Shared Flashcard Set

Details

USMLE Step 2 - A
Step 2
140
Medical
Graduate
09/16/2013

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
How is hyperthryoidism-related tachysystolic atrial fibrillation best managed?
Definition
  • β-blocker

UWorld 4126

Term
Which lab abnormalities should prompt a thyroid function test?
Definition
  • hyperlipidemia (↓ LDL receptors, hypercholesterolemia is seen most frequently).
  • hyponatremia (inappropriate ADH secretion).
  • ↑ serum muscle enzymes

UW 3483

Term
Charcot's triad and Reynold's pentad
Definition
  • acute ascending cholangitis is characterized by Charcot's triad of fever, severe jaundice, and RUQ abdominal pain.
  • Reynold's pentad - addition of confusion and hypotension (commonly seen with suppurative cholangitis).
  • Initial tx of cholangitis: supportive and broad-spectrum abx. If pt is still unresponsive → ERCP (urgent biliary decompression).

UW 2978

Term
Light's criteria
Definition
  • to determine if the pleural effusion is transudative or exudative.
  • one of the following = exudate: 1) pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio > 0.5, 2) pleural fluid lacate dehydrogendase/serum LDH ratio > 0.6, or 3) pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH.
  • LDH ↑ 2° lysis of neutrophils
  • ↓ glucose in exudative pleural effusion is due to high metabolic activity of leukocytes and/or bacteria (< 30 mg/dl).

UW 4631, 4753

Term
What are some complications of diverticulitis?
Definition
  • abscess formation
  • fistula
  • perforation
  • assess with CT; do not attempt colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy, or barium enema in the presence of an acutely inflamed bowel.

UW 3467

Term
Which medications can cause interstitial nephritis?
Definition
  • cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, sulfonamide containing diuretics, NSAIDs, rifampin, phenytoin, and allopurinol.
  • SSx: fever, rash, arthralgias, peripheral eosinophilia, hematuria, sterile pyuria, and eosinophiluria.

UW 2242

Term
What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer?
Definition
  • smoking
  • chronic pancreatitis, long-standing DM, obesity
  • not risk factors: coffee, gall stones, etOH

UW 2966

Term
What is Trousseau's sign?
Definition
  • migratory thrombophlebitis (tender, erythematous, cord-like veins that migrate).
  • highly suspicious for an occult tumor
  • the most common tumor is an adenocarcinoma
  • 24% have pancreatic carcinoma, 20% lung, 13% prostate, 12% stomach.

UW 2624

Term
How is hyperkalemia treated?
Definition
  • SSx: QRS prolongation with peaked T waves, muscle weakness → flaccid paralysis.
  • Tx: IV calcium gluconate to stabilize cardiac membrane, insulin & glucose/NaHCO32 agonists (drive K+ into cells), Kayexalate.

UW 4760

Term
Proteinuria in an otherwise normal adolescent
Definition
  • orthostatic proteinuria
  • must obtain separate upright and supine urine collections; NOT 24 hour urine collection.
  • common in children and young adults.

MKSAP p. 201

Term
What findings are associated with interstitial nephritis? acute tubular necrosis?
Definition
  • urine + for leukocytes and leukocyte casts, negative culture (sterile pyuria); also fever, rash, and eosinophilia.
  • Drugs, particularly β-lactam abx, are the most common etiology of acute interstitial nephritis. Also, NSAIDs
  • ATN: usually occurs after a sustained period of ischemia or nephrotoxic agents; muddy brown casts; NO leukocytes or leukocyte casts.

MKSAP p. 201

Term
Hepatorenal syndrome
Definition
Term
What is the BP target in hypertensive patients with chronic kidney disease?
Definition
  • < 130/80 or < 125/75 if significant proteinuria is present.
  • ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the preferred agents in chronic kidney disease; do not use together (no studies to support benefit).
  • ↑ in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable.

MKSAP p. 205 

Term
How do you differentiate between renal and extrarenal potassium loss?
Definition
  • urine K+ loss of < 20 meq is suggestive of extrarenal loss.
  • gastrointestinal loss is the most common cause of extrarenal K+ loss (e.g. laxative abuse).
  • diarrhea → non-anion gap acidosis (loss of HCO3-)
Term
What is parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)?
Definition
  • a circulating factor produced by neoplastic cells
  • commonly associated with SCCa of the lung, esophagus, and head & neck.

MKSAP p. 212

Term
How is protein to creatinine ratio useful?
Definition
  • ratio of 1 is equivalent to 1 gram of protein/24 hrs
  • ratio of 2.5 is equivalent to 2.5 g/24 hrs
  • technically easier than a 24 hr urine collection
  • urine dipstick 1+ (about 1 g/24 hrs assuming constant protein excretion throughout the day), 2+ = 2 g/24 hrs...

MTB p. 300

Term
What conditions precede post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Definition
  • throat or skin infection (impetigo)
  • look for antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers and anti-DNAse Ab titers
  • complement levels are ↓

MTB p. 320

Term
What is the definition of uremia?
Definition

Uremia is defined as the presence of:

  1. metabolic acidosis
  2. fluid overload
  3. encephalopathy
  4. hyperkalemia
  5. percarditis
Each is an indication for dialysis.

MTB p. 324

Term
What can cause erythema nodosum?
Definition
  • recent streptococcal infection
  • sarcoidosis (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy or interstitial lung disease)
  • TB
  • histoplasmosis
  • inflammatory bowel disease

UW 2317

Term
How does pulmonary edema occur?
Definition
  • cardiogenic
  • non-cardiogenic, e.g. ARDS
  • differentiated by pulmonary capillary wedge pressure; PCWP > 18 2° to impaired left ventricular fxn, PCWP < 18 suggests a non-cardiac cause.
  • ARDS: sepsis, severe bleeding, pneumonia, toxic ingestion, or burns → release of inflammatory mediators → ↑ alveolar capillary permeability.
  • criteria for dx ARDS: acute dyspnea, an inciting condition, b/l infiltrates on CXR, PCWP < 18, PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 200.

UW 3432

Term
Heterophile (+) vs. (-)
Definition
  • monospot test
  • (+): EBV-associated infection, pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy.
  • (-): CMV, no pharyngitis, and cervical lymphadenopathy

UW 2270

Term
What conditions are associated with polycystic kidney disease?
Definition
  • liver cysts
  • ovarian cysts
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • diverticulosis
  • cerebral aneurysm (most do not rupture)
  • Renal failure is the most common cause of death (from recurrent pyelonephritis and nephrolithiasis → progressive scarring & loss of renal fxn).

MTB p. 328

Term
Which medications can cause diabetes insipidus?
Definition
  • nephrogenic DI: lithium and demeclocycline

MTB p. 330

Term
Hypotnatremia
Definition
  • characterized according to overall volume status of body.
  • hypervolemia: CHF, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis; these pts are edematous w/ ↓ intravascular volume → ↑ ADH to maintain volume/perfusion → hyponatremia.
  • hypovolemia: sweating, burns, fever, pneumonia → hypervenitilation, diarrhea, diuretics; these can all cause hypernatremia as well, but hyponatremia results with chronic replacement with free H2O.
  • euvolemia: pseudohyponatremia (hyperglycemia), psychogenic polydypsia, hypothyroidism, SIADH (small cell lung cancer produces ADH).

MTB p. 330

Term
Symptoms of Hyper/hypokalemia
Definition
  • K+ disorders interfere with muscle contraction and cardiac conduction.
  • hyperkalemia: weakness, paralysis, ileus (paralyzed gut muscle), cardiac arrhythmias, NO seizures.
  • Order an EKG immediately: peaked T waves, shortened QT interval, then as hyperkalemia worsens → wide QRS, PR interval prolongation.
  • tx: calcium gluconate/chloride, insulin & glucose, NaHCO3, Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
  • β-blockers ↑ K+ via inhibting Na/K ATPase; albuterol can be used to ↓ K+.
  • Hypokalemia: weakness, paralysis, loss of reflexes.
  • EKG: U waves (a small wave that follows a T wave), also PVCs, flattened T waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval.
  • hypomagnesemia → urinary K+ loss. Mg closes up Mg-dependent K channels.
  • both hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia → ventricular tachycardia.

MTB p. 333, UW2164

Term
What are the 2 most common causes of normal anion gap acidosis?
Definition
  • diarrhea
  • RTA
  • the anion gap is normal b/c the Cl- ion rises; therefore, aka hyperchloremic acidosis.
  • RTA type I (distal RTA)- distal tubule unable to generate HCO3 in response to aldosterone, thus acid cannot be secreted → pH > 5.5; dx: adminster acid to see if pH ↓, hypokalemia.
  • RTA type II (proximal RTA) - damage to proximal tubule → inability to absorb HCO3 → eventually, HCO3 becomes depleted → ↓ urine pH ≤ 5.5. Damage occurs from amyloidosis, myeloma, Fanconi syndrome, acetazolamide, and heavy metals, test by giving HCO3hypokalemia.
  • RTA type IV (hyporeninemia, hypoaldosteronism) - ↓ amount or effect of aldosterone; hyperkalemia.

MTB p. 336

Term
What are the most common causes of microcytic anemia?
Definition
  • iron deficiency
  • thalassemia (target cells are most common, but can occur w/ any of the microcytic anemias).
  • sideroblastic anemia (alcohol's suppressive effect on bone marrow, lead poisoning, isoniazid, vitamin B6 deficiency). sideroblasts are nucleated RBCs with granules of Fe accumulated in pernuclear mitochondria.
  • anemia of chronic disease

MTB p. 206

Term
What is urine anion gap used for?
Definition
  • differentiate btw diarrhea and RTA in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
  • UAG = Na+ - Cl-
  • acid is secreted by kidney as NH4Cl; the more acid that is eliminated →↑ Cl.
  • diarrhea → metabolic acidosis → ↑ Cl → (-) UAG value.
  • RTA → kidney cannot excrete acid → (+) UAG value.

MTB p. 338

Term
Nephrolithiasis management
Definition
  • when pt presents with clear nephrolithiasis → immediate analgesia (ketorolac) and hydration.
  • CT scan is most accurate
  • stone < 5mm: supportive, will pass on its own.
  • stones 5-7 mm: nifedipine and tamsulosin to help pass.
  • stones 0.5-2 cm: lithotripsy, any larger and the fragments will get caught in ureters; must manage surgically.

MTB p. 341

Term
What is symptomatic anemia?
Definition
  • dyspnea
  • lightheaded
  • confusion
  • syncope
  • hypotension/tachycardia
  • angina

MTB p. 205

Term
Where is vit B12 absorbed? What is elevated in B12 deficiency? Folate?
Definition
  • terminal ileum
  • ↑ homocysteine in both
  • methyl malonic acid is ↑ in only B12 deficiency
  • hypokalemia is a risk when replacing folate or B12
Term
What is the only manifestation of sickle cell trait?
Definition
  • inability to concentrate urine
  • isosthenuria
  • urine isoosmolar to blood

MTB p. 214

Term
What is cold agglutinin disease and how do they develop?
Definition
  • IgM Abs against RBCs
  • associated with EBV, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (indolent lymphoma, IgM type), and Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
  • Coombs test is positive only for complement; Coomb's test detects IgG (warm agglutinin)
  • steroids and splenectomy do not work in cold agglutinin disease.

MTB p. 216

Term
When is odds ration used? relative risk?
Definition
  • case-control studies. the patients have already developed the disease; exposure odds ratio.
  • prevalence odds ratio is calculated in cross-sectional studies.
  • relative risk/rate (incidence measure) are calculated in cohort studies, where people are followed over time for the occurrence of the disease.

UW 3931

Term
How does cyclosporine work?
Definition
  • immunosuppressant that inhibits transcription of IL-2 (mainly TH lymphocytes); calcineurin inhibitor.
  • Side effects: gingival hypertrophy, hirsutism, nephrotoxicity, HTN, tremors, glucose intolerance, SCCa, N&V, diarrhea.
  • tacrolimus has the same mechanism of action - calcineurin inhibitor. Similar side effects, but no gingival hyperplasia or hirsutism.
Term
Azathioprine
Definition
  • immunosuppressant
  • purine analog that is enzymatically converted to 6-mercaptopurine; inhibits purine synthesis
  • dose-related diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotoxicity.

UW 3980

Term
Mycophenolate mofetil
Definition
  • immunosuppressant
  • inhibits de novo purine synthesis
  • reversible ihibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, the rate-limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
  • Side effect: bone marro suppression

UW 3980

Term
What is paraproteinemia?
Definition
  • paraprotein is an Ig or Ig light-chain produced in excess by the clonal proliferation of plasma cells.
  • paraproteinemia (mainly Bence Jones proteins) → renal failure
  • Bone pain, renal failure, hypercalcemia → multiple myeloma until proven otherwise (in an elderly pt).

UW 3943

Term
What can cause thyrotoxicosis w/ ↓ radioactive iodine uptake?
Definition
  1. levothyroxine overdose
  2. subacute lymphocytic (painless) thyroiditis
  3. subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
  4. iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis
  5. Note: most cases of thyroiditis occur during the postpartum period.

UW 2191

Term
What findings are associate with disseminated gonococcemia?
Definition
  • tenosynovitis
  • migratory polyarthralgias early in disease (No joint erythema or swelling), BUT
  • can progress to suppurative infectious arthritis
  • skin lesions - pustules (5-40) on extremities; purpuric or pustular lesions with a hemorrhagic component and occasionally central necrosis. 
  • most likely to occur during menstrual period

UW 3320

Term
What are the SSx of erlichiosis?
Definition
  • hx of tick bite
  • systemic symptoms (fever, HA, malaise, and myalgias).
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • elelvated ALT/AST
  • tx w/ doxycycline

UW 3247

Term
Which live vaccines can be administered to a patient with HIV?
Definition
  • if CD4 > 200/mm3:
  • MMR
  • Varicella
  • Zoster (age > 60 years)
  • Yellow fever

UW 4478

Term
What are the classic constellation of findings in multiple myeloma?
Definition
  • back pain, anemia, renal dyfxn, and ↑ ESR
  • bone lysis caused by plasmocyte-released humoral factors and expanding plasma cell mass → hypercalcemia

UW 4013

Term
Screening/Preventative Recommendations
Definition
  • ASA: prevent MI: men (45-79), prevent stroke: women (55-79); both grade A.
  • Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: men 65-75, smoke hx, repair > 5 cm. 
  • Blood Pressure: Screen all adults > 18; normotensive screen every 2 years, pre-hypertensive screen annually; grade A.
  • Breast Cancer: women (50-74), every 2 years, grade B. Women > 75, no mammography.
  • Cholesterol: men > 35, women >45, grade A; men 20-35, women 20-45 if at ↑ risk for CAD, grade B.
  • Colorectal: screen all adults age 50-75; grade A.
  • Coronary Heart Disease with EKG: grade D.
  • HIV: screen age 15-65, grade A, interval unknown.
  • Obesity: all adults; grade B.
  • Osteoporosis: women ≥ 65, ≥ every 2 yrs, grade B.
  • Prostate Cancer: grade D.
  • Type 2 diabetes: sustained BP > 135/80; grade B.
Term
Pap Smear recommendation
Definition
  • age 21 to 65, Pap with cytology every 3 years; grade A.
  • or age 30-65, Pap w/ cytology & HPV testing every 5 years; grade A.
  • Pap on women older than age 65 with adequate screening; grade D (against). 
  • HPV testing in women < 30; grade D.
  • Pap under age 21 is grade D; recommends against.
Term
What is the best way to dx and tx carcinoid syndrome?
Definition
  • flushing, wheezing, right sided cardiac abnormalities
  • dx: urinary 5-hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA)
  • tx: octreotide

MTB p. 259

Term
Name a couple of promotility drugs?
Definition
  • metoclopromide
  • erythromycin
  • tx gastroparesis

MTB p. 252

Term
Name the different erythemas.
Definition
  1. Erythema nodosum
  2. Erythema migrans - lyme disease (round red lesion with pale center).
  3. Erythema marginatum - serpiginous skin rash (rheumatic fever).
  4. Erythema toxicum - neonate with splotchy areas of erythema w/ central clear pustule; pustules have eosinophils.
  5. Erythema Multiforme - drug rxn, small "target" lesions, no mucous membrane involvement. may also be from herpes or mycoplasma. EM major = Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (immune complex mediated hypersensitivity). Most commonly caused by sulfonamides, NSAIDs, and phenytoin. EM minor usually occurs after a herpes simplex infxn/mycoplasma and mucosal involvement is rare and systemic symptoms are not as severe as SJ.
Term
How is Crohn's differentiated from ulcerative colitis?
Definition
  • Crohn's disease: transmural granulomas, masses and obstruction, antisacchoromyces cerevesiae Ab (ASCA).
  • UC: entirely mucosal, ANCA.
  • tx: acute exacerbation tx w/ steroids (prednisone or budesonide, which is specific for IBD), maintenance of remission - mesalamine (5-ASA derivative), azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine to wean pt off steroids, fistulae and severe disease unresponsive → infliximab.

MTB p. 260

Term
H. pylori tx
Definition
  • PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin
  • unresponsive to above: metronidazole and tetracycline.
  • retest with stool antigen or breath urea.

MTP p. 249

Term
C. difficile tx
Definition
  • metronidazole
  • if patient gets better, but then relapses → metro again.
  • unresponsive to metro → oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin.

MTB p. 255

Term
SAAG
Definition
  • Serum Ascites Albumin Gradient
  • > 1.1: portal HTN, CHF, hepatic vein thrombosis, constrictive pericarditis.
  • < 1.1: infection (not SBP), cancer, nephrotic syndrome.
  • with ascites spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is a concern; > 250 nØ is when thx is started; gram stain almost always (-); tx - cefotaxime or ceftriaxone.
MTB p. 266

MTP p. 266

Term
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
Definition
  • woman in 40s/50s, fatigue and pruritis, normal bilirubin, ↑ alk phos.
  • antimitochondrial Ab
  • tx: ursodeoxycholic acid

MTB p. 268

Term
What are the findings associated with hemochromatosis?
Definition
  • genetic disorder → overabsorption of iron in duodenum.
  • fatigue and joint pain (pseudogout)
  • erectile dysfxn in men, amenorrhea in women (pituitary involvement)
  • skin darkening
  • DM
  • cardiomyopathy
  • best dx: abdominal MRI and HFE (C282y) gene testing; NOT liver bx (MRI spares pt from need fo bx).
  • note: deferoximine is injeciton only; deferasirox and deferiprone are oral meds.

MTB p. 268

Term
How are Hep B and C treated?
Definition
  • Hep B: just one of the following - adefovir, lamivudine, telbivudine, entecavir, tenofovir, interferon.
  • chronic Hep C: combination of interferon, ribavirin, and either telaprevir or boceprevir.
  • AE: Interferon (arthralgias, thrombocytopenia, depression, leukopenia), ribavarin (anemia), adefovir (renal dysfxn).

MTB p. 270

Term
What is the most accurate test for Wilson disease?
Definition
  • abnormally ↑ copper excretion into urine after penicillamine administration.
  • ↓ ceruloplasmin is not the most accurate dx test.
  • Wilson disease gives psychosis and delusions, not the encephalopathic features or delerium seen with any form of liver failure.

MTB p. 271

Term
When a pt on ASA has a non hemorrhagic stroke, how should it be managed?
Definition
  • add dipyridamole
  • or switch to clopidogrel

MTB p. 275

Term
When should an endarterectomy be performed in a pt with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease?
Definition
  • > 70% → operate
  • < 50% → do not operate
  • carotid angioplasty and stenting is of no proven value for stroke pts.

MTB p. 276

Term
If pt with trigeminal neuralgia is unresponsive to medical thx, what is the next best option?
Definition
  • gamma knife surgery/surgical decompression
  • medical thx: oxcarbazepine or carbamazepine; also baclofen and lamotrigine have been effective.

MTB p. 278

Term
What are the adverse effects of phenytoin when given IV?
Definition
  • like lidocaine, it is a class 1b antiarrhythimc
  • IV → hypotension and AV block
  • fosphenytoin does not have these effects and can be given more rapidly.
  • tx of status epilepticus: benzodiazepine first, if persists → phenytoin/fosphenytoin, still no resolution → phenobarbitol, seizure continues → sux/rocuronium → intubate → propofol

MTB p. 279

Term
How can you tell subarachnoid hemorrhage from meningitis when analyzing CSF ?
Definition
  • RBC to WBC ratio is normal (1 WBC/500-1000 RBCs)
  • ↑ ratio of WBC → meningitis
  • SAH causes fever via meningeal irritation

MTB p. 281

Term
What are some of the findings in Bell Palsy?
Definition
  • paralysis of entire face
  • stroke will paralyze only the lower 2/3 of the face b/c of b/l UMN innervation.
  • hyperacusis - CN VII controls stapedius muscle.
  • taste disturbance - chorda tympani is a branch of the facial nerve.

MTB p. 295

Term
What is the most dangerous complication in Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Definition
  • involvement of respiratory failure
  • inspiration is the active part of breathing and the pt loses the strength to inhale.
  • PFTs tell who might die from GBS.
  • there is a ↓ in forced vital capacity and peak inspiratory pressure.

MTB p. 296

Term
What is the best initial test in dx myasthenia gravis?
Definition
  • even before edrophonium testing → Ach receptor Abs
  • if (-) get anti-MUSK Abs (muscle-specific kinase)
  • most accurate test: electromyography
  • ALWAYS conduct CXR, CT, or MRI to look for thymoma or thymic hyperplasia.

MTB p. 297

Term
What is the best dx test for acromegaly?
Definition
  • IGF-1; consistently ↑ throughout the course of the day, whereas GH levels can fluctuate.
  • screen w/ IGF-1 → oral glucose suppression test → no suppression of GH → acromegaly.
  • SSx: skin tags/colonic polyps, carpal tunnel syndrome, coarse facial features, arthralgias from joints growing out of alignment, body odor from sweat gland hypertrophy, HTN.

UW 4323, MTB p. 110

Term
What should you think about when you see constipation?
Definition
  • hypercalcemia
  • 2° to myeloma or metastatic bone cancers

UW 4013

Term
What causes senile purpura?
Definition
  • senile purpura is an ecchymotic lesion that occurs in areas susceptible to trauma in the elderly (e.g. dorsum of hands and forearms).
  • atrophy of perivascular connective tissue
  • not dangergous, requires no additional investigation.

UW 4355

Term
When should tx for hepatitis B be initiated?
Definition
  • ALT > 2x the upper limit of normal w/ detectable HBsAg, HBeAg, and HBV DNA
  • predicts a favorable response
  • normal ALT → uneffective
  • tx: interferon or lamivudine

UW 2961

Term
How are premature atrial beats managed?
Definition
  • they are benign and never require any tx or follow-up.
  • also PVCs, even when associated with an acute 

UW 3700

Term
List the specific leads that are affected according to the anatomical location of ischemia or infarction.
Definition
  • II, III, aVF: inferior wall (5% mortality at 1 year)
  • V2-V4: anterior wall (30-40% mortality at 1 year)
  • V1, V2: posterior wall (the leads are read in the opposite direction of the rest of the leads → ST depression = MI)

MTB p. 64

Term
What are the risk factors for developing CAD?
Definition
  • men age > 45, women age > 55; overall, more women will eventually die of heart disease than men.
  • DM
  • smoking
  • HTN
  • hyperlipidemia
  • Fhx of premature CAD, 1st degree relatives only (men < 55, women < 65).
  • smoking cessation, and not HTN control, results in the greatest immediate benefit for the pt.

MTB p. 50

Term
What are the common descriptions/characteristics that exclude ischemia as the cause of chest pain?
Definition
  • change with respiration (pleuritic)
  • changes with position of the body
  • changes with touch of the chest wall (tenderness)

MTB p. 53

 

Term
What are the best methods for detecting ischemia without using an EKG?
Definition
  • nuclear isotope uptake: thallium or sestamibi; normal myocardium picks up thallium (in the same way that K+ is picked up by Na/K ATPase).
  • echocardiographic detection of wall motion abnormalities
  • reasons for baseline EKG abnormalities: LBBB, L vent hypertrophy, pacemaker, digoxin use.

MTB p. 55

Term
Which medications are used to manage chronic angina?
Definition
  • ASA
  • β blockers
  • nitroglycerin (oral or patch)

MTB p. 57

Term
If the patient is unable to tolerate an ACE inhibitor due to angioedema what is a good alternative?
Definition

A combination of Hydralazine & Nitroglycerin.

This is in the setting of congestive heart failure.

Also, if the patient develops hyperkalemia.

Term
What is the LDL goal if a pt has CAD?
Definition
  • < 100 mg/dl
  • CAD equivalents: peripheral artery disease, carotid disease, aortic disease, DM.

MTB p. 59

Term
Which medication should not be combined with statins?
Definition
  • fibrates (gemfibrozil) → ↑ risk of myositis
  • fibrates lower TG

MTB p. 60

Term
What are the indications for CCBs if a pt has CAD?
Definition
  • Use verapamil/diltiazem in CAD only: severe asthma (cannot use β blocker), prinzmetal angina, cocaine-induced chest pain, inability to control w/ maximum medical thx.
  • AE: edema, constipation (verapamil most often), heart block.
  • dihydropyridine CCBs (nifedipine, nitrendipine, nicardipine, nimodipine) may actually ↑ mortality in pts w/ CAD b/c → ↑ HR.

MTB p. 61

Term
Which medications should be administered for acute coronary syndrome?
Definition
  • ASA is most important (lowers mortality!!!)
  • morphine
  • O2
  • nitroglcerin
  • ASA alternative if allx: clopidogrel

MTB p. 64

Term

For how many days post-MI does troponin T stay ↑?

CK-MB?

Definition
  • Troponin T, a more sensitive marker for cardiac injury, takes up to 10 days to return to normal.
  • CK-MB returns to normal within 1-2 days.
  • takes 4-6 hours for both markers to rise after an MI.

UW2737

Term
What is Kussmaul sign?
Definition
  • ↑ jugulovenous pressure on inhalation
  • associated with constrictive pericarditis or restrictive cardiomyopathy.
  • also found in constrictive percarditis is a "knock," which is an extra heart sound in diastole from ventricular filling; as heart fills to maximum, it hits the stiff, rigid pericardium with a "knock."
  • best initial test is CXR that shows calcification and fibrosis.

MTB p. 63

Term
Which medications must be administered in the event of an aortic dissection?
Definition
  • β-blocker
  • nitroprusside
  • β-blocker must be given before nitroprusside to prevent reflex tachycardia.

MTB p. 104

Term
ST segment depression ACS
Definition
  • #1 ASA
  • #2 heparin
Term
What role do ACEi/ARBs play in ACS?
Definition
  • based on ejection fraction < 40%

MTB p. 68

Term
What role do GP IIB/IIIa inhibitors play in STEMI or unstable angina/non-STEMI?
Definition
  • STEMI: only in those undergoing angioplasty and stenting.
  • unstable angina/non-STEMI:  use!!!; if all medications have been administered and pt is still not responding → angiography and possible angioplasty.

MTB p. 70

Term
What are the complications of acute MI?
Definition
  • sinus bradycardia (vascular insufficiency of SA node)
  • thrid-degree AV block (will have cannon A waves, produced by atrial contraction against closed tricuspid valve)
  • cannon A waves are the best way to distinguish sinus bradycardia from 3rd degree AV block.
  • R ventricular infarct
  • tamponade/free wall rupture: sudden loss of pulse
  • valve or septal rupture: new onset murmur and pulmonary congestion; O2 sat ↑ in R ventricle compared to R atrium (42% → 85%).

MTB p. 71

Term
[image]
Definition
  • a: atrial contraction
  • c: ventricular contraction (tricuspid valve bowing in)
  • x: atrial relaxation
  • v: atrial filling
  • y: opening of tricuspid valve
Term
How is right ventricular MI best managed?
Definition
  • high-fluid replacement
  • avoid nitroglycerin (they worsen cardiac filling)

MTB p. 71

Term
Post MI thx
Definition
  • prior to d/c: everyone gets a stress test
  • ASA/clopidogrel/ticlodipine (if allx to both)
  • β blocker (metoprolol)
  • statins
  • ACEi
  • Do Not use prophylactic antiarrhythmics in pts post-MI, ↑ mortality; don't be tricked by "frequent PVCs and ectopy."
Term
When is an implantable defibrillator and biventricular pacemaker warranted?
Definition
  • implantable defibrillator: ischemic cardiomyopathy and EF < 35%.
  • biventricular pacemaker: dilated cardiomyopathy, EF < 35% and QRS above .12 who have persistent symptoms.
  • arrhythmia/sudden death is the most common cause of death in CHF.

MTB p. 80

Term
How else can a pt be managed if patient with cholelithiasis refuses a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
Definition
  • ursodeoxycholic acid; dissolves small radiolucent stones.
  • avoid fatty foods
  • pt should have normal, fxnl gall bladders.
  • ursodeoxycholic acid ↓ cholesterol content of bile by ↓ hepatic secretion and intestinal reabsorption of cholesterol; may take several months of thx for stones to dissolve.

UW2939

Term
Describe the ssx of systemic blastomycosis.
Definition
  • skin lesions (verrucous and crusted)
  • lytic bone lesions
  • fever
  • night sweats
  • productive cough
  • weight loss
  • broad based budding yeast
  • tx: itraconazole or amphotericin B
  • Great Lakes, Mississippi/Ohio River basins
  • Coccidiomycosis can present similarly, but is found in the southwest.

UW3037

Term
  • Phenytoin toxicity
  • Benzodiazepine toxicity
  • Opioid toxicity
  • Lithium toxicity
Definition
  • phenytoin: horizontal nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, confusion.
  • benzodiazepine: slurred speech, unsteady gait, drowsiness (unlike opioid, no respiratory depression or miosis)
  • opioid: sedation, respiratory depression, pupillary constriction.
  • lithium: tremor, hyperreflexia, ataxia, seizures.

UW2664

Term
SSx of hypocortisolism
Definition
  • weakness/fatigue
  • altered mental status
  • N/V
  • anorexia
  • hypotension
  • hyponatremia
  • hyperkalemia
  • eosinophilia is common in hypoadrenalism
  • Note: test with cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH)
Term
What is the best initial thx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
Definition
  • β-blockers for both
  • diuretics can be used for HCM (symptom management), but contraindicated in HOCM.
  • HOCM specific thx: implantable defibrillators for pts experiencing syncope, ablation of septum (etOH injection into muscle via catheter, if fails → surgical myectomy.

MTB p. 95

Term
What is pulsus tardus et parvus?
Definition
  • tardus - late
  • parvus - weak/small
  • seen in aortic valve stenosis
Term
What does electrical alternans signify?
Definition
  • pericardial tamponade
  • different heights of QRS complexes b/w beats

MTB p. 100

Term
What is peripartum cardiomyopathy?
Definition
  • develops after delivery
  • Ab against myocardium
  • LV dysfxn is often reversible and short term.
  • if no improvement → cardiac transplantation
  • repeat pregnancy in women w/ peripartum cardiomyopathy will provoke enormous Ab production against myocardium.

MTB p. 105

Term
What are the adverse effects of systemic corticosteroids?
Definition
  • osteoporosis
  • cataracts
  • adrenal suppression
  • fat redistribution
  • hyperlipidemia
  • hyperglycemia
  • acne
  • hirsutism
  • thinning of skin
  • striae
  • easy bruising

MTB p. 132

Term
What can cause ↑ levels of prolactin?
Definition
  • prolactin can be cosecreted with GH simply b/c of acromegaly.
  • hypothyroidism → ↑ prolactin b/c ↑ TRH → prolactin secretion.
  • intense exercise
  • renal insufficiency (look for BUN/Cr ratio)
  • ↑ chest wall stimulation
  • cirrhosis (look at LFTs)
  • pregnancy
  • dopamine inhibition (DA inhibits prolactin secretion)
  • SSx: W - galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility; M - ED, ↓ libido, gynecomastia (galactorrhea is rare).
  • Do not do an MRI first in any endocrine disorder.
  • tx: cabergoline (DA agonist), better tolerated than bromocriptine.

MTB p. 111

Term
What is the difference in management between asthmatics and COPDers?
Definition
  • asthma not controlled with albuterol → inhaled steroids.
  • COPD not controlled with albuterol → anticholinergic (ipratropium/tiotropium) → inhaled steroids.

MTB p. 135

Term
Elevated TSH w/ normal T4. Is hormone replacement necessary?
Definition
  • TSH > 2x upper limit of normal w/ normal T4 → replace hormone.
  • TSH < 2x upper limit of normal → test antithyroid peroxidase Ab/antithyroglobulin Ab → Ab (+) → replace hormone.

MTB p. 112

Term
Which conditions can cause ↑ vit D?
Definition
  • sarcoidosis
  • TB
  • berylliosis
  • coccidiomycosis
  • histoplasmosis
  • candidiasis
  • Crohn disease
  • langerhans-histiocytosis
  • cat-scratch disease
  • Wegener granulomatosis
  • PCP
  • macrophages/histiocytes convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D → 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

UpToDate (hypercalcemia in granulomatous diseases)

Term
Other than hyperparathyroidism what other condition is a major source of hypercalcemia?
Definition
  • malignancy
  • PTH-related peptide (PTHrP)
  • breast cancer, lung cancer (SCCa)
  • also: ADH (small cell carcinoma, ACTH (small cell lung Ca or carcinoid).
  • Lambert-Eaton (small cell lung cancer)

MTB p. 120

Term
SSx: hyper/hypocalcemia, hyper/hypokalemia,
Definition
  • Hypercalcemia: confusion, stupor, lethargy, constipation, short QT
  • tx: NS hydration & bisphosphonates → then calcitonin
  • Hypocalcemia: Chvostek sign (facal nerve hyperexcitability), Trousseau sign (tetany), carpopedal spasm, perioral numbness, mental irritability, seizures.
  • HyperCa: lethargic and slow, HypoCa: twitchy and hyperexcitable.

MTB p. 118

Term
What are the functions of Mg2+?
Definition
  • hypomagnesemia → urinary K+loss. Mg closes up Mg-dependent K channels.
  • Mg is necessary for PTH to be released from the gland.

MTB p. 118

Term
What is Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis?
Definition
  • ABPA occurs almost exclusively in pts with asthma and hx of atopic disorders.
  • look for asthmatic pt with recurrent episodes of brown-flecked sputum and transient infiltrates on CXR.
  • tx: oral steroids, itraconazole for recurrent episodes.

MTB p. 138

Term
When should a pt with pneumonia be hospitalized?
Definition
  • C: confusion
  • U: uremia (BUN > 30)
  • R: respiratory distress (RR > 30, pO2 < 60 mm Hg, pH < 7.35)
  • B: BP low (systolic < 90)
  • 65: age > 65
  • 0-1 points: home, ≥ 2 points: admission

MTB p. 145

Term
What is the definition of hospital acquired pneumonia?
Definition
  • pneumonia develops > 48 hrs after admission or after hospitalization in the last 90 days.
  • much higher incidence of gram (-) bacilli such as E. coli or Pseudomonas.
  • use: antipseudomonals - cephalosporins (cefepime or ceftazidime), antipseudomonal penicillin (piperacillin/tazobactam), or carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, or doripenem).

MTB p. 147

Term
How does a lung abscess develop?
Definition
  • only in pts with a large-volume aspiration of oral/pharyngeal contsnts, usually w/ poor dentition, who is not adequately treated.
  • lung abscesses are rare b/c of prompt tx of aspiration pneumonia.
  • large-volume aspiration occurs from: stroke w/ loss of gag reflex, seizures, intoxication, endotracheal intubation.

MTB p. 149 

Term
How is pneumocytis pneumonia dx?
Definition
  • CD4 < 200 and pt not on prophylaxis (TMP/SMX)
  • LDH is always elevated
  • if LDH is normal ≠ PCP
  • dx CXR with b/l interstitial infiltrates
  • sputum stain is specific if (+); no need for further testing.
  • (-) sputum stain → bronchoscopy
  • tx: TMP/SMX, add steroids to ↓ mortality if PCP is severe (pO2 < 70, A-a gradient > 35).
  • allx/toxicity to TMP/SMX → clindamycin & primaquine or pentamidine.

MTB p. 151

Term
What are some adverse effects from TMP/SMX?
Definition
  • rash
  • bone marrow suppression

MTB p. 151

Term
What is the standard care for symptomatic TB?
Definition
  • When smear is (+): Rifamin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (RIPE).
  • if TB is sensitive to all medications, there is no need for ethambutol.
  • RIPE for first 2 months, stop pyrazinamide and ethambutol, continue rifampin/isoniazid for another 4 months (6 mos total).
  • extend tx to 9 mos if: osteomyelitis, miliary TB, meningitis, pregnancy or any other time pyrazinamide is not used.
  • toxicity: all TB meds cause hepatotoxicity; only d/c if transaminases > 3-5x upper limit of normal.
  • pregnant pts should not receive pyrazinamide.
  • latent TB: isoniazid for 9 mos; even if pt had previous BCG and PPD (+) → 9 mos isoniazid.

MTB p. 154

Term
What are common diagnostic findings of PE?
Definition
  • CXR: atelectasis
  • EKG: sinus tachycardia, nonspecific ST-T wave Δs
  • ABG: hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis (↑ pH and ↓ pCO2).
  • CXR must be normal for V/Q scan to have any degree of accuracy; spiral CT if CXR is abnormal.
  • spiral CT (-) → V/Q or LE doppler → (-) → withhold thx w/ heparin.

MTB p. 162

Term
When is an IVC filter indicated?
Definition
  • contraindicaiton to use of anticoagulant (melena, CNS bleed)
  • recurrent emboli while on heparin or fully therapeutic warfarin (INR 2-3)
  • right ventricular dysfxn with an enlarged RV on echo. disease is so severe that even the smallest of emboli could be potentially fatal.

MTB p. 162

Term
Values for pulmonary HTN
Definition
  • systolic > 25, diastolic > 8

MTB p. 164

Term
How is ARDS defined?
Definition
  • pO2/FIO2 < 300
  • FIO2 is expressed in decimal format
  • < 200 = moderately severe
  • < 100 = severe
  • wedge pressure is normal

MTB p. 165

Term
Describe the crystals associated with gout.
Definition
  • needle-shaped crystals with negative birefringence on polarized light microscopy; ↑ WBCs (2-50k) on joint aspirate.
  • pseudogout: postively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals; ↑ WBCs (2-50k) on joint aspirate.
  • nephrolithiasis can → ileus via vagal rxn to ureteral colic.

UW 2324

Term
How is an acute attack of gout managed? Chronic gout?
Definition
  • NSAIDs, best initial thx
  • corticosteroids by injection in single joint or orally for multiple joints if no response to NSAIDs or contraindicaiton to NSAIDs (renal insufficiency).
  • colchicine (diarrhea/neutropenia) for those who cannot use NSAIDs or steroids.
  • Chronic: colchicine, allopurinol/probenecid, pegloticase (dissolves uric acid).

MTB p. 170

Term
Calcium Pyrophophate Deposition Disease
Definition
  • aka Pseudogout
  • Risk factors: hemochromatosis, hyperPTH, DM, hypothyroidism, Wilson disease.
Term
How is RA tx?
Definition
  • #1 - NSAIDs (does not prevent progression of disease)
  • #2 Steroids, when NSAIDs do not control symptoms immediately or as a bridge when waiting for DMARDs to take effect (does not prevent progression of disease).
  • Best initial DMARD is methotrexate (liver toxicity, bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity).
  • no response to MTX → TNF inhibitor (infliximab, adalimumab, etanercept).
  • for initial control MTX and TNFi are used together
  • rituximab
  • hydroxycholoroquine (can be used as monothx as a DMARD in cases of mild disease; retinal toxicity.

MTB p. 181

Term
What is the classic presentation of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
Definition
  • high, spiking fever (> 104) in a young person with no clearly identified etiology, but associated with a rash (salmon colored on chest and abdomen).

MTB p. 182

Term
What is a good marker for an acute lupus flare?
Definition
  • ↓ complement
  • ↑ anti-dsDNA

MTB p. 185

Term
What is the most specific test for lupus anticoagulant?
Definition
  • Russell viper venom test
  • RVVT is prolonged with antiphospholipid Ab (lupus anticoagulant & anticardiolipin Abs) and does not correct with normal plasma.
  • the best initial test is the mixing study; pts plasma mixed with equal amount of normal plasma → no correction of aPTT.
  • recurrent thrombotic episodes are treated lifelong with warfarin (INR 2-3).

MTB p. 186

Term
Reactive Arthritis
Definition
  • aka Reiter Sydrome
  • can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree
  • joint pain, uveitis/conjunctivitis, urethritis/balanitis
  • associated with: IBD, STD, GI infxn (Yersinia, SalmonellaCampylobacter).

MTB p. 197

Term
What are the findings associated with limited scleroderma?
Definition
  • C: calcinosis
  • R: Raynaud
  • E: esophageal dysmotility
  • S: sclerodactyly
  • T: telangiectasias
  • anticentromere Ab
  • antitopoisomerase Ab (SCL-70) is for scleroderma (systemic sclerosis).

MTB p. 186

Term
What are pts with dermatomyositis at increased risk for?
Definition
  • 25% of cases associated with cancer
  • ovary
  • lung
  • GI
  • lymphoma

MTB p. 188

Term
What is the Schermer test?
Definition
  • filter paper is placed against globe of eye and observed for amount of tears produced.
  • best initial test for Sjögren
  • worst complication of Sjögren is lymphoma

MTB p. 189

Term
What are some associations with PAN?
Definition
  • hepatitis B and C
  • lungs are inexplicably spared

MTB p. 190

Term
leukocytoclastic vasculitis on bx
Definition
  • Henoch-Schönlein purpura

MTB p. 193

Term
What is Churg-Strauss syndrome?
Definition
  • pulmonary-renal syndrome
  • also asthma and eosinophilia
  • p-ANCA

MTB p. 193

Term
An individual presents with recurrent episodes of gonorrhea. What should be tested?
Definition
  • terminal complement deficiency

MTB p. 201

Term
What is erysipelas?
Definition
  • a much more severe disease than impetigo; deeper layer of skin.
  • more commonly streptococcus than staph.
  • invades dermal lymphatics → bacteremia
Term
Who should receive prophylactic tamoxifen?
Definition
  • if multiple 1st degree relatives have breast cancer; ↓ risk of breast cancer.
  • adjuvant chemothx (pt already has disease, but no clearly identified mets; thx to clean up presumed microscopic cancer cells too small in amount to be detected).
  • use adjuvant chemothx when: lesions are > 1 cm or (+) axillary l.n. are found.

MTB p. 350

Term
What are the complications of prostate surgery?
Definition
  • erectile dysfxn
  • urinary incontinence

MTB p. 350

Term
What are transplant individuals at increased risk for?
Definition
  • SCCa
  • greatly increased by long-term use of immunosuppressants.

MTB p. 364

Term
Pemphigus Vulgaris
Definition
  • involvement of mouth
Term
What is commonly associated with porphyria cutanea tarda?
Definition
  • hepatitis C
  • it is a blistering skin disease of sun-exposed areas in those w/ a hx of: liver disease, estrogen use, iron oveload.

MTB p. 370

Term
What antifungal is antiandrogenic?
Definition
  • ketoconazole
  • causes gynecomastia

MTB p. 375

Term
Which drugs commonly cause hypersensitivity rxns?
Definition
  • penicillins
  • sulfa drugs (including thiazides, furosemide, and sulfonylureas)
  • allopurinol
  • phenytoin
  • lamotrigine
  • NSAIDs
  • the drugs that cause hypersensitivity rxns are the same that cause hemolysis, interstitial nephritis, and often drug-induced thrombocytopenia.

MTB p. 375

Supporting users have an ad free experience!