Term
If winds exceed 65 knots, how should an aircraft be positioned? |
|
Definition
Position the Aircraft into the wind |
|
|
Term
When entering the tail compartment, how long must the spaces be allowed to vent prior to entry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The short wire antenna and power ampliflier coaxial tube are pressurized with what?
|
|
Definition
Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) |
|
|
Term
Since wheel failure can occur with explosive force, what must be considered a special hazard? |
|
Definition
Overheating or Burning Brakes |
|
|
Term
Name the three fuselage sections of an E-6B Mercury |
|
Definition
Forward Fuselage
Center Fuselage
Aft Fuselage |
|
|
Term
How is pressure maintained in the fuselage? |
|
Definition
Seals in the fuselage
a wing-to-body pressure seal
a vapor wing-to-body seal at the wing root |
|
|
Term
Which fuselage compartments are pressurized in flight?
|
|
Definition
Main Cabin
Flight Deck
Forward Lower Lobe
Aft Lower Lobe
Lower Nose Section |
|
|
Term
What type of Aircraft is the E-6B |
|
Definition
A jet propelled, long range, high speed aircraft with a swept wing and tail. The E-6B provides a mobile, fast moving platform for the E-6B mission avionics system. |
|
|
Term
In the Wing Flap System, how many leading edge flaps are there on each wing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Wing Flap System, how many leading edge slats are there on each wing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In conjunction with the spoilers, what provides lateral control about the roll axis of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Spoilers are used for all of the following: |
|
Definition
- To assist the ailerons in providing lateral control about the roll axis
- For aircraft speed reduction
- to increase the rate of descent
- On landing, to increase braking effectiveness by transferring weight to wheels more rapidly
- For aircraft pitch trim correction in the event of stabilizer trim malfunction |
|
|
Term
What are used to spoil the airflow over the wing to decrease lift and create aerodynamic drag? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many spoilers are located on the upper surface of the wings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Wing Flap System, how many single slotted fillet flaps are on each wing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many ailerons are on the trailing edge of each wing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Wing Flap System, how many double slotted wing flaps are on each wing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False
The outboard ailerons are used along with the spoilers for high speed and low speed operation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What system provides longitudinal trim about the pitch axis? |
|
Definition
Stabilizer Trim Contol System |
|
|
Term
How is the Stabilizer Trim actuator operated? |
|
Definition
Manually
Manually-electrically
The auto-pilot system |
|
|
Term
Directional (YAW) control of the aircraft about the vertical axis is provided by which component? |
|
Definition
Rudder
Rudder Control tab
Rudder Control System |
|
|
Term
When does the Rudder Mechanical system provide directional control? |
|
Definition
If the hydraulic rudder system fails |
|
|
Term
What system is designed to provide high lift on takeoff and maximum lift and high drag on approach and landing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What provides the primary pitch control about the lateral axis of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Once extended, what is required to raise the landing gear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Supports the aircraft during landing and all ground operations? |
|
Definition
Main Landing Gear together with the Nose Landing Gear |
|
|
Term
What direction does the Main Landing Gear retract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name five of the eight major components that each Main Landing Gear consist of? |
|
Definition
Trunion
Shock Strut
Truck
Brakes
Tires and Wheels
Drag Strut
Side Strut
Actuator Walking Beam |
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
The landing gear can be manually extended by operating the emergency extension system hand crank drums |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What provides directional control for the aircraft during ground operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which direction does the nose landing gear retract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal Access to the aircraft for maintenance is through the _______________ and through the _______________on to the main deck. |
|
Definition
Forward Lower Lobe
Forward Access Hatch |
|
|
Term
Which emergency exits are equiped with excape straps that are used for emergency aircraft exit only? |
|
Definition
Pilot and Co-Pilot Sliding Windows
Over the Wing hatches
(4) |
|
|
Term
Name Six of the Ten Emergency Exits that can be used for ground evacuation form the E-6B Mercury |
|
Definition
- Forward Entry Door
- Aft Entry Door
- Bailout Door
- Forward Cargo Door
- Aft Cargo Doors
- Electronic/Battery Access Door
- Port Overwing Hatch
- Starboard Overwing Hatch
- Pilot Sliding Window
- CO-Pilot Sliding Window
|
|
|
Term
How many Emergency Exits are there that can be used for ground evacuation from the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is each main deck entry door equipped with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the exhaust danger areas with engine at takeoff thrust on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Within a 30 degree sweep of the exhaust to 500 feet behind the engine |
|
|
Term
What are the inlet danger areas with engines at takeoff thrust on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
50 feet in front of the engine inlet and 6 feet behind engine inlet |
|
|
Term
What is required near aircraft engines during start-up and operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the exhaust velocity 100 feet aft of the engine at idle on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the Dangers Areas from exhaust at engine idle on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Within a 20 degree sweep of the exhaust to 200 feet behind the engine |
|
|
Term
What are the engine inlet danger areas at idle on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
25 feet in front of the engine and 5 feet behind the engine inlet |
|
|
Term
What are the APU danger areas on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
25 feet at a 30 degree arc at the inlet and exhaust of the APU |
|
|
Term
What component of the CFM56-2A-2 engine is a "front mounted four-staged axial flow unti driven by the LPT (Low Pressure Turbine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the CFM56-2A-2 engine, what converts the core engine exhaust gas energy into mechanical energy to drive the fan? |
|
Definition
Low Pressure Turbine (LPT) |
|
|
Term
Name two examples of engine mounted sensors and transmitters installed to sense various engine operations of conditions and turn on caution lights if malfunctions exist? |
|
Definition
- Oil Pressure Transmitter
- Oil Quanity Indicator
- N1 Speed Sensor
- N2 Speed Sensor
|
|
|
Term
Which CFM56-2A-s engine module is the gas generator that provides power to drive the low-pressure system of the engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of engines are on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
CFM56-2A-2 High Bypass Ratio Turbofan |
|
|
Term
What stage of the four-stage rotor provides engine bypass air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What act as the LPC (Low Pressure Compressor) for the HPC (High Pressure Compressor) intake? |
|
Definition
Stages 1 through 4 of the rotor |
|
|
Term
The four-stage rotor in the Fan module consist of what? |
|
Definition
a 68 Inch diameter first stage fan and three smaller diameter stage fans |
|
|
Term
What are the three major components of the Fan Module? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the Accessory Drive Module mounted on the CFM-2A-2 engine? |
|
Definition
on the bottom of the Fan Frame (which is part of the Fan Module) |
|
|
Term
In addition to providing thrust for flight, what do the engines provide the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Power for hydraulic and electrical systems
Bleed Air for the environmental control system
Cross Starting |
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
In the Core Module, discharge air is compressed by the HPC (High Pressure Compressor), heated and expanded in the combustion chamber, then directed by the HPT (High Pressure Turbine) nozzles to the HPT (High Pressure Turbine). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components are retained in the Fan Frame? |
|
Definition
Front end of the HPC
Fan Rotor
Stator
Accessory Drive
The 12 VBVs. |
|
|
Term
The accessory drive module consist of what two components? |
|
Definition
Accessory Gearbox (AGB)
Transder Gearbox (TGB) |
|
|
Term
In the Accessory Drive Module, all of the following are components driven by the AGB (Accessory Gearbox) |
|
Definition
Drives the engine lubrication oil unit
Fuel Pump
N2 Control alternator
aircraft utility hydraulic system pump |
|
|
Term
What type of electrical power is used by the ignition system of each CFM-2A-2 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many ignition exciters are used for ground starting as well as in-flight start of the CFM-2A-2 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What component of the CFM-2A-2 engine is "an HPC (high pressure compressor) with variable stator vanes and 5th and 9th stage bleed air manifolds, annular combustion chamber, high pressure turbine nozzles, and HPT (high pressure turbine)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
The LPT (Low Pressure Turbine) drives the fan and booster compressor by an outter (N1) concentric shaft outside the (N2) shaft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components comprises the LPT (Low Pressure Turbine) of the CFM-2A-2 engine? |
|
Definition
Four-stage rotor and shaft, case, and frame |
|
|
Term
How many fuel tanks are there on an E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many fuel tanks are there on an E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many fuel tanks are there on an E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What provides postive pressure to vent the fuel system on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
A vent scoop at each wing tip |
|
|
Term
Which two main fuel tanks have an associated reserve tank? |
|
Definition
Main Tank # 1 and Main Tank # 4 |
|
|
Term
The E-6B Mercury is equipped with what two methods of refueling? |
|
Definition
Single point ground refueling
Air Refuleing from boom equipped tankers |
|
|
Term
How is fuel transferred from the reserve tanks to the outboard main tanks on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is installed in each main tank and center tank to provide positive fuel pressure to the engine driven fuel pumps? |
|
Definition
Two Boost pumps are installed in each main tank and center tank |
|
|
Term
On the CFM56-2A-2 engine, the Bleed Air System consist of all the following components |
|
Definition
Engine Bleed Air
APU Bleed Air
Ground Air Cart
Ducting Distribution
Bleed Air Leak Detectors |
|
|
Term
What supplies compressed air from the engines, the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit), system and the engine start system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is gravity fed by which fuel tank? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a self contained electrical and pneumatic power source for ground operations on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) |
|
|
Term
The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) proves pneumatic power for what two purposes? |
|
Definition
Air Conditioning
Engine Starting |
|
|
Term
What does the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) provide shaft power for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) installed in the
E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Lower Aft fuselage section |
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
External electrical or aircraft battery power is normally used to operate the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) start system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name four of the principal pressure points |
|
Definition
- Superficial Temporal Artery
- Facial Artery
- Common Carotid Artery
- Subclavian Artery
- Brachial Artery
- Radial/Ulnar Artery
- Femoral Artery
- Iliac Artery
- Popliteal Artery
- Anterior/Posterior Tibial Artery
|
|
|
Term
If hydraulic fluid is decomposed by heat, what is released? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
3000 psi of hydraulic fluid pressure is enough to penetrate the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of hazard is created by disconnecting pressurized hyraulic lines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
To prevent damage to No. 1 or No. 2 auxiliary hydraulic pumps, verify primary reservior is properly serviced. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What safety equipment shall be worn by personel servicing a hydraulic acculator? |
|
Definition
Safety Glasses or Face Shield |
|
|
Term
How many personnel shall be present when servicing a hydraulic accumulator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are hydraulic accumulators precharged with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
Hydraulic fluid is not considered hazardous material |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the five basic hydraulic components? |
|
Definition
Hydraulic Reservoir, Hydraulic Pump, Check Valves, Hydraulic Lines, Actuator |
|
|
Term
The E-6B Mercury Utility Hydraulic System has how many variable displacement engine driven hydraulic pumps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the hydraulic utility system powered? |
|
Definition
Two variable displacement engine driven hydraulic pumps |
|
|
Term
At a take off RPM, what is each engine driven hydraulic pump capable of delivering? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At cruise RPM, what is each engine driven hydraulic pump capable of delivering? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the auxiliary hydraulic system powered? |
|
Definition
Two electrically driven hydraulic pumps |
|
|
Term
Name four of the eight systems supplied by the Utility Hydraulic System. |
|
Definition
Air Refueling Receiver System(Alternate), Landing Gear, Brakes, Leading Edge Flaps, Trailing Edge Flaps, Outboard Spoilers, Nose Gear Steering, Thrust Reversers. |
|
|
Term
Name the four systems supplied by the Auxiliary Power System. |
|
Definition
Air Refueling Receiver System (Primary), Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Start System, Inboard Spoiler System, Rudder Power Control System |
|
|
Term
The E-6B Mercury hydraulic system delivers hydraulic fluid from what type of reservior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What directs the flow of hydraulic fluid under pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name two fo the four types of hydraulic system valves on the E-6B Mercury
|
|
Definition
Brake Interconnect Valve, System Interconnect Valve, Priority Valves, Check Valves |
|
|
Term
What is the capacity of the hydraulic Utility System reservoir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
The two Auxiliary System hydraulic fluid reservoir are interconnected and are also connected to the Utility System Hydraulic fluid reservoir. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are the Auxiliary System hydraulic fluid reservoir located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Auxiliary system hydraulic fluid is delivered from two reservoirs of what sizes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The E-6B Mercury has how many 1.25 gallon hydraulic fluid reservoirs in the hydraulic Auxiliary System? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
Hydraulic accumalators act as a surge dampener and store hydraulic/pneumatic pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is a hydraulic accumalator used as a surge dampener? |
|
Definition
Fluctuations in hydraulic fluid pressure and flow are leveled out |
|
|
Term
How many types of hydraulic accumalators are on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name Three of the five hydraulic accumalators on the E-6B Mercury.
|
|
Definition
Auxiliary Accumalators, Brake Accumalators, APU Start Accumalators, Aerial Refueling Accumalators, Thrust Reverser Accumalators. |
|
|
Term
How many functions do hydraulic accumalators serve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum hydraulic fluid contamination level? |
|
Definition
Navy Class 3 for support equipment, Navy Class 5 for all Naval Aircraft |
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
Ground service connections are provided for pressurizing the auxiliary and utliity systems from a hydraulic test stand only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a force which causes current to flow through an electrical conductor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a circuit that consists of both series and parallel networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an arrangement where electrical devices are connected so that the total current must flow through all the devices , electrons have one path to travel, from the negative terminal to the positive terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What law states: The current in an electric circuit is directly porportional to the electromotive force in the circuit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an electric current that flows in both directions> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The complete path of an electric current is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the elementary negative charge that revolves around the nucleus of an atom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term is used to signify electrical pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a device to connect, disconnect, or change the connections in an electrical circuit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the property of a conductor which determines the amount of current that will flow as the results of the application of a given electromotive force? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a unit of electrical resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of current flows in one direction only? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which integrated Drive Generators (IDG) provide power to the mission equipment synchronoius bus |
|
Definition
IDG 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
IDG 2, 4, 6, 8 is okay also |
|
|
Term
How many integrated Drive Generators (IDG) are there on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Generator Power System is connected to the Air Vehicle Synchronoius Bus (AVE Sync Bus) Through which component? |
|
Definition
Auxiliary Power Contactor (APC) |
|
|
Term
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Generator Power Systems is connected to which Synchronous Bus through the Auxiliary Power Contactor (APC)? |
|
Definition
Air Vehicle Equipment Synchronous Bus (AVE Sync Bus) |
|
|
Term
How many KVA is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Generator on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum electrical power required to perform normal ground operations? |
|
Definition
120/208 volt, three-phase, 400 Hz |
|
|
Term
What is the minimum electrical power required to perform normal ground operations? |
|
Definition
120/208 volt, three-phase, 400 Hz |
|
|
Term
How many integrated drive generators (IDG) are mounted on each E-6B Mercury engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which integrated drive generators (IDG) provide power to the Air Vehicle Equipment Synchronous Bus (AVE Sync Bus)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the power output of the integrated drive generator (IDG)? |
|
Definition
Three-Phase, 115 Volt, 400 Hz |
|
|
Term
How many Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRUs) are located on the E-5 rack in the DC Distribution system on board the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
External Power Receptacles installed on the left side of the fuselage forward of the wing |
|
|
Term
In the 28 VAC Power system, the single-phase 115 VAC to 28 VAC transformers are powered by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the 28 VAC power system, how many single-phase transformers are there that reduce 115 VAC to the required 28 VAC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 28 volt AC buses supply power to. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) are located on the E-16 equipment rack providing power tot he P-67 circuit breaker panel Mission DC buses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym TRU stand for? |
|
Definition
Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym ELCU stand for? |
|
Definition
Electrical Load Control Unit |
|
|
Term
Name the two main electrical distribution systems on board the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
AC Distribution System, DC Distribution System |
|
|
Term
When are the External Power Receptacles EP2A and EP2B used |
|
Definition
During high power performance checks |
|
|
Term
How many total External Power Receptacles are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are External Power Receptacles EP2A and EP2B located? |
|
Definition
Forward end of the E-16 rack |
|
|
Term
What happens if the current flowing through a circuit breaker exceeds the circuit breaker's current rating? |
|
Definition
The circuit breaker should automatically trip |
|
|
Term
What is the complete path of an electric current is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Due to fire hazards, how many times may a circuit breaker be reset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym GCU stand for? |
|
Definition
Generator Control Unit (GCU) |
|
|
Term
What are the three sources of power for the Bus Power Control Unit (BCPU)? |
|
Definition
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU), External Power, Aircraft Generators |
|
|
Term
Which component's function is to control and protect the synchronous bus? |
|
Definition
Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU) |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym FLCU stand for? |
|
Definition
Frequency and Load Control Unit (FLCU) |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym BPCU stand for? |
|
Definition
Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU) |
|
|
Term
How many frequency and load control units (FLCU)are there on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which components provides precise frequency control, which is fed to all eight main generatro frequency and load control units? |
|
Definition
Frequency Reference Auto-Paralleling Unit |
|
|
Term
What component provides speed trim signals for controlling real load in each generator channel |
|
Definition
Frequency and Load Control Unit (FLCU) |
|
|
Term
What component provides Automatic voltage regulation, Reactive load division, Fault current limiting and power limiting, Fault protection, bus tie breaker, generator circuit breaker, and generator control relay control? |
|
Definition
Generator Control Unit (GCU) |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym FRAPU stand for? |
|
Definition
Frequency Reference Auto-Paralleling Unit (FRAPU) |
|
|
Term
What are the three pilot static systems for on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
Pilot Station Instruments, Co-pilot Station Instruments, Auxiliary System Instruments |
|
|
Term
What subsystems provides heating circuits on all flight deck windows? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the Fire Detection push to test switch located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
Should the loop be broken, in the wheel well fire detection system, the system retains full capability to detect a fire and the break will be discovered. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a single loop system that is activated whenever the control unit detects a decrease in resistance to ground of the sensing element loop due to a overheat condition? |
|
Definition
Wheel Well Fire Detection System |
|
|
Term
The Anti-Skid brake system is _____________controlled and provides varying braking pressure according to tire adhesion on the runway after brake pressure is applied. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many separate pitot static systems are there on the E-6B Mercury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What system consist of pitot proves and static ports, connected by tubing to flight instruments and equipment for measuring or indicating dynamic (impact) and ambient (static) air pressures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which electrical sub-system si commonly known as Auto Pilot? |
|
Definition
Flight Guidance System(FGS) |
|
|
Term
What electrical subsystem provides maximum braking efficiency by continously bodulating applied brake pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What provides nominal 24 VDC power to meet emergency DC and AC (inverter) load requirement for a two hour emergency period? |
|
Definition
Main Aircraft battery set (M686 and M689 is an acceptable answer) |
|
|
Term
What is a condition in which the current for a fully charged nickel-cadium battery rises out of proportion tot he impressed voltage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which batteries are the E-6B Mercury main aircraft battery set? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the four batteries located in the E-6B Mercury Forward lower compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many batteries are located in the E-6B Mercury forward lower compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which batteries are the Emergency Lighting Battery set that provide power for the emergency lighting system> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term is applied to those components of the E-6B Mercury aircraft and mission system whose sensitivity to nuclear weapon environments can affect system nuclear survivability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must be taken in all maintenance operations to retain nuclear hardness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
EMP protection built into the E-6B Mercury ensures all mission essential equipment has at least what level safety margin to EMP induced upset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The E-6B Mercury EMP hardening is at how many levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first level of EMP hardening on the E-6B Mercury aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
What is the second level of EMP hardening on the E-6B Mercury aircraft? |
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Definition
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