Term
How is hyperthryoidism-related tachysystolic atrial fibrillation best managed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which lab abnormalities should prompt a thyroid function test? |
|
Definition
- hyperlipidemia (↓ LDL receptors, hypercholesterolemia is seen most frequently).
- hyponatremia (inappropriate ADH secretion).
- ↑ serum muscle enzymes
UW 3483 |
|
|
Term
Charcot's triad and Reynold's pentad |
|
Definition
- acute ascending cholangitis is characterized by Charcot's triad of fever, severe jaundice, and RUQ abdominal pain.
- Reynold's pentad - addition of confusion and hypotension (commonly seen with suppurative cholangitis).
- Initial tx of cholangitis: supportive and broad-spectrum abx. If pt is still unresponsive → ERCP (urgent biliary decompression).
UW 2978 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- to determine if the pleural effusion is transudative or exudative.
- one of the following = exudate: 1) pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio > 0.5, 2) pleural fluid lacate dehydrogendase/serum LDH ratio > 0.6, or 3) pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH.
- LDH ↑ 2° lysis of neutrophils
- ↓ glucose in exudative pleural effusion is due to high metabolic activity of leukocytes and/or bacteria (< 30 mg/dl).
UW 4631, 4753 |
|
|
Term
What are some complications of diverticulitis? |
|
Definition
- abscess formation
- fistula
- perforation
- assess with CT; do not attempt colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy, or barium enema in the presence of an acutely inflamed bowel.
UW 3467 |
|
|
Term
Which medications can cause interstitial nephritis? |
|
Definition
- cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, sulfonamide containing diuretics, NSAIDs, rifampin, phenytoin, and allopurinol.
- SSx: fever, rash, arthralgias, peripheral eosinophilia, hematuria, sterile pyuria, and eosinophiluria.
UW 2242 |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer? |
|
Definition
- smoking
- chronic pancreatitis, long-standing DM, obesity
- not risk factors: coffee, gall stones, etOH
UW 2966 |
|
|
Term
What is Trousseau's sign? |
|
Definition
- migratory thrombophlebitis (tender, erythematous, cord-like veins that migrate).
- highly suspicious for an occult tumor
- the most common tumor is an adenocarcinoma
- 24% have pancreatic carcinoma, 20% lung, 13% prostate, 12% stomach.
UW 2624 |
|
|
Term
How is hyperkalemia treated? |
|
Definition
- SSx: QRS prolongation with peaked T waves, muscle weakness → flaccid paralysis.
- Tx: IV calcium gluconate to stabilize cardiac membrane, insulin & glucose/NaHCO3/β2 agonists (drive K+ into cells), Kayexalate.
UW 4760 |
|
|
Term
Proteinuria in an otherwise normal adolescent |
|
Definition
- orthostatic proteinuria
- must obtain separate upright and supine urine collections; NOT 24 hour urine collection.
- common in children and young adults.
MKSAP p. 201 |
|
|
Term
What findings are associated with interstitial nephritis? acute tubular necrosis? |
|
Definition
- urine + for leukocytes and leukocyte casts, negative culture (sterile pyuria); also fever, rash, and eosinophilia.
- Drugs, particularly β-lactam abx, are the most common etiology of acute interstitial nephritis. Also, NSAIDs
- ATN: usually occurs after a sustained period of ischemia or nephrotoxic agents; muddy brown casts; NO leukocytes or leukocyte casts.
MKSAP p. 201 |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the BP target in hypertensive patients with chronic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
- < 130/80 or < 125/75 if significant proteinuria is present.
- ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the preferred agents in chronic kidney disease; do not use together (no studies to support benefit).
- ↑ in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable.
MKSAP p. 205 |
|
|
Term
How do you differentiate between renal and extrarenal potassium loss? |
|
Definition
- urine K+ loss of < 20 meq is suggestive of extrarenal loss.
- gastrointestinal loss is the most common cause of extrarenal K+ loss (e.g. laxative abuse).
- diarrhea → non-anion gap acidosis (loss of HCO3-)
|
|
|
Term
What is parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)? |
|
Definition
- a circulating factor produced by neoplastic cells
- commonly associated with SCCa of the lung, esophagus, and head & neck.
MKSAP p. 212 |
|
|
Term
How is protein to creatinine ratio useful? |
|
Definition
- ratio of 1 is equivalent to 1 gram of protein/24 hrs
- ratio of 2.5 is equivalent to 2.5 g/24 hrs
- technically easier than a 24 hr urine collection
- urine dipstick 1+ (about 1 g/24 hrs assuming constant protein excretion throughout the day), 2+ = 2 g/24 hrs...
MTB p. 300 |
|
|
Term
What conditions precede post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
- throat or skin infection (impetigo)
- look for antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers and anti-DNAse Ab titers
- complement levels are ↓
MTB p. 320 |
|
|
Term
What is the definition of uremia? |
|
Definition
Uremia is defined as the presence of:
- metabolic acidosis
- fluid overload
- encephalopathy
- hyperkalemia
- percarditis
Each is an indication for dialysis.
MTB p. 324 |
|
|
Term
What can cause erythema nodosum? |
|
Definition
- recent streptococcal infection
- sarcoidosis (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy or interstitial lung disease)
- TB
- histoplasmosis
- inflammatory bowel disease
UW 2317 |
|
|
Term
How does pulmonary edema occur? |
|
Definition
- cardiogenic
- non-cardiogenic, e.g. ARDS
- differentiated by pulmonary capillary wedge pressure; PCWP > 18 2° to impaired left ventricular fxn, PCWP < 18 suggests a non-cardiac cause.
- ARDS: sepsis, severe bleeding, pneumonia, toxic ingestion, or burns → release of inflammatory mediators → ↑ alveolar capillary permeability.
- criteria for dx ARDS: acute dyspnea, an inciting condition, b/l infiltrates on CXR, PCWP < 18, PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 200.
UW 3432 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- monospot test
- (+): EBV-associated infection, pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy.
- (-): CMV, no pharyngitis, and cervical lymphadenopathy
UW 2270 |
|
|
Term
What conditions are associated with polycystic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
- liver cysts
- ovarian cysts
- mitral valve prolapse
- diverticulosis
- cerebral aneurysm (most do not rupture)
- Renal failure is the most common cause of death (from recurrent pyelonephritis and nephrolithiasis → progressive scarring & loss of renal fxn).
MTB p. 328 |
|
|
Term
Which medications can cause diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
- nephrogenic DI: lithium and demeclocycline
MTB p. 330 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- characterized according to overall volume status of body.
- hypervolemia: CHF, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis; these pts are edematous w/ ↓ intravascular volume → ↑ ADH to maintain volume/perfusion → hyponatremia.
- hypovolemia: sweating, burns, fever, pneumonia → hypervenitilation, diarrhea, diuretics; these can all cause hypernatremia as well, but hyponatremia results with chronic replacement with free H2O.
- euvolemia: pseudohyponatremia (hyperglycemia), psychogenic polydypsia, hypothyroidism, SIADH (small cell lung cancer produces ADH).
MTB p. 330 |
|
|
Term
Symptoms of Hyper/hypokalemia |
|
Definition
- K+ disorders interfere with muscle contraction and cardiac conduction.
- hyperkalemia: weakness, paralysis, ileus (paralyzed gut muscle), cardiac arrhythmias, NO seizures.
- Order an EKG immediately: peaked T waves, shortened QT interval, then as hyperkalemia worsens → wide QRS, PR interval prolongation.
- tx: calcium gluconate/chloride, insulin & glucose, NaHCO3, Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- β-blockers ↑ K+ via inhibting Na/K ATPase; albuterol can be used to ↓ K+.
- Hypokalemia: weakness, paralysis, loss of reflexes.
- EKG: U waves (a small wave that follows a T wave), also PVCs, flattened T waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval.
- hypomagnesemia → urinary K+ loss. Mg closes up Mg-dependent K channels.
- both hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia → ventricular tachycardia.
MTB p. 333, UW2164 |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 most common causes of normal anion gap acidosis? |
|
Definition
- diarrhea
- RTA
- the anion gap is normal b/c the Cl- ion rises; therefore, aka hyperchloremic acidosis.
- RTA type I (distal RTA)- distal tubule unable to generate HCO3 in response to aldosterone, thus acid cannot be secreted → pH > 5.5; dx: adminster acid to see if pH ↓, hypokalemia.
- RTA type II (proximal RTA) - damage to proximal tubule → inability to absorb HCO3 → eventually, HCO3 becomes depleted → ↓ urine pH ≤ 5.5. Damage occurs from amyloidosis, myeloma, Fanconi syndrome, acetazolamide, and heavy metals, test by giving HCO3; hypokalemia.
- RTA type IV (hyporeninemia, hypoaldosteronism) - ↓ amount or effect of aldosterone; hyperkalemia.
MTB p. 336 |
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of microcytic anemia? |
|
Definition
- iron deficiency
- thalassemia (target cells are most common, but can occur w/ any of the microcytic anemias).
- sideroblastic anemia (alcohol's suppressive effect on bone marrow, lead poisoning, isoniazid, vitamin B6 deficiency). sideroblasts are nucleated RBCs with granules of Fe accumulated in pernuclear mitochondria.
- anemia of chronic disease
MTB p. 206 |
|
|
Term
What is urine anion gap used for? |
|
Definition
- differentiate btw diarrhea and RTA in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
- UAG = Na+ - Cl-
- acid is secreted by kidney as NH4Cl; the more acid that is eliminated →↑ Cl.
- diarrhea → metabolic acidosis → ↑ Cl → (-) UAG value.
- RTA → kidney cannot excrete acid → (+) UAG value.
MTB p. 338 |
|
|
Term
Nephrolithiasis management |
|
Definition
- when pt presents with clear nephrolithiasis → immediate analgesia (ketorolac) and hydration.
- CT scan is most accurate
- stone < 5mm: supportive, will pass on its own.
- stones 5-7 mm: nifedipine and tamsulosin to help pass.
- stones 0.5-2 cm: lithotripsy, any larger and the fragments will get caught in ureters; must manage surgically.
MTB p. 341 |
|
|
Term
What is symptomatic anemia? |
|
Definition
- dyspnea
- lightheaded
- confusion
- syncope
- hypotension/tachycardia
- angina
MTB p. 205 |
|
|
Term
Where is vit B12 absorbed? What is elevated in B12 deficiency? Folate? |
|
Definition
- terminal ileum
- ↑ homocysteine in both
- methyl malonic acid is ↑ in only B12 deficiency
- hypokalemia is a risk when replacing folate or B12
|
|
|
Term
What is the only manifestation of sickle cell trait? |
|
Definition
- inability to concentrate urine
- isosthenuria
- urine isoosmolar to blood
MTB p. 214 |
|
|
Term
What is cold agglutinin disease and how do they develop? |
|
Definition
- IgM Abs against RBCs
- associated with EBV, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (indolent lymphoma, IgM type), and Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
- Coombs test is positive only for complement; Coomb's test detects IgG (warm agglutinin)
- steroids and splenectomy do not work in cold agglutinin disease.
MTB p. 216 |
|
|
Term
When is odds ration used? relative risk? |
|
Definition
- case-control studies. the patients have already developed the disease; exposure odds ratio.
- prevalence odds ratio is calculated in cross-sectional studies.
- relative risk/rate (incidence measure) are calculated in cohort studies, where people are followed over time for the occurrence of the disease.
UW 3931 |
|
|
Term
How does cyclosporine work? |
|
Definition
- immunosuppressant that inhibits transcription of IL-2 (mainly TH lymphocytes); calcineurin inhibitor.
- Side effects: gingival hypertrophy, hirsutism, nephrotoxicity, HTN, tremors, glucose intolerance, SCCa, N&V, diarrhea.
- tacrolimus has the same mechanism of action - calcineurin inhibitor. Similar side effects, but no gingival hyperplasia or hirsutism.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- immunosuppressant
- purine analog that is enzymatically converted to 6-mercaptopurine; inhibits purine synthesis
- dose-related diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotoxicity.
UW 3980 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- immunosuppressant
- inhibits de novo purine synthesis
- reversible ihibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, the rate-limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
- Side effect: bone marro suppression
UW 3980 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- paraprotein is an Ig or Ig light-chain produced in excess by the clonal proliferation of plasma cells.
- paraproteinemia (mainly Bence Jones proteins) → renal failure
- Bone pain, renal failure, hypercalcemia → multiple myeloma until proven otherwise (in an elderly pt).
UW 3943 |
|
|
Term
What can cause thyrotoxicosis w/ ↓ radioactive iodine uptake? |
|
Definition
- levothyroxine overdose
- subacute lymphocytic (painless) thyroiditis
- subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
- iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis
- Note: most cases of thyroiditis occur during the postpartum period.
UW 2191 |
|
|
Term
What findings are associate with disseminated gonococcemia? |
|
Definition
- tenosynovitis
- migratory polyarthralgias early in disease (No joint erythema or swelling), BUT
- can progress to suppurative infectious arthritis
- skin lesions - pustules (5-40) on extremities; purpuric or pustular lesions with a hemorrhagic component and occasionally central necrosis.
- most likely to occur during menstrual period
UW 3320 |
|
|
Term
What are the SSx of erlichiosis? |
|
Definition
- hx of tick bite
- systemic symptoms (fever, HA, malaise, and myalgias).
- leukopenia
- thrombocytopenia
- elelvated ALT/AST
- tx w/ doxycycline
UW 3247 |
|
|
Term
Which live vaccines can be administered to a patient with HIV? |
|
Definition
- if CD4 > 200/mm3:
- MMR
- Varicella
- Zoster (age > 60 years)
- Yellow fever
UW 4478 |
|
|
Term
What are the classic constellation of findings in multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
- back pain, anemia, renal dyfxn, and ↑ ESR
- bone lysis caused by plasmocyte-released humoral factors and expanding plasma cell mass → hypercalcemia
UW 4013 |
|
|
Term
Screening/Preventative Recommendations |
|
Definition
- ASA: prevent MI: men (45-79), prevent stroke: women (55-79); both grade A.
- Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: men 65-75, smoke hx, repair > 5 cm.
- Blood Pressure: Screen all adults > 18; normotensive screen every 2 years, pre-hypertensive screen annually; grade A.
- Breast Cancer: women (50-74), every 2 years, grade B. Women > 75, no mammography.
- Cholesterol: men > 35, women >45, grade A; men 20-35, women 20-45 if at ↑ risk for CAD, grade B.
- Colorectal: screen all adults age 50-75; grade A.
- Coronary Heart Disease with EKG: grade D.
- HIV: screen age 15-65, grade A, interval unknown.
- Obesity: all adults; grade B.
- Osteoporosis: women ≥ 65, ≥ every 2 yrs, grade B.
- Prostate Cancer: grade D.
- Type 2 diabetes: sustained BP > 135/80; grade B.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- age 21 to 65, Pap with cytology every 3 years; grade A.
- or age 30-65, Pap w/ cytology & HPV testing every 5 years; grade A.
- Pap on women older than age 65 with adequate screening; grade D (against).
- HPV testing in women < 30; grade D.
- Pap under age 21 is grade D; recommends against.
|
|
|
Term
What is the best way to dx and tx carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
- flushing, wheezing, right sided cardiac abnormalities
- dx: urinary 5-hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA)
- tx: octreotide
MTB p. 259 |
|
|
Term
Name a couple of promotility drugs? |
|
Definition
- metoclopromide
- erythromycin
- tx gastroparesis
MTB p. 252 |
|
|
Term
Name the different erythemas. |
|
Definition
- Erythema nodosum
- Erythema migrans - lyme disease (round red lesion with pale center).
- Erythema marginatum - serpiginous skin rash (rheumatic fever).
- Erythema toxicum - neonate with splotchy areas of erythema w/ central clear pustule; pustules have eosinophils.
- Erythema Multiforme - drug rxn, small "target" lesions, no mucous membrane involvement. may also be from herpes or mycoplasma. EM major = Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (immune complex mediated hypersensitivity). Most commonly caused by sulfonamides, NSAIDs, and phenytoin. EM minor usually occurs after a herpes simplex infxn/mycoplasma and mucosal involvement is rare and systemic symptoms are not as severe as SJ.
|
|
|
Term
How is Crohn's differentiated from ulcerative colitis? |
|
Definition
- Crohn's disease: transmural granulomas, masses and obstruction, antisacchoromyces cerevesiae Ab (ASCA).
- UC: entirely mucosal, ANCA.
- tx: acute exacerbation tx w/ steroids (prednisone or budesonide, which is specific for IBD), maintenance of remission - mesalamine (5-ASA derivative), azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine to wean pt off steroids, fistulae and severe disease unresponsive → infliximab.
MTB p. 260 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin
- unresponsive to above: metronidazole and tetracycline.
- retest with stool antigen or breath urea.
MTP p. 249 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- metronidazole
- if patient gets better, but then relapses → metro again.
- unresponsive to metro → oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin.
MTB p. 255 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Serum Ascites Albumin Gradient
- > 1.1: portal HTN, CHF, hepatic vein thrombosis, constrictive pericarditis.
- < 1.1: infection (not SBP), cancer, nephrotic syndrome.
- with ascites spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is a concern; > 250 nØ is when thx is started; gram stain almost always (-); tx - cefotaxime or ceftriaxone.
MTB p. 266
MTP p. 266 |
|
|
Term
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis |
|
Definition
- woman in 40s/50s, fatigue and pruritis, normal bilirubin, ↑ alk phos.
- antimitochondrial Ab
- tx: ursodeoxycholic acid
MTB p. 268 |
|
|
Term
What are the findings associated with hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
- genetic disorder → overabsorption of iron in duodenum.
- fatigue and joint pain (pseudogout)
- erectile dysfxn in men, amenorrhea in women (pituitary involvement)
- skin darkening
- DM
- cardiomyopathy
- best dx: abdominal MRI and HFE (C282y) gene testing; NOT liver bx (MRI spares pt from need fo bx).
- note: deferoximine is injeciton only; deferasirox and deferiprone are oral meds.
MTB p. 268 |
|
|
Term
How are Hep B and C treated? |
|
Definition
- Hep B: just one of the following - adefovir, lamivudine, telbivudine, entecavir, tenofovir, interferon.
- chronic Hep C: combination of interferon, ribavirin, and either telaprevir or boceprevir.
- AE: Interferon (arthralgias, thrombocytopenia, depression, leukopenia), ribavarin (anemia), adefovir (renal dysfxn).
MTB p. 270 |
|
|
Term
What is the most accurate test for Wilson disease? |
|
Definition
- abnormally ↑ copper excretion into urine after penicillamine administration.
- ↓ ceruloplasmin is not the most accurate dx test.
- Wilson disease gives psychosis and delusions, not the encephalopathic features or delerium seen with any form of liver failure.
MTB p. 271 |
|
|
Term
When a pt on ASA has a non hemorrhagic stroke, how should it be managed? |
|
Definition
- add dipyridamole
- or switch to clopidogrel
MTB p. 275 |
|
|
Term
When should an endarterectomy be performed in a pt with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease? |
|
Definition
- > 70% → operate
- < 50% → do not operate
- carotid angioplasty and stenting is of no proven value for stroke pts.
MTB p. 276 |
|
|
Term
If pt with trigeminal neuralgia is unresponsive to medical thx, what is the next best option? |
|
Definition
- gamma knife surgery/surgical decompression
- medical thx: oxcarbazepine or carbamazepine; also baclofen and lamotrigine have been effective.
MTB p. 278 |
|
|
Term
What are the adverse effects of phenytoin when given IV? |
|
Definition
- like lidocaine, it is a class 1b antiarrhythimc
- IV → hypotension and AV block
- fosphenytoin does not have these effects and can be given more rapidly.
- tx of status epilepticus: benzodiazepine first, if persists → phenytoin/fosphenytoin, still no resolution → phenobarbitol, seizure continues → sux/rocuronium → intubate → propofol
MTB p. 279 |
|
|
Term
How can you tell subarachnoid hemorrhage from meningitis when analyzing CSF ? |
|
Definition
- RBC to WBC ratio is normal (1 WBC/500-1000 RBCs)
- ↑ ratio of WBC → meningitis
- SAH causes fever via meningeal irritation
MTB p. 281 |
|
|
Term
What are some of the findings in Bell Palsy? |
|
Definition
- paralysis of entire face
- stroke will paralyze only the lower 2/3 of the face b/c of b/l UMN innervation.
- hyperacusis - CN VII controls stapedius muscle.
- taste disturbance - chorda tympani is a branch of the facial nerve.
MTB p. 295 |
|
|
Term
What is the most dangerous complication in Guillain-Barré Syndrome? |
|
Definition
- involvement of respiratory failure
- inspiration is the active part of breathing and the pt loses the strength to inhale.
- PFTs tell who might die from GBS.
- there is a ↓ in forced vital capacity and peak inspiratory pressure.
MTB p. 296 |
|
|
Term
What is the best initial test in dx myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
- even before edrophonium testing → Ach receptor Abs
- if (-) get anti-MUSK Abs (muscle-specific kinase)
- most accurate test: electromyography
- ALWAYS conduct CXR, CT, or MRI to look for thymoma or thymic hyperplasia.
MTB p. 297 |
|
|
Term
What is the best dx test for acromegaly? |
|
Definition
- IGF-1; consistently ↑ throughout the course of the day, whereas GH levels can fluctuate.
- screen w/ IGF-1 → oral glucose suppression test → no suppression of GH → acromegaly.
- SSx: skin tags/colonic polyps, carpal tunnel syndrome, coarse facial features, arthralgias from joints growing out of alignment, body odor from sweat gland hypertrophy, HTN.
UW 4323, MTB p. 110 |
|
|
Term
What should you think about when you see constipation? |
|
Definition
- hypercalcemia
- 2° to myeloma or metastatic bone cancers
UW 4013 |
|
|
Term
What causes senile purpura? |
|
Definition
- senile purpura is an ecchymotic lesion that occurs in areas susceptible to trauma in the elderly (e.g. dorsum of hands and forearms).
- atrophy of perivascular connective tissue
- not dangergous, requires no additional investigation.
UW 4355 |
|
|
Term
When should tx for hepatitis B be initiated? |
|
Definition
- ALT > 2x the upper limit of normal w/ detectable HBsAg, HBeAg, and HBV DNA
- predicts a favorable response
- normal ALT → uneffective
- tx: interferon or lamivudine
UW 2961 |
|
|
Term
How are premature atrial beats managed? |
|
Definition
- they are benign and never require any tx or follow-up.
- also PVCs, even when associated with an acute
UW 3700 |
|
|
Term
List the specific leads that are affected according to the anatomical location of ischemia or infarction. |
|
Definition
- II, III, aVF: inferior wall (5% mortality at 1 year)
- V2-V4: anterior wall (30-40% mortality at 1 year)
- V1, V2: posterior wall (the leads are read in the opposite direction of the rest of the leads → ST depression = MI)
MTB p. 64 |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for developing CAD? |
|
Definition
- men age > 45, women age > 55; overall, more women will eventually die of heart disease than men.
- DM
- smoking
- HTN
- hyperlipidemia
- Fhx of premature CAD, 1st degree relatives only (men < 55, women < 65).
- smoking cessation, and not HTN control, results in the greatest immediate benefit for the pt.
MTB p. 50 |
|
|
Term
What are the common descriptions/characteristics that exclude ischemia as the cause of chest pain? |
|
Definition
- change with respiration (pleuritic)
- changes with position of the body
- changes with touch of the chest wall (tenderness)
MTB p. 53
|
|
|
Term
What are the best methods for detecting ischemia without using an EKG? |
|
Definition
- nuclear isotope uptake: thallium or sestamibi; normal myocardium picks up thallium (in the same way that K+ is picked up by Na/K ATPase).
- echocardiographic detection of wall motion abnormalities
- reasons for baseline EKG abnormalities: LBBB, L vent hypertrophy, pacemaker, digoxin use.
MTB p. 55 |
|
|
Term
Which medications are used to manage chronic angina? |
|
Definition
- ASA
- β blockers
- nitroglycerin (oral or patch)
MTB p. 57 |
|
|
Term
If the patient is unable to tolerate an ACE inhibitor due to angioedema what is a good alternative? |
|
Definition
A combination of Hydralazine & Nitroglycerin.
This is in the setting of congestive heart failure.
Also, if the patient develops hyperkalemia. |
|
|
Term
What is the LDL goal if a pt has CAD? |
|
Definition
- < 100 mg/dl
- CAD equivalents: peripheral artery disease, carotid disease, aortic disease, DM.
MTB p. 59 |
|
|
Term
Which medication should not be combined with statins? |
|
Definition
- fibrates (gemfibrozil) → ↑ risk of myositis
- fibrates lower TG
MTB p. 60 |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for CCBs if a pt has CAD? |
|
Definition
- Use verapamil/diltiazem in CAD only: severe asthma (cannot use β blocker), prinzmetal angina, cocaine-induced chest pain, inability to control w/ maximum medical thx.
- AE: edema, constipation (verapamil most often), heart block.
- dihydropyridine CCBs (nifedipine, nitrendipine, nicardipine, nimodipine) may actually ↑ mortality in pts w/ CAD b/c → ↑ HR.
MTB p. 61 |
|
|
Term
Which medications should be administered for acute coronary syndrome? |
|
Definition
- ASA is most important (lowers mortality!!!)
- morphine
- O2
- nitroglcerin
- ASA alternative if allx: clopidogrel
MTB p. 64 |
|
|
Term
For how many days post-MI does troponin T stay ↑?
CK-MB? |
|
Definition
- Troponin T, a more sensitive marker for cardiac injury, takes up to 10 days to return to normal.
- CK-MB returns to normal within 1-2 days.
- takes 4-6 hours for both markers to rise after an MI.
UW2737 |
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Term
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Definition
- ↑ jugulovenous pressure on inhalation
- associated with constrictive pericarditis or restrictive cardiomyopathy.
- also found in constrictive percarditis is a "knock," which is an extra heart sound in diastole from ventricular filling; as heart fills to maximum, it hits the stiff, rigid pericardium with a "knock."
- best initial test is CXR that shows calcification and fibrosis.
MTB p. 63 |
|
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Term
Which medications must be administered in the event of an aortic dissection? |
|
Definition
- β-blocker
- nitroprusside
- β-blocker must be given before nitroprusside to prevent reflex tachycardia.
MTB p. 104 |
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Term
ST segment depression ACS |
|
Definition
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Term
What role do ACEi/ARBs play in ACS? |
|
Definition
- based on ejection fraction < 40%
MTB p. 68 |
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Term
What role do GP IIB/IIIa inhibitors play in STEMI or unstable angina/non-STEMI? |
|
Definition
- STEMI: only in those undergoing angioplasty and stenting.
- unstable angina/non-STEMI: use!!!; if all medications have been administered and pt is still not responding → angiography and possible angioplasty.
MTB p. 70 |
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Term
What are the complications of acute MI? |
|
Definition
- sinus bradycardia (vascular insufficiency of SA node)
- thrid-degree AV block (will have cannon A waves, produced by atrial contraction against closed tricuspid valve)
- cannon A waves are the best way to distinguish sinus bradycardia from 3rd degree AV block.
- R ventricular infarct
- tamponade/free wall rupture: sudden loss of pulse
- valve or septal rupture: new onset murmur and pulmonary congestion; O2 sat ↑ in R ventricle compared to R atrium (42% → 85%).
MTB p. 71 |
|
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Term
|
Definition
- a: atrial contraction
- c: ventricular contraction (tricuspid valve bowing in)
- x: atrial relaxation
- v: atrial filling
- y: opening of tricuspid valve
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Term
How is right ventricular MI best managed? |
|
Definition
- high-fluid replacement
- avoid nitroglycerin (they worsen cardiac filling)
MTB p. 71 |
|
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Term
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Definition
- prior to d/c: everyone gets a stress test
- ASA/clopidogrel/ticlodipine (if allx to both)
- β blocker (metoprolol)
- statins
- ACEi
- Do Not use prophylactic antiarrhythmics in pts post-MI, ↑ mortality; don't be tricked by "frequent PVCs and ectopy."
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Term
When is an implantable defibrillator and biventricular pacemaker warranted? |
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Definition
- implantable defibrillator: ischemic cardiomyopathy and EF < 35%.
- biventricular pacemaker: dilated cardiomyopathy, EF < 35% and QRS above .12 who have persistent symptoms.
- arrhythmia/sudden death is the most common cause of death in CHF.
MTB p. 80 |
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Term
How else can a pt be managed if patient with cholelithiasis refuses a laparoscopic cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
- ursodeoxycholic acid; dissolves small radiolucent stones.
- avoid fatty foods
- pt should have normal, fxnl gall bladders.
- ursodeoxycholic acid ↓ cholesterol content of bile by ↓ hepatic secretion and intestinal reabsorption of cholesterol; may take several months of thx for stones to dissolve.
UW2939 |
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Term
Describe the ssx of systemic blastomycosis. |
|
Definition
- skin lesions (verrucous and crusted)
- lytic bone lesions
- fever
- night sweats
- productive cough
- weight loss
- broad based budding yeast
- tx: itraconazole or amphotericin B
- Great Lakes, Mississippi/Ohio River basins
- Coccidiomycosis can present similarly, but is found in the southwest.
UW3037 |
|
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Term
- Phenytoin toxicity
- Benzodiazepine toxicity
- Opioid toxicity
- Lithium toxicity
|
|
Definition
- phenytoin: horizontal nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, confusion.
- benzodiazepine: slurred speech, unsteady gait, drowsiness (unlike opioid, no respiratory depression or miosis)
- opioid: sedation, respiratory depression, pupillary constriction.
- lithium: tremor, hyperreflexia, ataxia, seizures.
UW2664 |
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Term
|
Definition
- weakness/fatigue
- altered mental status
- N/V
- anorexia
- hypotension
- hyponatremia
- hyperkalemia
- eosinophilia is common in hypoadrenalism
- Note: test with cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH)
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Term
What is the best initial thx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
- β-blockers for both
- diuretics can be used for HCM (symptom management), but contraindicated in HOCM.
- HOCM specific thx: implantable defibrillators for pts experiencing syncope, ablation of septum (etOH injection into muscle via catheter, if fails → surgical myectomy.
MTB p. 95 |
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Term
What is pulsus tardus et parvus? |
|
Definition
- tardus - late
- parvus - weak/small
- seen in aortic valve stenosis
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|
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Term
What does electrical alternans signify? |
|
Definition
- pericardial tamponade
- different heights of QRS complexes b/w beats
MTB p. 100 |
|
|
Term
What is peripartum cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
- develops after delivery
- Ab against myocardium
- LV dysfxn is often reversible and short term.
- if no improvement → cardiac transplantation
- repeat pregnancy in women w/ peripartum cardiomyopathy will provoke enormous Ab production against myocardium.
MTB p. 105 |
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Term
What are the adverse effects of systemic corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
- osteoporosis
- cataracts
- adrenal suppression
- fat redistribution
- hyperlipidemia
- hyperglycemia
- acne
- hirsutism
- thinning of skin
- striae
- easy bruising
MTB p. 132 |
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Term
What can cause ↑ levels of prolactin? |
|
Definition
- prolactin can be cosecreted with GH simply b/c of acromegaly.
- hypothyroidism → ↑ prolactin b/c ↑ TRH → prolactin secretion.
- intense exercise
- renal insufficiency (look for BUN/Cr ratio)
- ↑ chest wall stimulation
- cirrhosis (look at LFTs)
- pregnancy
- dopamine inhibition (DA inhibits prolactin secretion)
- SSx: W - galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility; M - ED, ↓ libido, gynecomastia (galactorrhea is rare).
- Do not do an MRI first in any endocrine disorder.
- tx: cabergoline (DA agonist), better tolerated than bromocriptine.
MTB p. 111 |
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Term
What is the difference in management between asthmatics and COPDers? |
|
Definition
- asthma not controlled with albuterol → inhaled steroids.
- COPD not controlled with albuterol → anticholinergic (ipratropium/tiotropium) → inhaled steroids.
MTB p. 135 |
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Term
Elevated TSH w/ normal T4. Is hormone replacement necessary? |
|
Definition
- TSH > 2x upper limit of normal w/ normal T4 → replace hormone.
- TSH < 2x upper limit of normal → test antithyroid peroxidase Ab/antithyroglobulin Ab → Ab (+) → replace hormone.
MTB p. 112 |
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|
Term
Which conditions can cause ↑ vit D? |
|
Definition
- sarcoidosis
- TB
- berylliosis
- coccidiomycosis
- histoplasmosis
- candidiasis
- Crohn disease
- langerhans-histiocytosis
- cat-scratch disease
- Wegener granulomatosis
- PCP
- macrophages/histiocytes convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D → 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
UpToDate (hypercalcemia in granulomatous diseases) |
|
|
Term
Other than hyperparathyroidism what other condition is a major source of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
- malignancy
- PTH-related peptide (PTHrP)
- breast cancer, lung cancer (SCCa)
- also: ADH (small cell carcinoma, ACTH (small cell lung Ca or carcinoid).
- Lambert-Eaton (small cell lung cancer)
MTB p. 120 |
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Term
SSx: hyper/hypocalcemia, hyper/hypokalemia, |
|
Definition
- Hypercalcemia: confusion, stupor, lethargy, constipation, short QT
- tx: NS hydration & bisphosphonates → then calcitonin
- Hypocalcemia: Chvostek sign (facal nerve hyperexcitability), Trousseau sign (tetany), carpopedal spasm, perioral numbness, mental irritability, seizures.
- HyperCa: lethargic and slow, HypoCa: twitchy and hyperexcitable.
MTB p. 118 |
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Term
What are the functions of Mg2+? |
|
Definition
- hypomagnesemia → urinary K+loss. Mg closes up Mg-dependent K channels.
- Mg is necessary for PTH to be released from the gland.
MTB p. 118 |
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Term
What is Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis? |
|
Definition
- ABPA occurs almost exclusively in pts with asthma and hx of atopic disorders.
- look for asthmatic pt with recurrent episodes of brown-flecked sputum and transient infiltrates on CXR.
- tx: oral steroids, itraconazole for recurrent episodes.
MTB p. 138 |
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|
Term
When should a pt with pneumonia be hospitalized? |
|
Definition
- C: confusion
- U: uremia (BUN > 30)
- R: respiratory distress (RR > 30, pO2 < 60 mm Hg, pH < 7.35)
- B: BP low (systolic < 90)
- 65: age > 65
- 0-1 points: home, ≥ 2 points: admission
MTB p. 145 |
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Term
What is the definition of hospital acquired pneumonia? |
|
Definition
- pneumonia develops > 48 hrs after admission or after hospitalization in the last 90 days.
- much higher incidence of gram (-) bacilli such as E. coli or Pseudomonas.
- use: antipseudomonals - cephalosporins (cefepime or ceftazidime), antipseudomonal penicillin (piperacillin/tazobactam), or carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, or doripenem).
MTB p. 147 |
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Term
How does a lung abscess develop? |
|
Definition
- only in pts with a large-volume aspiration of oral/pharyngeal contsnts, usually w/ poor dentition, who is not adequately treated.
- lung abscesses are rare b/c of prompt tx of aspiration pneumonia.
- large-volume aspiration occurs from: stroke w/ loss of gag reflex, seizures, intoxication, endotracheal intubation.
MTB p. 149 |
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Term
How is pneumocytis pneumonia dx? |
|
Definition
- CD4 < 200 and pt not on prophylaxis (TMP/SMX)
- LDH is always elevated
- if LDH is normal ≠ PCP
- dx CXR with b/l interstitial infiltrates
- sputum stain is specific if (+); no need for further testing.
- (-) sputum stain → bronchoscopy
- tx: TMP/SMX, add steroids to ↓ mortality if PCP is severe (pO2 < 70, A-a gradient > 35).
- allx/toxicity to TMP/SMX → clindamycin & primaquine or pentamidine.
MTB p. 151 |
|
|
Term
What are some adverse effects from TMP/SMX? |
|
Definition
- rash
- bone marrow suppression
MTB p. 151 |
|
|
Term
What is the standard care for symptomatic TB? |
|
Definition
- When smear is (+): Rifamin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (RIPE).
- if TB is sensitive to all medications, there is no need for ethambutol.
- RIPE for first 2 months, stop pyrazinamide and ethambutol, continue rifampin/isoniazid for another 4 months (6 mos total).
- extend tx to 9 mos if: osteomyelitis, miliary TB, meningitis, pregnancy or any other time pyrazinamide is not used.
- toxicity: all TB meds cause hepatotoxicity; only d/c if transaminases > 3-5x upper limit of normal.
- pregnant pts should not receive pyrazinamide.
- latent TB: isoniazid for 9 mos; even if pt had previous BCG and PPD (+) → 9 mos isoniazid.
MTB p. 154 |
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|
Term
What are common diagnostic findings of PE? |
|
Definition
- CXR: atelectasis
- EKG: sinus tachycardia, nonspecific ST-T wave Δs
- ABG: hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis (↑ pH and ↓ pCO2).
- CXR must be normal for V/Q scan to have any degree of accuracy; spiral CT if CXR is abnormal.
- spiral CT (-) → V/Q or LE doppler → (-) → withhold thx w/ heparin.
MTB p. 162 |
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Term
When is an IVC filter indicated? |
|
Definition
- contraindicaiton to use of anticoagulant (melena, CNS bleed)
- recurrent emboli while on heparin or fully therapeutic warfarin (INR 2-3)
- right ventricular dysfxn with an enlarged RV on echo. disease is so severe that even the smallest of emboli could be potentially fatal.
MTB p. 162 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- systolic > 25, diastolic > 8
MTB p. 164 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pO2/FIO2 < 300
- FIO2 is expressed in decimal format
- < 200 = moderately severe
- < 100 = severe
- wedge pressure is normal
MTB p. 165 |
|
|
Term
Describe the crystals associated with gout. |
|
Definition
- needle-shaped crystals with negative birefringence on polarized light microscopy; ↑ WBCs (2-50k) on joint aspirate.
- pseudogout: postively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals; ↑ WBCs (2-50k) on joint aspirate.
- nephrolithiasis can → ileus via vagal rxn to ureteral colic.
UW 2324 |
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Term
How is an acute attack of gout managed? Chronic gout? |
|
Definition
- NSAIDs, best initial thx
- corticosteroids by injection in single joint or orally for multiple joints if no response to NSAIDs or contraindicaiton to NSAIDs (renal insufficiency).
- colchicine (diarrhea/neutropenia) for those who cannot use NSAIDs or steroids.
- Chronic: colchicine, allopurinol/probenecid, pegloticase (dissolves uric acid).
MTB p. 170 |
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|
Term
Calcium Pyrophophate Deposition Disease |
|
Definition
- aka Pseudogout
- Risk factors: hemochromatosis, hyperPTH, DM, hypothyroidism, Wilson disease.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- #1 - NSAIDs (does not prevent progression of disease)
- #2 Steroids, when NSAIDs do not control symptoms immediately or as a bridge when waiting for DMARDs to take effect (does not prevent progression of disease).
- Best initial DMARD is methotrexate (liver toxicity, bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity).
- no response to MTX → TNF inhibitor (infliximab, adalimumab, etanercept).
- for initial control MTX and TNFi are used together
- rituximab
- hydroxycholoroquine (can be used as monothx as a DMARD in cases of mild disease; retinal toxicity.
MTB p. 181 |
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|
Term
What is the classic presentation of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
- high, spiking fever (> 104) in a young person with no clearly identified etiology, but associated with a rash (salmon colored on chest and abdomen).
MTB p. 182 |
|
|
Term
What is a good marker for an acute lupus flare? |
|
Definition
- ↓ complement
- ↑ anti-dsDNA
MTB p. 185 |
|
|
Term
What is the most specific test for lupus anticoagulant? |
|
Definition
- Russell viper venom test
- RVVT is prolonged with antiphospholipid Ab (lupus anticoagulant & anticardiolipin Abs) and does not correct with normal plasma.
- the best initial test is the mixing study; pts plasma mixed with equal amount of normal plasma → no correction of aPTT.
- recurrent thrombotic episodes are treated lifelong with warfarin (INR 2-3).
MTB p. 186 |
|
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Term
|
Definition
- aka Reiter Sydrome
- can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree
- joint pain, uveitis/conjunctivitis, urethritis/balanitis
- associated with: IBD, STD, GI infxn (Yersinia, Salmonella, Campylobacter).
MTB p. 197 |
|
|
Term
What are the findings associated with limited scleroderma? |
|
Definition
- C: calcinosis
- R: Raynaud
- E: esophageal dysmotility
- S: sclerodactyly
- T: telangiectasias
- anticentromere Ab
- antitopoisomerase Ab (SCL-70) is for scleroderma (systemic sclerosis).
MTB p. 186 |
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|
Term
What are pts with dermatomyositis at increased risk for? |
|
Definition
- 25% of cases associated with cancer
- ovary
- lung
- GI
- lymphoma
MTB p. 188 |
|
|
Term
What is the Schermer test? |
|
Definition
- filter paper is placed against globe of eye and observed for amount of tears produced.
- best initial test for Sjögren
- worst complication of Sjögren is lymphoma
MTB p. 189 |
|
|
Term
What are some associations with PAN? |
|
Definition
- hepatitis B and C
- lungs are inexplicably spared
MTB p. 190 |
|
|
Term
leukocytoclastic vasculitis on bx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Churg-Strauss syndrome? |
|
Definition
- pulmonary-renal syndrome
- also asthma and eosinophilia
- p-ANCA
MTB p. 193 |
|
|
Term
An individual presents with recurrent episodes of gonorrhea. What should be tested? |
|
Definition
- terminal complement deficiency
MTB p. 201 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- a much more severe disease than impetigo; deeper layer of skin.
- more commonly streptococcus than staph.
- invades dermal lymphatics → bacteremia
|
|
|
Term
Who should receive prophylactic tamoxifen? |
|
Definition
- if multiple 1st degree relatives have breast cancer; ↓ risk of breast cancer.
- adjuvant chemothx (pt already has disease, but no clearly identified mets; thx to clean up presumed microscopic cancer cells too small in amount to be detected).
- use adjuvant chemothx when: lesions are > 1 cm or (+) axillary l.n. are found.
MTB p. 350 |
|
|
Term
What are the complications of prostate surgery? |
|
Definition
- erectile dysfxn
- urinary incontinence
MTB p. 350 |
|
|
Term
What are transplant individuals at increased risk for? |
|
Definition
- SCCa
- greatly increased by long-term use of immunosuppressants.
MTB p. 364 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is commonly associated with porphyria cutanea tarda? |
|
Definition
- hepatitis C
- it is a blistering skin disease of sun-exposed areas in those w/ a hx of: liver disease, estrogen use, iron oveload.
MTB p. 370 |
|
|
Term
What antifungal is antiandrogenic? |
|
Definition
- ketoconazole
- causes gynecomastia
MTB p. 375 |
|
|
Term
Which drugs commonly cause hypersensitivity rxns? |
|
Definition
- penicillins
- sulfa drugs (including thiazides, furosemide, and sulfonylureas)
- allopurinol
- phenytoin
- lamotrigine
- NSAIDs
- the drugs that cause hypersensitivity rxns are the same that cause hemolysis, interstitial nephritis, and often drug-induced thrombocytopenia.
MTB p. 375 |
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