1. (401) In its natural state oxygen is a

. tasteless, colorless, and odorless.

b. tasteless, volumeless, and odorless.

c. tasteless, colorless, and weightless.

d. volumeless, weightless, and colorless.

2. (401) What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen?

a. Filler.

b. Check.

c. Shutoff.

d. Pressure-reducing.

3. (401) The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is

a. brown and orange.

b. blue and yellow.

c. green and white.

d. black and red.

4. (401) The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it

a. wastes oxygen.

b. is unusable below 10,000 feet.

c. is usable only above 20,000 feet.

d. delivers oxygen at varying pressures

5. (401) What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?

a. 16 man-minutes of oxygen.

b. 93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

c. 97 percent nitrogen-enriched gas.

d. 100 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

6. (402) Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of

a. 600 to 1.

b. 680 to 1.

c. 800 to 1.

d. 860 to 1.

7. (402) Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system’s combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the

a. fill position.

b. vent position.

c. normal position.

d. buildup position.

8. (402) On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent

a. slow pressure buildup.

b. rapid venting of system pressure.

c. LOX system pressure loss during maintenance.

d. the filler access door from closing in the vent position.

9. (403) Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?

a. Intake.

b. Turbine.

c. Exhaust.

d. Compressor.

10. (403) Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the

a. ambient pressure and ambient temperature.

b. engine throttle setting and ambient altitude.

c. ambient pressure and engine throttle setting.

d. engine throttle setting and ambient temperature.

11. (403) What is the purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valves?

a. Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.

b. Maintain balanced airflow from each engine.

c. Provide a primary source for compressed bleed air.

d. Reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is too high.

12. (403) What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown?

a. Check valve.

b. Shutoff valve.

c. Isolation valve.

d. Crossover valve.

13. (404) The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of

a. titanium.

b. aluminum.

c. stainless steel.

d. aluminum/nickel alloy.

14. (404) What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?

a. Screwdriver.

b. Center punch.

c. Rawhide mallet.

d. Ball peen hammer.

15. (404) What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket?

a. Clamp flange.

b. Bolted flange.

c. Beaded flange.

d. Compressible flange.

16. (404) What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation?

a. Soap.

b. Water.

c. Grease.

d. Silicone.

17. (404) The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of

a. fiber and fiberglass.

b. fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber.

c. a soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh.

d. a soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic.

18. (404) Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for

a. ram air ducting.

b. a long run of ducting.

c. a short run of ducting.

d. low-temperature/low-pressure ducting.

19. (404) What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?

a. Thermal compensators.

b. Expansion bellows.

c. Puckered flaps.

d. Vent holes.

20. (404) What is defined as “a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of the material isn’t cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?”

a. Minor dent.

b. Major dent.

c. Scratch.

d. Gouge.

21. (405) “The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space” is the definition of

a. engine bleed air.

b. air conditioning.

c. pressurization.

d. air control.

22. (405) What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?

a. Primary heat exchanger.

b. Air cycle machine.

c. Water separator.

d. Air cooler

23. (405) What aircraft air conditioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers?

a. Air cycle machine.

b. Refrigeration bypass valve.

c. Movable inlet and exit doors.

d. Primary ram air controller assemblies.

24. (405) The rapid cooling of bleed air causes

a. the air pressure to increase.

b. moisture to condense in the form of fog.

c. ice to form in the secondary heat exchanger.

d. a loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor

25. (406) As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase in pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of this increased temperature?

a. Primary heat exchanger.

b. Secondary heat exchanger.

c. Air cycle machine bypass valve.

d. Air cycle machine expansion turbine.

26. (407) The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person’s blood vessels to

a. shrink.

b. rupture.

c. contract.

d. collapse.

27. (408) What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system?

a. A jet pump.

b. Filtering cabin air.

c. The unpressurized range.

d. Regulating control chamber pressure.

28. (408) What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator?

a. A diaphragm, fulcrum, and aneroid.

b. A rocker arm, diaphragm, and fulcrum.

c. An aneroid, spring, and metering valve.

d. A spring, metering valve, and rocker arm.

29. (408) What are the components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator?

a. A spring, metering valve, aneroid.

b. An aneroid, rocker arm, and fulcrum.

c. A rocker arm, fulcrum, and diaphragm.

d. A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve.

30. (408) What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?

a. The outflow valves.

b. A manual controller.

c. The cabin altitude selector.

d. A positive pressure relief valve.

31. (408) What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system?

a. Control the venting of cabin pressure.

b. Control the reference chamber pressure.

c. Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time.

d. Ensure that the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open

32. (408) In the variable isobaric pressurization system. the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the

a. safety valve fails.

b. outflow valve fails.

c. pneumatic relay fails.

d. cabin pressure controller fails.

33. (409) The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with

a. each other only.

b. the power source and with the warning light.

c. each other and in parallel with the power source.

d. the warning light and parallel with each other.

34. (409) The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called

a. an electroconductive sensor.

b. an Iron Fireman switch.

c. a photoconductive cell.

d. a FENWAL® switch.

35. (409) The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of

a. 10 Hz.

b. 100 Hz.

c. 200 Hz.

d. 400 Hz.

36. (410) A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by

a. releasing a fine mist vapor.

b. excluding oxygen from the area.

c. removing nitrogen from the area.

d. dispersing a large amount of liquid.

37. (410) A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to

a. convert the liquid to a gas upon discharge.

b. expel the agent from the bottle.

c. assist in extinguishing the fire.

d. stabilize the temperature.

38. (410) What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge?

a. Squib.

b. Frangible disc.

c. Bonnet assembly.

d. Rubber O-ring packing

39. (410) In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections?

a. Break cleanly into small pieces.

b. Allow undisturbed fluid flow through the system.

c. Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer. d. Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer.

40. (411) What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?

a. Sump and drain.

b. Pump and drain.

c. Pressure relief valve.

d. Fuel-level control valve.

41. (411) A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of

a. soft, malleable plastic.

b. rubber or nylon material.

c. hardened, pre-formed plastic.

d. lightweight, pre-formed aluminum.

42. (411) Wing tanks are

a. bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing.

b. lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities.

c. sealed-off parts of the wing structure.

d. soft, malleable plastic tanks.

43. (412) A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used

a. for boost, transfer, or air refueling operations.

b. in any area requiring a pump with no moving parts.

c. to scavenge the remaining fuel in low areas of a fuel tank.

d. when the output volume of the pump must be in direct proportion to its speed.

44. (412) What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing?

a. Jet.

b. Ejector.

c. Top-mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive.

d. Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor

45. (412) What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions?

a. Rotary-vane.

b. Top-mounted.

c. Dual-impeller.

d. In-line ejector.

46. (412) In a dual-impeller fuel pump what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open?

a. An inlet screen.

b. An impeller screen.

c. A one-way check valve.

d. A two-way check valve.

47. (412) What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication?

a. Rotors.

b. Stators.

c. Bearings.

d. Impellers

48. (412) What air refueling pump component removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers?

a. Rotor.

b. Stator.

c. Accumulator.

d. Vapor relief valve.

49. (413) The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the

a. direction of free flow.

b. direction of restricted flow.

c. location of the drilled hole in the valve.

d. location of the manufacturer’s data block.

50. (413) A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used

a. when a reverse flow of fuel is desired.

b. to prevent the pump from overspeeding.

c. when gravity flow through the valve is undesirable.

d. to prevent excessive pressures when the pump overspeeds

51. (413) The fuel system components that prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the valve body are three

a. thermal-relief valves.

b. pressure-relief valves.

c. one-way check valves.

d. spring-loaded relief valves.

52. (413) The rotary plug valve can be removed and replaced

a. without draining the fuel lines or tanks.

b. only if the electric motor is in the OFF position.

c. only after the required fuel lines and tanks are drained.

d. only after removing the valve body and connecting lines

53. (413) What rotary plug valve part rotates and seals off the passage of fuel during plug valve removal?

a. Initial seal.

b. Diaphragm seal.

c. Primary seal sleeve.

d. Secondary seal sleeve.

54. (413) Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is

a. butterfly.

b. swivel vane.

c. sliding gate.

d. swinging disc.

55. (413) In a piston-type, fuel level control valve, what aids piston closure and prevents fuel from entering the tank?

a. Float.

b. Spring.

c. Pilot valve.

d. Diaphragm.

56. (413) Some fuel level control valves have a dual-float system so that

a. there will be a double safety factor.

b. two tanks can be filled at the same time.

c. the tank can be filled to either of two levels.

d. there is capability to fill or empty the tank.

57. (413) The low-level shutoff valve prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the valve by what type of action?

a. Spring.

b. Venturi.

c. Check valve.

d. Hydromechanical.

58. (414) Fuel-controlled switches normally control circuits that indicate

a. fuel-flow.

b. fuel level.

c. fuel pressure.

d. all of the above.

59. (414) What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?

a. Float valves.

b. Float switches.

c. Toggle switches.

d. Pressure switches.

60. (414) In a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, what positions the wiper contact on the resistance strip?

a. Signals from the amplifier.

b. The movement of a float in the tanks.

c. Voltage changes in the indicator circuit.

d. The amount of bleed air pressure applied to the tank.

61. (414) What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density?

a. Inductor.

b. Capacitor.

c. Compensator.

d. Potentiometer.

62. (414) What prevents a fuel tank from collapsing if an air pressure regulator fails and excessive negative pressure develops?

a. Quick-disconnect valve.

b. Fuel-level control valve.

c. Low-level shutoff valve.

d. Pressure/vacuum relief valve.

63. (415) A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure

a. positive and negative fuel-flow.

b. negative fuel-flow under all conditions.

c. positive fuel-flow under positive conditions.

d. positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions.

64. (415) The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the

a. rotary plug, disc, and check.

b. disc, check, and sliding gate.

c. sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc.

d. check, sliding gate, and rotary plug.

65. (415) The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow,

a. air pressure, and pump.

b. check, and air pressure.

c. pump, and hydromechanical.

d. hydromechanical, and air pressure.

66. (415) What is the basic purpose of the fuel vent system?

a. Move fuel from tank to tank.

b. Pressurize the fuel for transfer.

c. Remove residual fuel from manifolds.

d. Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse.

67. (416) The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is

a. nozzle.

b. top-off.

c. single-point.

d. over-the-wing.

68. (416) The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated

a. hydraulically, but controlled electrically.

b. electrically, but controlled hydraulically.

c. electrically, but controlled pneumatically.

d. hydraulically but controlled pneumatically.

69. (417) Fuel’s ability to hold contaminants in suspension is increased with a higher

a. fuel to air ratio.

b. specific gravity.

c. temperature.

d. viscosity.

70. (417) What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form?

a. Rust.

b. Sand or dust

c. Brass shavings.

d. Aluminum or magnesium compounds.

71. (417) Which type of fuel contaminant can form a red, brown, gray, or black slime in the fuel?

a. Water.

b. Sediment.

c. Foreign particles.

d. Microbial growth.

72. (417) Specks or granules of sediment in fuel that are visible to the naked eye are approximately how many microns or larger?

a. 30.

b. 40.

c. 50.

d. 54.

73. (418) Classification of fuel leaks is necessary in order to determine

a. how much fuel is being wasted.

b. the type of contaminant that is in the fuel.

c. whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard. d. whether or not they constitute an environmental hazard.

74. (418) How are fuel leaks categorized?

a. Major and minor.

b. Class 1 through 5.

c. Class A through D.

d. Internal and external.

75. (418) Leak limits correspond to the

a. fuel type and location.

b. leak category and location.

c. leak category and fuel type.

d. location and corrective action.

76. (418) In addition to the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A or AFTO Form 781K, what form must you use to document fuel leaks when automatic data systems are not available?

a. DD Form 2026.

b. AFTO Form 422.

c. AFTO Form 427.

d. AFTO Form 781J.

77. (419) The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called

a. Energy.

b. Inertia.

c. Friction.

d. Potential.

78. (419) The ability to do work is the definition of

a. energy.

b. inertia.

c. friction.

d. velocity.

79. (419) An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of

a. Bernoulli’s Law.

b. Newton’s First Law of Motion.

c. Newton’s Second Law of Motion.

d. Newton’s Third Law of Motion.

80. (419) Which of Newton’s Laws of Motion is the best description of why an operating jet engine produces forward thrust?

a. First.

b. Second.

c. Third.

d. Fourth.

81. (420) In a jet engine, what meters the fuel for combustion?

a. Pressurizing and dump (P&D) valve.

b. Fuel nozzles.

c. Fuel control.

d. Fuel pump.

82. (420) When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,

a. 50 percent is used for accessories.

b. 60 percent is used for accessories.

c. the energy returns to the compressor.

d. the energy operates the anti-ice system

83. (420) What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?

a. Increases pressure.

b. Decreases pressure.

c. Results in pressure fluctuations.

d. Has minimum effect on pressure

84. (420) Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require

a. low velocity at all times.

b. less velocity exiting than entering.

c. equal velocity entering and exiting.

d. greater velocity exiting than entering.

85. (420) When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?

a. Diffuser.

b. Jet nozzle.

c. Combustion liner.

d. Nozzle diaphragm.

86. (421) A jet engine derives its name from the fact that

a. it is in effect a turbo-supercharger.

b. the internal engine nozzles are called jets.

c. it uses a turbine-type compressor to maintain power. d. it uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor

87. (421) What are the two types of jet engine compressors?

a. Axial-flow and radial.

b. Centrifugal and radial.

c. Axial-flow and divergent.

d. Centrifugal and axial-flow.

88. (421) After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to

a. radial and tangential forces.

b. rotational and tangential forces.

c. rotational and centrifugal forces.

d. tangential and centrifugal forces.

89. (421) What determines the N2 compressor rotations per minute (RPM) of a dual-spool jet engine compressor? a. Starter.

b. Fuel pump.

c. Fuel control.

d. Low-pressure turbine.

90. (421) What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?

a. Add thrust and decrease efficiency.

b. Add air to the engine and decrease efficiency.

c. Increase thrust and engine rotations per minute (RPM). d. Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor.

91. (422) The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

a. 60 and 70 percent.

b. 65 and 75 percent.

c. 75 and 95 percent.

d. 95 and 100 percent.

92. (422) Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by

a. splitting the electrode on the plug.

b. directing air around the plug electrode.

c. applying gold plating to the plug electrode.

d. applying ceramic coating on the plug electrode.

93. (422) What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber?

a. Interlocking stainless steel bands.

b. The inner and outer diffuser case.

c. A forged steel casing.

d. Solid sheet metal.

94. (422) Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or after engine shutdown is

a. drained overboard by a drain system.

b. returned to the fuel control by tubes.

c. burned on the next start attempt.

d. allowed to evaporate.

95. (423) The three turbine designs used in jet engines are

a. shrouded, unshrouded, and fir tree.

b. shrouded, unshrouded, and corrugated.

c. impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.

d. impeller, impulse, and reaction-impulse.

96. (423) On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place?

a. Screws.

b. Cables.

c. Lockwire.

d. Lock strips.

97. (424) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

a. fan duct.

b. jet nozzle.

c. fuel nozzle.

d. augmented duct

98. (424) What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?

a. Swirl exhaust gas-flow.

b. Equalize exhaust gas-flow.

c. Modulate exhaust gas-flow.

d. Straighten exhaust gas-flow

99. (424) One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the

a. flap.

b. segmented.

c. segmented flap.

d. segmented nozzle.

100. (424) What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?

a. Spraybar.

b. Flameholder.

c. Screech liner.

d. Fuel manifold.

101. (425) Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design?

a. Turbojet.

b. Turbofan.

c. Turboram.

d. Turboprop.

102. (425) A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as

a. low bypass.

b. low-medium bypass.

c. medium bypass.

d. medium-high bypass

103. (426) The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to

a. generate the proper fuel pressure for all ranges of engine operation.

b. prevent hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts.

c. propel the right amount of fuel to the fuel nozzles for correct combustion at all times.

d. meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times.

104. (426) What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?

a. Pneumatic.

b. Fuel injection.

c. Hydromechanical.

d. Electrohydromechanical.

105. (426) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

a. heat the fuel and cool the oil.

b. cool the fuel and cool the oil.

c. heat the fuel and heat the oil.

d. cool the fuel and heat the oil.

106. (427) When classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

a. Gear.

b. Gerotor.

c. Rotogear.

d. Sliding vane.

107. (427) What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

a. Gear.

b. Gerotor.

c. Rotogear.

d. Rotor-gear.

108. (427) A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to

a. 1/25 of an inch.

b. 1/25 of an inch.

c. 1/2,500 of an inch.

d. 1/25,000 of an inch.

109. (427) The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and

a. fuel/oil.

b. freon/oil.

c. water/oil.

d. hydraulic/oil.

110. (427) What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?

a. Wadding.

b. Packing.

c. Gasket.

d. Filler.

111. (428) What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective?

a. Center gearbox.

b. Front gearbox.

c. Compressor.

d. Turbine.

112. (428) The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines

a. is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive.

b. uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.

c. has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.

d. requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start.

113. (428) The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and

a. a power takeoff (PTO) shaft.

b. a single-entry air diverter.

c. an overrunning clutch.

d. a cartridge.

114. (428) In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter (JFS) to the engine gearbox?

a. Power takeoff (PTO) shaft.

b. Single-entry air diverter.

c. Pneumatic cartridge.

d. Overrunning clutch.

115. (428) What jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plugs?

a. Inverter.

b. Capacitor.

c. Generator.

d. Transformer

116. (428) A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of

a. vibrator, alternating current (AC)-to-DC converter, and transformer.

b. transformer, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

c. vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

d. vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.

117. (429) Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of

a. minimum rotations per minute (RPM).

b. maximum torque.

c. minimum torque.

d. maximum RPM.

118. (429) The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine’s

a. available thrust output.

b. compressor balance.

c. thermal efficiency.

d. turbine efficiency.

119. (429) Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in

a. British thermal units (BTU) per hour.

b. pounds per square inch (PSI).

c. degrees Fahrenheit.

d. degrees Celsius.

120. (430) The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and

a. recycling of used oil.

b. production of wear metals.

c. increased equipment availability.

d. increased length of time between oil changes

121. (430) Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be

a. more oil sampling.

b. more engine removals.

c. less unnecessary maintenance.

d. less wear metal found in the oil.

122. (431) At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?

a. Goggles.

b. Goggles and gloves.

c. Gloves and long sleeves.

d. Goggles and long sleeves.

123. (431) What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?

a. A decrease in carbon.

b. An increase in silicon.

c. A decrease in graphite.

d. An increase in synthetic oils.

124. (431) What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples?

a. DD Form 988.

b. DD Form 2026.

c. AFTO Form 244.

d. AFTO 781 series forms.