6.5
protein: 30 mg/dL
glucose: 250 mg/dL
ketones: negative:
bilirubin: small
blood: negative
nitrite: negative
urobilinogen: 0.1 EU/dL
specific gravity: 1.025
copper reduction test: 1.0 g/dL
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the Patients positive copper reduction test? |
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Definition
Glucose and possibly other reducing substances/ sugars are present.
The reagent strip glucose test using glucose oxidase is specific for glucose; therefore, glucose must be present in the sample. The copper reduction test is positive with many sugars, including glucose . The copper reduction test has a lower sensitivity than the reagent strip; therefore , the higer reading on the copper reduction strip indicates of an additional sugar , In the case of a nursing mother, the most likely additional suger is lactose. |
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Term
The following urine results were obtained on a 25 year old female:
pH: 7.0 microscopic findings
color: yellow bacteria: many
appearance: cloudy WBC cast: 0-3/lpf
protein: 1+ WBC/hpf 30-40
glucose: negative
blood: small
specific gravity: 0.015
These results are most compatible with: |
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Definition
pylonephritis
Pyelonephritis is an infection involving the renal tubules, Therefore, the presence of WBC cast and bacteria aids in the diagnosis, Cystitis is an infection of the bladder and does not affect the tubules. RBC cast are the promonent finding with glomerularnephritus. |
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Term
A urinalysis performed on a 27 year old woman yields the following results:
specific gravity 1.008 microscopic findings
Ph: 5.0 WBC/hpf 10-15
protein: 2+ RBC/hpf 30-55
glucose: negative casts/lpf hyline 5-7, RBC: 2- 5
ketones: negative granular 2-3
bilirubin: negative
blood: 3+
nitrite: negative
leukocytes: positive
urobilinogen: 0.1 EU/dL
These findings are most consistant with:
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Definition
glomerulonephritis
The presence of RBC cast is consistant with glomerularlonephritis. WBCs, RBCs and protein are a result of glomerular damage. |
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Term
A 62 year old patient with hypelipoproteinemia has a large amount of protein in his urine. Microscopic analysis yields moderate to many fatty, granular and cellular casts, many oval fat bodies are also noted. This is most consistant with: |
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Definition
nephrotic symdrome
Damage to the electrical charges of the glomerular membrane , allowing the passage of high molecular weight proteins and lipids occurs in nephrotic syndrome. This results in markedly increased urine protein levels, and the appearance of fatty casts and oval fat bodies that are characteristic of nephrotic syndrome |
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Term
A patient has two separate urinalysis reports which contain the following data:
Test Report A Report B
specific gravity 1.004 1.017
pH; 5.5 7.0
protein: negative 1+
glucose: negative negative
blood: negative small
miscroscopy: rare epithelial cell 1-2 granular cast/lpf
2-3 hylin cast /lpf
moderate epithelial cells
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST EXPLAINS THE RESULTS? |
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Definition
protein , glucose and microscopy of A are false negative because of the specific gravity.
A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.004 is very dilute. This will result in the concentration of urine constituants being too low, below the ability to be detected by chemical and microscopic examination. |
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Term
A 4 year old girl develops edema following a recent immunization. Laboratory studies reveal:
serum albumin: 1.8 g/dL
serum cholesterol: 450 mg/dL
serum urine nitrogen: 20 mg/dL
urinalysis: protein 4+, hyline, granular and fatty cast
These findings are most compatible with: |
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Definition
minimal change disease
Minimal change disease is seen primarily in children, often following allergic reactions or immunizations. Classic laboratory results include markedly elevated urine protein, fatty cast, elevated serum lipids, decreased serum albumin , and normal BUN.
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Term
A specimen with a negative nitrate reaction and a positive leukocytes reaction that has WBCs, WBC casts, and no bacteria in the sediment will be seen in cases of: |
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Definition
acute interstitial nephritis
Acute interstitial nephritis is caused by an allergic reaction, resulting in inflammation, not infection , of the renal tubules. Bacteria are not present in an inflammation |
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Term
Urinalysis results on a female patient who brings a urine specimen to the physician's office for her annual physical are:
color: yellow Microscopic findings
clarity: cloudy
squamous epithelial cells
moderate
specific gravity: 1.020 WBC/hpf 0.2
pH: 7.0 bacteria heavy
protein: trace
glucose: negative
ketones: negative
blood: negative
bilirubin: negative
urobilinogen: 0.2 mg/dL
nitrite: positive
leukocytes: negative
What action should be taken: |
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Definition
ask the patient to collect another specimen at the office.
The presence of heavy bacteia with a negative leukocyte esterase and normal WBC numbers indicates the specimen has been collected > 2 hours before being tested. Testing a fresh specimen will determine if bacterial multiplicaton has occured in the first specimen.
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Term
A patient with lupus erythematosis has the following urinealysis results:
color: red Microscopic findings
clarity: cloudy WBC/hpf 5-10
specific gravity: 1.011 RBC/hpf 40-50
pH: 6.0 Casts/lpf hyline 2-4, RBC 3-5
protein: 3+
glucose: negative
ketones: negative
blood: large
bilirubin: negative
urobilinogen: 1.0 mg/dL
nitrite: negative
leukocytes: trace
These results would be associated with:
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Definition
chronic glomerulonephritis
A major cause of glomerular disorders is the deposition of immune complexes on the glomerular membrane, producing damage to the membranes. The presence of RBC cast would be present in chronic pyelonephritis, and renal tubular epithelial cells are present in tubular necrosis. |
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Term
The sediment of a urine specimen with a reagent strip glucose of 250 mg/dL and a Ph of 5.5 is ideal for the presence of |
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Definition
Candida albicans
The ideal growth conditions for growth of candida albicans are an acid pH and the presence of glucose. Candida is a frequent cause of urinary tract infections in diabetic patients. |
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Term
A patient with severe back pain has the following urinalysis results:
color: dark yellow microscopic findings
clarity: hazy RBC/hpf 10-20
specific gravity 1.030 squamous epi cells moderate
pH: 6.0 calcium oxalate crystals
protein trace
glucose negative
ketones negative
bloos small
bilirubin negative
urobilinogen 0.4 mg/dL
nitrite: negative
leukocytes: negative
In addition to the presence of blood, what other reagent strip result relates to the patients symptoms?
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Definition
specific gravity
The high specific gravity indicates the patient is in a dehydrated state that favors the formation the formaton of renal calculi, producing back pain and the presence of red blood cells resulting from irritation to the urinary tract caused by the calculi |
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Term
Urine physiology:
The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is pporximately: |
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Definition
160 mg/dL
The renal threshold is the ploasma level at which a substance , such as glucose, is no longer absoebed by the proximal convoluted tubules. The plasma level for glucose ranges from 160-180 mg/dL |
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Term
The volume of urine excreted in a 24 hour period by an adult patient was 500 mL. This condition would be termed: |
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Definition
oligouria
The normal daily urine output is around 1200 mLs |
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Term
A patient has glucoseuria , hyperglycemia and polyuria. These findings are most consistant with : |
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Definition
diabetes mellitus
Polyuria occurs due to the need to excrete excess urine. The excess dissolved glucose in the urinary filtrate . |
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Term
The normal glomerular filtration rate is |
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Definition
120 mL/min
Although the normal glomerular filtration rate is 120 mL/min, tubular reabsorption returns normally all but 1 mL |
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Term
Normal urine primarily consist of : |
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Definition
water, uria and sodium chloride
Protein molecules are too large to normally pass theough the glomerulus. Bilirubin is not a normal constituant of plasma |
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Term
An abdominal fluid is submitted from surgery. The physician wants to determine if this fluid could be urine. The technologist should: |
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Definition
test for urea and creatinine
Urine is the ONLY body fluid containing large amounts of the waste products urea and creatinine. These 2 constituants are used to determine if an unknown fluid is urine. |
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Term
Antidiuretic hormone regulates the resorbtion of:
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Definition
water.
Based on the bodys stae of hydration, anti dirutic hormone regulates the permeability of the walls of the collecting ducts to water , When the body is dehydrated, ADH is released by the pituitary gland, reducing the permeability of the walls to water. |
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Term
Which of the following components are present in serum but not present in the glomerular filtrate? |
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Definition
Large molecular weight proteins
The intact structure of the glomerulae membrane does not permit passage of high molecular weight substances, such as protein molecules. |
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Term
Polyuria is usually correlated with: |
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Definition
diabetes mellitis
The increased lasma glucose seen in diabete mellitis results in excess hglucose in the glomerular filtrate. Increased amounts of water are required for excreation of the excess glucose in the filtrate. As a result, increased fluid intake is characteristic of persons with diabetes mellitis |
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Term
Cessation of urine flow is defined as: |
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Definition
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Term
The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborn's urine is to check for: |
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Definition
galactose
Galactouria is an inborn error of metabolism, resulting in the failure to inherit one of the enzymes needed to metabolize diatary glucose. By products of this metabolic failure are toxic, and can result in severe mental retardation. Early detection and diatary changes can prevent the toxicity. |
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Term
Ketones in urine are due to: |
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Definition
incomplete fat metabolism
Ketones are intermediate components of fat metabolism. When access to carbohydrates normally broken down to supply energy is limited , fats are broken down for energy, and the intermediate ketone products (acetone, acetoacetic acid and beta hydroxybuteric acid) can be detected in the urine. |
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Term
Reagent strip test for ketones measure primarily |
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Definition
acetoacetic acid
The nitroprusside/ferricyanide reagent strip react with acetoacetic acid.Glycine must be present for the reaction to include acetone. beta-hydroxybutyric acid is present in the largest amount, but does not react with nitroferricyanide. |
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Term
Bilirubinemia may be associated with: |
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Definition
viral hepititis
Bilirubin is a product of hemoglobin degradaton. It occurs in both unconjugated and conjugated forms. Only conjugated bilirubin can pass through the glomerulus, because unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin, Conjugation of bilirubin takse place in the liver, and damage interferes with continued degradation to urobilinogen. |
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Term
Myoglobinuria is most likely to be noted in urine specimen from patients with which of the following disorders? |
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Definition
myocardial infarction
Myoglobin is a product of muscle destruction. Myocardial infarctions damage the heart muscle. |
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Term
A patient with renal tubual acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a: |
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Definition
High Ph
Renal tublar acidosis is the inability to produce an acid urine even when in acidosis. The hydrogen ions needed to produce an acid urine are eaisly reabsorbed. To remove them, tubular secretion of the ions, combined with ammonium ions produced in the proximal tubule and distal convoluted tubules , is needed. |
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Term
glucose uria may be due to |
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Definition
renal tubular dysfunction
The majority of the filtered glucose is reabsorbed by active transport in the proximal convoluted tubules(PCT). Damage to the PCTs results in glucose uria and a normal plasma glucose. |
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Term
The area of the nephron that is impermeable to water is the: |
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Definition
ascending loop of Henle
To maintain the high concentration of solutes in the renal medulla that result in the ability to concentrate urine, water cannot be removed from the filtrate as it passes through the asceding loop of Henle |
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Term
The urinary tract structures responsible for renal concentration is: |
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Definition
juxtamedullary nephrons
The juxtaaglomerular nephron have long loops of Henle, and the urinary filtrate passes through the renal medulla with its high osmotic gradient , causing resorption of water in the decending loop of Henle. Corticol nephrons are located in the renal cortex and have short loops of Henle that do not reach the medulla. |
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Term
The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is: |
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Definition
osmolarity
Osmolarity measures the number of particles in a solution, whereas specific gravity is influenced not only by the number of particles but also their density. Renal concentration is concerned with smaller molecules , such as sodium and chloride. Each of these molecules will contribute the same to an osmolarity reading as a large molecule of glucose. |
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Term
Failure of the nephron to produce ammonia will result in a urine with a: |
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Definition
High Ph
The production of ammonia is essential fot the removla of hydrogen ions from the glomerular filtrate. Lack of ammonia results in a lack of hydrogen ions in the filtrate and a high pH. |
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Term
Other body fluids:
To avoid falsley elevated spinal fluid cell counts:
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Definition
select an aliquot from the last tube collected
The lumbar tap may be traumatic, which will produce blood. Blood cells in the CSF will not be due to a central nervous system defect in that case. |
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Term
A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by increased: |
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Definition
white blood cells
Protein and glucose are dissolved substances and dont contribute to turbidity. Bacteria and WBCs are solids that make the CSF turbid. When Bacteria is present so are WBCs. The large WBCs contribute more to turbidity than the smaller ones. |
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Term
The normal concentration of proteins in cerebrospinal fluid, relative to serum protein is: |
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Definition
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Term
To prepare the reagent used for mucin clot determination of synovial fluid, water is mixed with: |
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Definition
glacial acetic acid
Diluting cells for counting should not disturb them osmotically. Saline is the best choice. Water can lyse the cells, trichloroacetic acid will precipitate the sample, and acetic acid will form a clot with hyaluronic acid in the sample. |
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Term
In addition to the sperm count in a fertility study, analysis of the seminal fluid should also include?
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Definition
time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology.
Its not necessary to test alkaline phosphatase, acid phophatase oe hemoglobin for fertility. Sperm should be motile ], have normal morphology and the sample sample should have normal viscosity. |
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Term
The following lab values were obtained on a body fluid sample:
protein 3 g/dL
albumin 2.1 g/dL
hyaluronate: 0.4 g/dL
glucose 80 mg/dL
lactate: 10 mg/dL
The sample is:
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Definition
synovial fluid
Urine and CSF are ruled out because of the high protein value. Urine and CSF have proteins in the mg/dL range NOT g/dL. Hyaluronate is a component of snovial fluid, not plural fluid. |
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Term
A physician attempts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly bloody fluid. Addition of acetic acid results in turbidity |
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Definition
haluronic acid clots in the presence of acetic acid
its snovial fluid
snovial fluid has hyuronic acid |
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Term
Snyovial fluid is analyzed with a polorizing microscope . Strongly bifringent needles are seen.
This most likely indicates. |
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Definition
monosodium urate cryatals
MSU (uric acid) are needles , whereas calcium pyrophosphate crystals are rhomboid and square. Corticosteroid crystals are bifringent and needle shaped but will only be present if the patient has been treated with corticosteriod injections. Talc crystals are found are found as contaminants, and are not needle shaped |
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Term
A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 large squares of the nuebauer counting chamber. The sperm count is: |
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Definition
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Term
The principle mucin in synovial fluid is: |
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Definition
hyluronate
Hyluronic acid is also known as hysluronate. It is the principle mucin in synovial fluid, and its role is lubrication of the joints , A low hyluronic acid leads ro decreased viscosity of the snovial fluid aand inflammation. |
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Term
The snynovial fluid eaisly forms small drops from the aspirating syringe. This viscosity is |
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Definition
associated with inflammation
A n ormal synovial fluid is viscous and will form a string of 4-6 cm when expressedd from a syringe. If the fluid forms small drops, the viscosity is decreased . This is associated with arhtritis; hence, inflammation is the correct answer. |
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Term
Pleral transudates differ from pleural exudates in that transudates have : |
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Definition
Relatively low cell counts
Transudates are thin , watery effusions with low protein, and low cell counts. Exudates are inflammatory of infectious effusions with high LD, protein and WBC |
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Term
Plural fluid from a patient with congestive heart failure would be expected to: |
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Definition
appear clear and pale yellow.
Congestive heart fluid is a build up of fluid because of poor heart pumping. The fliud is watery , not infected. |
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Term
(MSU) and calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (CPPD) crystals can be distinguished by using a red compensator in a polorizing microscope. When the crystals is aligned with a slow vibration of the compensator, which is true. |
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Definition
MSU are yellow.
uric acid produces a yellow color when the crystal is aligned with the compensator, but the color is blue when the crystal is perpendicular
CPPD has the oppisuite color effect.12 |
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Term
False positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of |
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Definition
Horseradish.
False positives for fecal occult blood occur when patient diet includes foods that produces peroxidase. Horseradish, broccoli, radishes, melons, and other foods can cause a false positive. Patients that take asparin may have some occult bleeding that is not associated with colorectal cancer, but acetomenophen is not a cause of bleeding . Acsorbic acid at high doses can interfere with test and cause a false negtive. |
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Term
The chromogen for the fecal occult blood test is |
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Definition
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Term
A bulidup of fluid in a body cavity is called :
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Definition
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Term
A fluid sample waas collected by throcentesis. A serum sample was collected immediately afterward. The LD fluid to serum ratio was 0.9. there were 5,000 WBC/uL, with 75% PMNs Which of the following describes this fluid. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Amniotic fluid is tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test determines: |
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Definition
Fetal lung maturity
Amniotic fluid can be collected to test for birth defects such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome ) spina bifida (increased AFP and acetylcholinesterase) hemolytic disease of the newborn (bilirubin) and fetal lung maturity . FLM can be determined by increased lamillar body production in the amniotic fluid. Lamellar bodies are phospholipids produced by the maturing pneumocytes. They are approximately the size of small platelets, and can be counted in instruments that count platelets. |
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Term
Aminocentesis should be preformed to |
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Definition
To confirm high maternal serum alpha-feto protein (MSAFP) |
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Term
The sweat chloride > 60 mEq/L (60mmol/L) is indicative of? |
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Definition
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Term
The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called |
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Definition
delta F 508
Delta-F508 is the deletion of phenylalanune at position 508 of the CFTR protein. Trisomy 21 is a third copy of chromosome 21, associated with downs syndrome. The philidelphia chromosome is a gene translocation associated with acute myelocytic leukemia . Fragile X is a form of mental retardation caused by an increased number of neucleotide repeats. |
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Term
The presence of oligoclonal bands in the CSF but not in the serum is associated with |
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Definition
Multiple sclerosis
The synthesis of IgG in the central nervous system is associated with some neurological disorders, most predominatelt multiple sclerosis. The other conditions are also CNS disorders, but do not cause increased plasma proteins. |
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Term
Normal CSF has a relative abundance of which of the following proteins when compared to serum? |
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Definition
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Term
A CSF was colloected from a 5 year old with a fever, and 3 tubes were transported to the lab, Tube 1 had 50,000 RBC/mL and 48 WBC/mL. Tube 3 had 10 RBCs /mL and 0 WBCs/mL. What is the most likely explanation for the descrepancy? |
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Definition
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Term
An increased IgG index indicates: |
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Definition
synthesis of IgG in the CNS
The IgG index is used to determine if increased IgG in CSF is due to increased production in the CNS or contamination from a breach to the blood brain barrier. The calculation includes the CSF IgG/serum IgG ratio, and is normalized by dic=viding that by the CSF albumin/serum albumin |
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Term
The appearance of normal CSF is: |
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Definition
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Term
A CSF was hazy and the WBC was too high to preform undiluted. The technologist took 50 mLs of sample and added 500 Ml of saline. The cell count on the diluted sample was 200 WBC per mL. This should be multiplied by: |
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Definition
11
To calculate the dilution, take the amount of sample and divide it by the total of the new solution. So the dilution is 50uL divided by 500+50 uL. This is a 1:11 dilution. To correct the final answer, multiply by the inverse of the dilution or 11. |
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Term
The finding of hemosiderin laden macrophage in a CSF sample indicates: |
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Definition
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Term
Which CSF results are most consistant with bacterial meningitis? |
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Definition
Glucose 20 mg/dL(decreased), Protein 50 mg/dL (increased), Lactate increased.
Normal CSF glucose is approximately 60% of plasma glucose. Glucose is decreased in bacterial meningitis, and lactate is produced. Normal protein in CSF is 15-45 mg/dL. Protein is slightly elevated in bacterial meningitis. |
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Term
Which of the folllowing is the best indicator of Reye syndrome for CSF (hepatic encephalopathy)? |
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Definition
glutamine
In hepatic encephalopathy, ammonia levels in the plasma building up, and ammonia can be found in the spinal fluid. Ammonia is volitile, and not eaisly measured. Glutamine is a by product of ammonia , and is stable , making it a better choice. |
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Term
The tau isoform of transferrin is a charbohydrate deficient protein found only in: |
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Definition
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Term
Which marker can be used to identify a body fluid as semen. |
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Definition
PSA
Consider each answer and consider if it is unique to a particular site |
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Term
Which stain is used to measure sperm viability? |
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Definition
eosin nigrosin
can differentiate between live and dead sperm
Living cells will stain bluish white and dead cells stain RED |
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Term
The dimensions of a hemocytometer are |
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Definition
3x3x0.1
The total volume of the 9 large cells is the equivalent of 1uL.Counting 10 of the large cells is the equivalent of 1 mL |
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Term
Rapid forward progression of sperm is rated as: |
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Definition
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Term
Laboratory characteristics of malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency include: |
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Definition
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Term
Pilocarpine iotrophoresis refers to the specific process of: |
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Definition
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Term
During sweat collecton, a consideration that can result in a falsley high result is:
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Definition
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Term
Methods used as screening test fro cystic fibrosis include: |
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Definition
sweat conductivity`
sweat conductivity testing is relatively easy to peform, and is used as a screening method. A positive should be confirmed with a chloride measurement by coluometry, or by ion selective electrod. Pilocarpine iontrophoresis is used to stimulate sweat production, not to measure it. |
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Term
Which pair does not match with respect to amniotic fluid? |
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Definition
Dark green - hemolytic disease of the newborn
Dark green amniotic fluid indicates THE PRESENCE OF MECONIUM. tHIS IS THE INFANTS FIRST BOWEL MOVEMENT, AND INDICATES FETAL DISTRESS |
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Term
mniotic fluid is evaluated using a Liley graph and change in absorbance at 450 nm. What is being evaluated and why? |
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Definition
Bilirubin which incvreases in HDN |
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Term
Which assay for fetal lung maturity using amniotic fluid gives a ratio of surfactant to albumin? |
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Definition
Flouresence polorizaton assay
The amount of surfactant (phospholipids) in amniotic fluid increases during gestaton, and is an indicator of fetal lung maturity. The value is compaired to albumin as albumin concentration remains constant during gestation. Fluoescent dye binds to surfactants and to albumin in this assay; when it is bound to the surfactant, it has a low polorization, As surfactant increases during lung maturaton, the flourescent polorization of the sample decreases. |
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Term
`Triglycerides (chyle) can be identified in body fluids by their ability to : |
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Definition
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Term
Peritoneal Lavage is used to: |
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Definition
detect i tra-abdominal bleeding in blundt injury |
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Term
Turmor markers that can be measured on body fluids include all except: |
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Definition
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Term
Whoch semen result is abnormal |
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Definition
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Term
Increased CSF lactate is found in: |
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Definition
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Term
Decreased CSF protein can be found in |
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Definition
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Term
What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood brain barrier? |
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Definition
CSF/albumin index
The CSF albumin ratio with a value of <9 indicates an intact blood brain barrier. The IgG index compares IgG in CSF and serum to determine if IgG is being synthesized in the CNS. The fluid serum LD ratio is used to determine if the body fluid is a transudate or an exudate. The albumin gradieent is used to determine if an effusion is of hepatic origin. |
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