Term
A ___ is an operating procedure, technique, etc, which can result in personal injury or loss of life in not carefully followed |
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Definition
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Term
A ___ is an operating procedure, technique, etc., which can result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed. |
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Definition
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Term
A ____ is an operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize. |
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Definition
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Term
____ is Used to express that the requirements are binding and mandatory |
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Definition
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Term
____ is used to express a non-mandatory desire or preferred method of accomplishment and shall be construed as a non-mandatory provision. |
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Definition
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Term
____ is used to express an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment and shall be construed as a non-mandatory provision. Not used to express possibility (might). |
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Definition
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Term
Who is the back up for the MCC during emergency duties? |
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Definition
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Term
What consoles does the bottle team consist of? |
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Definition
OWS 6 and 8 (AWO/SMO and AOT) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Who is the fwd runner and takes care of the life raft? |
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Definition
OWS 11 AI (OWS 16 CST Liferaft only) |
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Term
What consoles does the firefighter team consist of? |
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Definition
OWS 12 and 17, AMSS and CST |
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Term
What console is responsible for the surv equip? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the warning associated with the lavatory? |
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Definition
If potable water is not serviced, the water heaters will not be turned on. (1-424) |
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Term
Cautions concerning the lavatory 1. +Caution: When water tank is empty, the water heater switch must be in the ____ position to prevent damage to water heater. (1-424). 2. +Caution: The rectifier has limited output. Do not attempt to operate any electrical equipment except ____ from this outlet. (1-424) |
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Definition
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Term
What are the lavs equipped with? |
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Definition
A warning lighting panel and O2 regulator and yellow passenger mask |
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Term
What safety equipment can be found in the aft storage cabinet? |
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Definition
(E,S,F,F,O) ELT, Surv kits (2), First aid kit (8), fire extinguishers (11), o2 re-filler port (15) |
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Term
What is the note associated with a first aid kit? |
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Definition
Kit must be removed from the airplane, inspected by medical personnel, and resealed if the seal is broken (1-589) |
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Term
Five warnings associated with the fire extinguisher (H,E,V,L,L) 1. +Warning: Portable fire extinguishers are charged with __________. Halon 1211 in non-toxic; however, agent can form toxic by-products when ___________. When decomposing, Halon 1211 has a ________ odor. Crew members using extinguishers shall use _______. (1-457, 3-16)
+Warning: Water normally should not be used on electrical fires because of (two reasons). If it should be absolutely necessary to use water on a fire of electrical origin, first _________as much as practicable. (1-457)
+Warning: ______ area thoroughly during and after use of a fire extinguisher. Do not attempt any other cleanup after a fire since Halon 1211 by-products ________. (1-457, 3-16)
+Warning: If an extinguisher leaks, __________ to catch any liquid discharge. Then press trigger to release both pressurized gas and minimal amount of extinguisher agent. (1-457)
+Warning: If not fighting fire, ___________ to prevent stream discharge from extinguisher from splashing into eyes. (1-457, 3-15) |
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Definition
1. Halon 1211, exposed to fire or high temperatures, sharp acrid, smoke mask 2. danger of electric shock and the possibility of causing further electrical damage, deenergize the affected circuits. 3. Ventilate, corrode when exposed to moisture 4. turn it upside down, cover the nozzle with a cloth (or aim it into a can) 5. do not look toward extinguisher or fire |
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Term
What is the note concerning the fire extinguishers? |
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Definition
There are little or no cooling effects when extinguisher agent evaporates. The main purpose is to smother the fire by keeping oxygen away from burning material. Do not use the extinguisher on smoking electrical equipment unless flames are actually visible. (1-458) |
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Term
Where is the aft door escape strap located? |
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Definition
right hand side of the door rather than in the door well |
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Term
Warnings associated with the doors (S,O,1/4,C,S,D) 1. +Warning: Use the door warning straps to prevent _______. (1-408)
2. +Warning: Areas around entry door shall be kept clear of obstructions during _______. (1-408, 1-448, 3-6, 3-21)
3 +Warning: To avoid possible injury to personnel when airplane is pressurized or if a negative pressure differential exists do to operation of forced air system, turn door handle __turn to ____ position, check that no air is flowing through the _____of the door opening, then complete the door opening sequence. (1-408)
4+Warning: When opening entry door after an emergency landing or ditching, stop when door handle is in ______ position and check for possible entry of ______. If it enters airplane at top or bottom of door, return handle to _____position and use another exit if possible. (1-408, 1-448, 3-6, 3-21)
5+Warning: To avoid (two things), do not place or store anything under the door seals of the entry doors. (1-408, 3-21) 6+Warning: If evacuating after aborted takeoff or heavy-weight landing, departing directly forward or aft of airplane to avoid ____ if _____. (3-5) |
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Definition
1. personnel from falling from an open door. 2. ground operations, takeoffs and landings. 3. ¼, vertical, top. 4. vertical, fire, smoke, or water/locked 5. possible injury to ground personnel and possible jammed emergency exits 6. possible tire/wheel burst area/ fuse plugs do not melt |
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Term
What is the caution associated with the door? |
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Definition
Doors can be closed with handle in locked position, but does not latch because roller locks are in the way. Handle shall be in unlocked position to close and latch door. (1-408, 412) |
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Term
What are the six warnings associated with the slides? (D,I,R,C2,J) 1 +Warning: To avoid possible injury to personnel on boarding stands, ensure escape slides are _____ . (1-408)
2+Warning: Do not inflate the escape slides______. What two things would it cause?. (1-448, 1-450, 3-12)
3+Warning: Slide is not usable unless ________ . (1-448)
4+Warning: When jumping into a slide, jump far enough to clear the ______. Serious injury could be caused by hitting it. (1-448, 3-6)
5+Warning: When using the escape slide, clear the area at bottom of slide as quickly as possible to avoid ______. (3-6, 3-21)
+Warning: Do not attempt to inflate slide by pulling on ______. Slide inflation requires a hard, rapid jerk on _____ sufficient to pull both _________completely free of slide package. (1-450, 3-12) |
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Definition
1. disconnected from floor before opening entry doors 2. Inside the airplane; cause injury to crewmembers and damage to the slides 3. restraining bar passes through both loops on slide and loop on restraining strap 4. door sill 5. being injured by personnel following 6. exposed cable/red handle/red handle and attached cable assembly |
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Term
What is the note associated with the slide? |
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Definition
: The slide hook shall be connected to the floor fitting before engines are started and remain until the airplane is parked and engineer has cleared for slide hooks to be disconnected. (1-448) |
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Term
How many snips panels are there? In regards to emergencies, what is significant about the snips panels? |
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Definition
17 throughout plane/ Primary method for FE to stay in contact with ART, CSTs, MCC and firefighters |
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Term
What is the note concerning the snips? |
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Definition
If ICS power is remoced, comm over mission interphone is disabled. Firefighters will connect to snips outlets to maintain comm with engineer |
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Term
Why does data rack 16 have to be monitored? |
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Definition
Only unit that does not have an a/c unit, so it needs to be monitored to prevent overheating |
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Term
What can be found in the bailout cabinet? |
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Definition
Half of the lpus and anti-exposure suits/ restraint harness |
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Term
What is the warning associated with opening the overwing hatch in flight? |
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Definition
Crewmember opening or closing overwing hatch in flight shall wear restraint harness. Secure harness by safety lanyard to base of mission crew seat (3-17) |
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Term
What can be found in the SDS rack 2? |
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Definition
• SATCOM Radios (3): On the 3rd shelf are the UHF SATCOM RCUs. • CTT H/Rs (Commander’s Tactical Terminal Hybrid/Receiver): On the bottom shelf. Each has 2 channels and they receive TRAP, TADIXS-B, TIBS, and TRIXS and send the data to the Sun 4500 for BI. Receive only so no minimum transmission distance. |
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Term
What can be found in the SDS rack 4? |
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Definition
• Bay Disk Drive (9): On the top shelf. It holds the classified drive in spot 5 and the spare with all the BI software. • CTT H/R Receive Filters (4): Below the BDD, 2 per HTT, one for each channel to filter the BI feed. • Sun 4500 Server: On the bottom, provides the capability to receive, store, correlate, and display BI data. SPF – contains the application software (MSIS) used to correlate tactical data and forwards it to the CC. |
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Term
What are the two warnings concerning SATCOM? |
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Definition
+Warning: Do not transmit on the UHF SATCOM on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of 19 feet from radiating antenna, 10 feet from fueling and or defueling operations, and 20 feet from electro-explosive devices. (2-36, 2-69, 5-6)
+Warning: Do not transmit on the SATCOM L-Band transceiver on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of 4 feet from radiating antenna. Maintain an 8 foot clearance from any equipment being fueled or defueled, and ungrounded electro-explosive devices. (1-394, 2-36, 2-69, 5-6) |
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Term
T/F, the escape slide located nexte to the aft door must be deployed manually? |
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Definition
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Term
Emergency Hatches/Door (card 1 of 3) 1+Warning: Do not pull escape slide handle until (two things), or slide will _____. (1-448, 3-6)
2 +Warning: To avoid injury, do not exit through overwing or emergency exit hatches or aft doors until ______. (1-448, 3-6, 3-21)
3+Warning: Personnel in mission area crew seat Nos. ______shall ensure seats are positioned ________ for all takeoffs to allow emergency exit access to overwing hatches. (1-412, 1-448, 3-6, 3-21) |
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Definition
1.door is open and slide is clear of door pack / inflate inside the aircraft 2. engines have been shut down 3. 3, 4, 5, 6, 11, 13, 16, and 17 (in the aisle by the overwing hatches) /full forward (toward the console) |
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Term
Emergency Hatches/Door (card 2 of 3) 4 +Warning: If (two conditions), use extreme care if evacuating by overwing exits. Injury could result when jumping from flap to ground. (1-448, 3-6, 3-21)
5. +Warning: Do not attempt to open or close overwing or aft emergency escape hatches in flight with _______. (3-7, 3-17)
6. +Warning: Do not hold inner handle while door is falling outward.). What may happen if you do? (3-8) |
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Definition
4. flaps are not down (40o or 50 o position) and landing gear is extended 5. flight deck window open 6. Personnel may be pulled out of aircraft as door is falling and severe cuts may occur to hand(s |
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Term
Emergency Hatches/Door (card 3 of 3) 7+Warning: Removal of emergency exit hatch in preparation for possible crash landing or ditching is not recommended. What two reasons are given? What benefits will keeping the hatch closed give the crew?(3-7, 3-21)
8+Warning: Where is the APU exhaust located? In regards to the APU exhaust, why must caution be used when exiting through the hatch?(3-8)
9+Warning: After entering/exiting lower compartment, close hatch to avoid injury to personnel. If the hatch remains open, what step must one take? (1-412, 2-10, 2-21, 2-33) |
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Definition
7. In-flight removal is accompanied by a certain amount of hazard to the crew member and open hatches subject occupants to fumes, debris, and airflow approaching aircraft speed in velocity. Studies indicate that structural shock great enough to jam hatches closed on impact will provide a fuselage break for egress. Closed hatches increase the protection afforded occupants from fire, fuel, or water inflow. Selected opening of hatches after impact provides safe egress passage and prevents flooding if the fuselage does not float evenly after ditching. 8. Directly below and forward of the right aft escape hatch is the APU exhaust. Extreme Caution must be exercised while exiting through hatch due to possible severe burns while exiting. 9. a person is required to be positioned at the hatch to ensure other personnel do not inadvertently step into the open hatch. |
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Term
What are the two cautions associated with the emergency hatches/doors? |
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Definition
+Caution: Overwing or aft emergency escape hatches should not be removed in flight. For smoke or fumes evacuation, tilt hatch in about 1 foot. (3-7)
+Caution: Do not attempt to reinstall overwing or aft emergency escape hatch in flight (3-7) |
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Term
What can be found on data rack 5? |
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Definition
• JTIDS (2) – 2nd and 3rd shelves • SCDL (Surveillance and Control Data link) Receiver Transmitter RT – SPF, Loss equals no transmission of data to GSM via SCDL. Bottom Shelf • SCDL Signal Data Processor – SPF, Loss equals no data interface with surveillance radar. 4th shelf • SCDL Crypto Unit KGV-8A – SPF, Loss equals no Crypto for SCDL system. Attached to the Signal Data Processor |
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Term
What are the two warnings associated with Data rack 5? |
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Definition
+Warning: Do not transmit on the SCDL on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of 15-feet from radiating antenna. Maintain a 30-foot clearance from radiating antenna to any equipment being fueled or defueled and to ungrounded electro-explosive devices. (2-36, 2-69, 5-6)
+Warning: Do not transmit on JTIDS on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of 3 feet from radiating antenna. Maintain a 6-foot clearance from radiating antenna to any equipment being fueled or defueled and to ungrounded electro-explosive devices. (2-36, 2-69, 5-6) |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 2? |
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Definition
• PRINTER • SCDL RF AMPLIFIER • INMARSAT/BLOS – most components are SPF items. |
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Term
What can be found in the aft lower lobe? |
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Definition
• Firefighter’s Panel: Crash axe, gloves, mask, first aid kit, fire extinguisher, portable O2 bottle • SNIPS • LOX (Liquid Oxygen): Sets system oxygen pressure/level • APU (Alternate Power Unit): Powers the aircraft when the engines aren’t running. • 60 Hz Converters (4): for use with MSIS/BI |
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Term
What are the two warnings associated with the aft lower lobe? |
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Definition
Warning: APU shall not be operated until emergency exit hatches are closed. Failure to close hatch prior to APU operation may result in damage to hatch or APU.
+Warning: High-noise levels in lower compartment during flight could prevent hearing emergency signals and could cause personnel hearing damage. All personnel entering lower compartments in flight shall wear headsets. At least one person per lower compartment shall maintain interphone communication with flight or mission crew. (2-15, 3-18, 3-19) |
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Term
What can be found in the SDS rack 1? |
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Definition
• COLOR PRINTER • CENTRIX wireless hub for Centrix enabled jets. |
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Term
What can be found in the SDS rack 3? |
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Definition
• PCIDM laptops (2): Personal Computer Improved Data Modem for real time targeting data. • FBCB2 (1): Force XXI Battlefield Command Brigade and below, “Blue Force Tracker”, Remote screen and keyboard located at OWS 3 and 9. SPF – Inputs the message from the transceiver and converts them to Joint Variable Message Format which is used to drive the FBCB2 application. |
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Term
What is the note associated with the sds rack 3? |
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Definition
Note: (PCIDM) Laptop 1 on the upper drawer serves VHF 4 and UHF 10, and Laptop 2 on the lower drawer serves VHF 3 and UHF 12. |
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Term
What can be found in the comm rack 1? |
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Definition
• VHF ARC-186 (3) • HF ARC-190 (2) • VHF 201D SINCGARS (1): SPF, Most VHF SINCGARS components are SPF items. If any of them were to fail SINCGARS operations would be lost. |
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Term
Four warnings associated with comm rack 1? 1. Warning: Do not transmit on the VHF radios on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of __ feet from radiating antenna. Maintain an ___-foot clearance from radiating antenna to any equipment being fueled or defueled and to ungrounded electro-explosive devices. (1-311, 2-36, 2-69, 5-6)
2+Warning: Do not transmit on the (SINCGARS) AN/ARC-201D VHF radio on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of ___feet from the radiating antenna. Maintain a __ foot clearance from radiating antenna to any equipment being fueled or de-fueled and to underground electro-explosive devices. (1-316, 2-36, 2-69, 5-6)
3+Warning: Do not transmit on HF radio on the ground if (two situations). Why? Do not transmit on HF radio on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of ____ from all aircraft surfaces. Maintain a 30-foot clearance from the aircraft to any equipment being fueled or defueled and to ungrounded electro-explosive devices. (1-321, 2-36, 2-69, 5-6)
4+Warning: Why can't you transmit on HF radios during in-flight ir? (1-321, 5-6) |
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Definition
1. 4/8 2. 12/ 24 3. ground personnel can touch airplane exterior or are using headsets connected to the airplane/ Transmission could cause shock to personnel/ 15 feet 4. Do not transmit on HF radios during in-flight refueling due to arching at the antenna/lightning arrestor connector |
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Term
To deploy the life raft, coordinate with the person in OWS __, to hand the uninflated life raft to after you setp outside the aircraft and deploy your LPU |
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Definition
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Term
What is the warning associated with deploying the life raft? |
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Definition
+Warning: If possible, launch rafts over leading edge of wing to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact vortex generators. (1-457) |
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Term
What can be found in the emergency equipment panel? |
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Definition
• Crash Axe • Fire Gloves • Fire Fighter Mask • First Aid Kit • Fire Extinguisher • Portable O2 Bottles (2) |
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Term
What is the warning concerning fire fighters? |
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Definition
+Warning: The smoke (firefighters) mask cannot be fitted over eyeglasses and seal properly; however, it can still be used to fight fires. Personnel with eyeglasses will attempt to obtain best possible seal. (3-15 |
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Term
Notes concerning the firefighters 1+Note: When can water be used to extinguish a fire? What extra step must be take?(3-15)
2 +Note: How do firefighters obtain a proper fit with the smoke mask? (1-458)
3 +Note: Can the smoke mask be fitted over eyeglasses? What is the stipulation to this situation? (1-458)
4 +Note: Firefighters’ oxygen mask (smoke mask) is not intended for use above______ altitude. (1-458) |
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Definition
1. Water can be used to extinguish a fire if it is a trash bag. If water is used, a smoke mask may not be required. 2. Firefighters should adjust the head straps to obtain proper fit with smoke mask. 3. The smoke mask cannot be fitted over eyeglasses and seal properly; however, it can still be used to fight fires. Obtain best possible seal with eyeglasses. 4. 40,000 feet cabin (pressure) |
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Term
Notes concerning the firefighters 5+Note: Unless depressurization is required for extinguishing fire or controlling smoke source, use of (two things) eliminates smoke more rapidly than ram air flow. It takes ____minutes for a complete change in cabin air. Raising cabin altitude expedites smoke removal. (3-15)
6+Note: Who will all fire fighters maintain communications with? (3-15)
7+Note: If the source of smoke or fumes is in the air conditioning system what will happen more quickly? (3-15)
8+Note: All fires will be fought by a minimum of ____ firefighters. (3-15)
9+Note: What step must you take once the source of the fire has been identifed?(3-15) |
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Definition
5. normal pressurization and air conditioning, 5 to 6 minutes 6. All firefighters will maintain communications with engineer. 7. If source of smoke or fumes is in air conditioning system, odor and smoke will spread rapidly to all parts of the airplane interior and not be confined to a local area. 8. 2 9. Remove all power from affected equipment immediately when source of fire is identified. |
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Term
10+Note: When fighting a fire, when can mission equipment be restored? (3-15)
11 +Note: After checking their equipment, firefighters will help isolate electrical systems or open cabinets as directed by flight crew if source of smoke cannot be located. What checklist is required for this procedure? firefighters will act under the direction of the _____. Results will be reported to _____. (3-15)
12+Note: In the event of fire originating at one of the OWS consoles located in mission compartment, where do you direct the nozzle? (3-17) |
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Definition
10 No mission system will be restored until fire or smoke source is identified and eliminated and a determination is made that the affected equipment is deemed safe for mission operation. 11. A checklist is not required for this procedure; flight crew; flight crew 12. direct nozzle of portable fire extinguisher into top and two side vents of the OWS to extinguish any residual fire. |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 10? |
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Definition
· DATA RACK 10: PME Control Panel, DFS MSD, ICAN Hub, CC 1 |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 11? |
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Definition
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Term
What can be found in data rack 12? |
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Definition
Serial data switch, blade server ELMM, CC2 |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 13? |
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Definition
Lan Bridge, Serial Data Hub, RAID MSD 1, RASP 1 |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 14? |
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Definition
AIRNET Router, Accelerator, Lan switch, RAID MSD 2, RASP 2 |
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Term
What can be found in data rack 15? |
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Definition
FDDI Patch Panel, AirNet KVM, KVM switch Terminal server, Firewall encryptor, AlphaStation 600 |
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Term
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Definition
Interim Capability for Airborne Newtorking- SPF, Most ICAN components are SPF items. If any of them were to fail, operations would be lost |
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Term
What is a CC? How are they configured? What do they do? How many would lead to loss of mission? |
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Definition
Central Computer/ There are two (one primary, other spare), CC's monitor and control the surveillance, comm, and nav equipment. A loss of both CC's would cause loss of mission |
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Term
What is a CCVME? What does it do? How many CCVME's are there? |
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Definition
Central Computer Versa Module Europe, provides discrete interface for the digital input/output signals for the central computers. Each CC has an associated CCVME |
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Term
What is a CCMSD? What does it consist of? What do the RMMs do? How many would have to fail for loss of mission? |
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Definition
Central Computer Mass Storage Device,/ Disk drive consisting of 9 RMM (removable memory media), RMMs receive, store, and transmit data to and from the computers over an interface. All 3 CCMSDs would have to fail for a loss of mission |
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Term
What is a lan bridge? What happens if the lan bridge fails? |
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Definition
Works with the Lan Hub (Data rack 16)/ If it fails, BI and Screen capture would be unavailable |
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Term
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Definition
Redundant Array of Independent Discs, stores memory for the RASPs |
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Term
What is a RASP? What can you do with one rasp? Two? |
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Definition
Radar Airborne Signal Processor, Turns data into dots. Receives video data from the receiver analog/ digital converter and performs various mathematical operations on the data to detect MTI or create images (FTI or SAR). One Rasp is needed for msn execution, need two for ESAR capability |
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Term
What does the SATCOM Processor Alpha 600- SPF do? |
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Definition
Used to format connectivity SCDL over SATCOM data |
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Term
What can be found in Comm rack 2? |
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Definition
KY-58 1-3, SNIP J-Box, GIT 1-3, UHF Radios 1-3, GIT 7, FAF 1-3 |
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Term
What can be found in Comm rack 3? |
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Definition
KY-58 10-12, Stand Alone AMP 1, GIT 4-6, UHF Radios 10-12, RFO, FAF 10-12 |
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Term
What can be found in Comm rack 4? |
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Definition
: KY-58 4-6, Stand Alone AMP 2, RGC, UHF Radios 4-6, FAF 4-6 |
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Term
What can be found in Comm rack 5? |
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Definition
: KY-58 7-9, CBISU 1-2, UHF Radios 7-9, DBI 1-2, FAF 7-9 |
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Term
How many UHF AN/ARC radios are there? What is the freq range? |
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Definition
12, 225.000-399.975 MHz (must have 4 MHz separation, 20 channel capacity, 1 guard receiver |
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Term
How many KY-58s are there? What do they do? |
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Definition
12, encryption unit for UHF, VHF, and SATCOM radios |
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Term
How many GITs are there? What do they do? |
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Definition
7, General interface terminal, provides the interface for HF, UHF, VHF secure voice units, PA system, maintenance network, and other audio sources |
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Term
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Definition
Comm Bus Subsystem Interface Unit |
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Term
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Definition
Digital Audio Buss interface |
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Term
What is a RFO? What happens if its damaged? What does it do? |
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Definition
Radio Frequency Oscillator, SPF, Havequick AJ mode timing reference. If damaged the RCG takes over timing for 4 hours after which manual updates are required. Highly accurate timing and controls for Havequick |
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Term
What does the GPS antenna do? Where is is located? |
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Definition
SPF, Converts RF signals for surveillance radar. Loss of GPS precision locator for surveillance radar. Located in the ceiling above the comm racks |
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Term
What is the warning concerning UHF radios on the ground? |
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Definition
+Warning: Do not transmit on the UHF radios on the ground unless personnel are a minimum of 4 feet from radiating antenna. Maintain an 8-foot clearance from radiating antenna to any equipment being fueled or defueled and to ungrounded electro- explosive devices. (1-297, 2-36, 2-69, 5-6) |
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Term
What is the note concerning the GIT? |
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Definition
Note: Removing power from GITs NO.1, 2, 3, 4 or 7 will cause the loss of flight deck radios and must be coordinated. (3-21) |
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Term
What can be found in the NOWS? |
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Definition
• FSU (Flight Station Units) • NAIP (Navigational Instrument Panel) • TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) which doubles as a color WX radar • FMS-800 • EMCON controls: kills any emissions form the radar |
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Term
Warnings associated with the crew rest area 1. How will the table be configured during takeoff and landing? 2. Crew rest seats around crew rest table shall not be occupied during takeoff and landing unless _____. 3. For crash landings or ditching, how will personnel in forward facing crew rest seats position themselves? 4. For crash landing or ditching, how will people in the aft facing crew seats position themselves? 5. During takeoff, landing, and inflight refueling, how many crewmembers in the crew rest area shall be on the headset? 6. Do the masks in the crew service deploy automatically? How will the O2 system be configured? |
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Definition
1. Warning: The table shall be folded down and stowed during takeoff and landing. (1-416)
2. Warning: Crew rest seats around crew rest table shall not be occupied during takeoff and landing unless table is folded down and properly locked in place.
3. Warning: For crash landing or ditching, personnel in forward facing crew rest seats take a bracing position with seat belt fastened, head down, feet flat on the floor, and arms clasped under knees. (1-415)
4+Warning: For crash landing or ditching, personnel in aft facing crew rest seats take a bracing position with seat belt fastened, back against back rest, feet flat on floor, and arms braced against knees. (1-415)
5+Warning: During takeoff, landing, and inflight refueling, at least one crewmember in the crew rest area shall be on the headset. Failure to wear headset may result in personnel not receiving an instruction to go on oxygen, or fasten a seat belt. The LOSS OF PRESSURE sign and the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign cannot be seen by all crewmembers from the crew rest seats, therefore notification on the headset may be necessary. (1-415)
6+Warning: The masks in the crew service units do not deploy automatically. To use mask, pull down cloth covering allowing mask to fall free, don mask, and set PRESSURE DEMAND regulator to NORMAL, 100% OXYGEN, and ON. (1-415) |
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Term
What is the note concerning the crew rest area? |
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Definition
Note: If aircraft has optional crew rest seats (instead of bunks), one (1) bottle will be relocated under the aft, aisle seat. (1-440) |
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Term
What are the four warnings associated with the bunks? |
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Definition
+Warning: Bunks shall not be occupied during takeoff, landing, or refueling. (1-416)
+Warning: Bunks shall not be used for cargo tie down. (1-416)
+Warning: Do not operate reading lights (crew bunks) if fuel vapor is present. (1-416, 1-429)
+Warning: Bunk oxygen masks do not deploy automatically. Remove the plastic cover, don mask, and set PRESSURE DEMAND regulator to NORMAL, 100% OXYGEN, and ON. (1-416, 1-417) |
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Term
What can be found in the forward lower lobe? |
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Definition
• Firefighters Panel: Crash axe, gloves, mask, first aid kit, fire extinguisher (2), portable O2 bottle (3) • SNIPS • Transmitters (5) • Receiver A/D (2): Analog to digital converters • 2 SNIPS • 2 GPS + 2 INUs • Emergency Exit |
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Term
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Definition
Radar control unit-SPF, Provides control of the radar subsystem and interfaces with the CC (central computer) |
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Term
What does the Exciter do? |
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Definition
SPF, Produces the RF and IF frequencies used by the radar for both transmit and receive and generates all the timing signals for the radar subsystem |
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Term
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Definition
Inertial Measurement group- SPF, provides antenna attitude to aid in radar beam pointing and analog roll rate signals to aid in antenna stabilization. It also provides the CCs with andtenna attitude and velocity components for motion compensation and radar data processing functions |
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Term
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Definition
Antenna Servo electronics- SPF, Contains the electronics for positioning the antenna in elevation by rolling it from the side to side and provides power to the antenna |
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Term
What are the four warnings associated with the forward lower lobe? 1. 1+Warning: High-noise levels in lower compartment during flight could prevent _________. What are all personnel required to do? At least one person will maintain ______? 2. The radar shall not radiate within ____ of the tanker airplane. 3. In flight, do not transmit on mission radar within ____ ft horizontally or ____ ft vertically from another airplane. 4. How will the radar be during fuel dumping? |
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Definition
1+Warning: High-noise levels in lower compartment during flight could prevent hearing emergency signals and could cause personnel hearing damage. All personnel entering lower compartments in flight shall wear headsets. At least one person per lower compartment shall maintain interphone communication with flight or mission crew. (2-15, 3-18, 3-19)
2+Warning: The radar shall not radiate within ½ mile of the tanker airplane. (2-17, 2-72)
3+Warning: In flight, do not transmit on mission radar within 1,000 feet horizontally or 1,000 feet vertically from another airplane. (5-2)
4+Warning: Radar shall be turned off during fuel dumping to reduce fire hazards. (5-2) |
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Term
What can be found in the galley? |
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Definition
• Convection Oven: Be sure to set both dials when using. • Coffee Makers (2) • Liquid Storage Jugs (3) • Hot Cups (2): Controlled by 30 min timer knobs. • Refrigerator/Freezer: CHILL (+33 to +45 degrees), FREEZE (-6 to +8 degrees) • Sink/Faucet: Only clear liquids can be put down the sink drain as it empties out the side of the jet. The faucet runs off the jet’s water tanks that we don’t fill. • Galley Power is supplied to the electrical control panel by Generator No.1 via three circuit breaks and a power switch on the FE’s upper panel. |
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Term
Warnings associated with the galley 1. Galley shall be _____ during air refueling. What can you not do if fuel vapors are present? 2. The hot cup shall be used with at least _______ of liquid or semisolid food. |
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Definition
1+Warning: Galley power shall be turned OFF during air refueling. Do not apply electrical power to galley if fuel vapor is present. (1-418)
2+Warning: The hot cup heating element can explode if operated dry. Do not operate the hot cup with less than one cup of liquid or semisolid food. (1-423) |
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Term
Three cautions associated with the galley 1. What do you need to do if the airplane is going to be depressurized? 2. Can you brew coffee when the water tank is empty. 3. What must you do anytime the fault light illuminates? |
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Definition
1+Caution: If airplane is going to be depressurized, set HOT CUP, LIQUID CONTAINER, and COFFEE MAKER switches on galley electrical panel to OFF to prevent liquids from boiling and possibly damaging galley components. (1-418, 1-422, 1-423)
2+Caution: Do not attempt to brew coffee when the water tank is empty. Damage to the heating element can result. (1-422)
3+Caution: Turn refrigerator/freezer power switch to OFF anytime FAULT light illuminates. Damage to equipment could result. (1-423) |
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Term
Five notes concerning the galley 1. Allow _____ minutes for the refrigerator to reach chill from ambient temp and ____ minutes for the freezer to reach freeze from ambient temp. 2. What will occur if the liquid sensors are not placed in the pot? 3. What should you do if the red bezel light does not illuminate (and oven is cold). 4. What happens once the oven reaches the desired temp? What does it do after that to maintain temp? 5. What happens if the oven is still warm from a previous use and a lower temp is selected? |
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Definition
1+Note: Allow approximately 40 minutes for the refrigerator to reach CHILL operating range from ambient temperature and approximately 60 minutes for the freezer to reach FREEZE range from ambient temperature. (1-423)
2+Note: If liquid sensors are not placed in pot, water does not shut off automatically. (1-422)
3+Note: If red bezel light does not illuminate (and oven is cold), heating element is not receiving power – check oven circuit breakers are closed and switches are on. (1-423)
4+Note: When oven reaches desired temperature, red bezel light goes out. Temperature controller cycles power to heating element, as required, to maintain temperature. (1-423)
5+Note: If oven is still warm from a previous use and a lower temperature is selected, red bezel light does not come on until oven cools. (1-423) |
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Term
Who is responsible for getting the survival kits? |
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Definition
Seat 15 gets aft one, seat 16 gets forward one |
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Term
What is different about the firefighter's panel in the cockpit? |
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Definition
Same as others with an added manual gear extension crank and engine start tool |
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Term
When must the observer seat be occupied? |
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Definition
When the aircraft is below 10K and and during critical phases of flight (t/o, ldg, appch, AR, emergencies, and anytime the ac is below 5k) |
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Term
Where is the forward avionics bay? |
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Definition
Underneath the observers seat |
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Term
What are the last ditch exts and should only be used if no other exit is practical or available. Which one can be opened from the outside? |
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Definition
Pilot and co-pilot sliding windows/ co-pilots can be opened from outside |
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Term
What are the two warnings associated with the pilot window strap? |
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Definition
+Warning: (pilot window strap) be certain that strap is securely fastened and the retainer is seated. (3-14)
+Warning: (pilot window strap) Use care to avoid probes and pitot heads when descending along the side of the airplane. (3-14) |
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Term
5 warnings associated with emergency signals 1. The ________ is loud enough to prevent hearing any other signal on radio, interphone or public address speakers. Crewmembers will be notified ________to prevent confusion. (1-461) 2. What will crewmembers do when the loss of pressure signs are illuminated in flight? 3. What will crewmembers do when the fasten seat belt sign is illuminated? 4. Who does the flight crew notify when the fasten seat belt sign is illuminated? What will this person do next? 5. What occurs when you set the draw through system control switch to OVRD in flight? |
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Definition
1+Warning: The bell signal is loud enough to prevent hearing any other signal on radio, interphone or public address speakers. Crewmembers will be notified before bell signal is tested to prevent confusion. (1-461)
2+Warning: When the LOSS OF PRESSURE signs are illuminated in flight, all crew members shall immediately don oxygen masks and set oxygen regulators to ON and 100%. (1-461)
3+Warning: When the FASTEN SEAT BELT signs are illuminated, all crew members shall return to their seats, fasten seat belts, and remain there until the signs are turned off. Crewmembers whose duties are essential during this period are allowed to perform those duties as directed. (1-463) 4+Warning: The flight crew notifies the mission crew commander (MCC) when FASTEN SEAT BELT signs are illuminated. The MCC ensures that all personnel in the main mission compartment and the bunks have fastened their seatbelts and that all personnel in the lower compartments and lavatories have returned to their seats. (1-463)
5Warning: Setting the draw thru system control switch to OVRD in-flight will cause the OVBD valve to open resulting in loss of cabin pressurization. |
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Term
What are the two cautions associated with circuit breakers? |
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Definition
+Caution: Only one attempt to close a circuit breaker is permitted unless cause of trip is known and corrected. Crewmembers will not continue to close circuit breakers that will not stay closed, or hold switch type breakers on. All reported electrical faults will be investigated (conditions permitting), or the equipment will be deactivated or turned off until an investigation can be made. (1-23)
+Caution: If equipment powered by a tripped circuit breaker has a switch, switch shall be set to OFF position before resetting breaker. (1-23) |
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Term
What is the warning associated with stowing equipment? |
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Definition
+Warning: Personal safety is paramount. Do not attempt to stow equipment and lose precious time when bracing for impact is more important. (3-14) |
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Term
What is the warning associated with commercial carry-on test equipment? |
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Definition
+Warning: Remove power from commercial carry-on test equipment and from any non-mission equipment. During aerial refueling operations, crewmembers shall refrain from switching power on/off to any PME electrical components or mating/de-mating electrical power plugs into convenience outlet receptacles or power strips. (2-17, 2-62, 2-72) |
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Term
What is the note concerning the STORE switch? |
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Definition
+Note: Do not press STORE switch at any time on GDs with a STORE option. Pressing STORE switch will erase factory CRT calibration values. (2-7, 2-26, 2-69) |
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Term
What is the note concerning what the art and cst check upon notification of the fe? |
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Definition
Note: Upon notification by the FE, the ART checks forward lower compartment, crew rest area, and forward mission equipment racks; CST checks aft of airplane, over wings for unusual conditions, and aft lower compartment for presence of fire, smoke, fumes, loose equipment, or any unusual conditions. |
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Term
What is the note associated with quick-don mask assembly units? |
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Definition
Note: Quick-don mask assembly must be stowed with suspension assembly closed if headset is left connected through quick-don while headset microphone is being used. Improper stowage of assembly can allow suspension to unfold and switch off headset microphone. |
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Term
Emergency Floor Strip Lighting: __ green lights run down the left side of the aisle floor. These lights run to _____ lights which indicate _____. |
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Definition
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Term
If assigned to OWS 6, check O2 bottles (check bottle over ____ first then check bottle at _____) priori to sitting seat and performing preflight checklist. |
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Definition
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Term
There are ____ O2 bottles on board, ____ required on the main deck, ___ in the fwd lower lobe and __ in aft lower lobe. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you purge an O2 bottle? |
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Definition
recharge and discharge (upside down) 3 times then recharge and secure bottle. |
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Term
Bottles provide enough oxygen for ___ mins of moderate activity at _____ ft. |
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Definition
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Term
O2 bottles should be charged to _____ psi, but can never be charged higher than ____. |
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Definition
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Term
When performing a preflight inspection, check that bottle is charged to at least ___psi. Check hose for cleanliness and make sure there are ___ or ___. Check mounting bracket and straps for ___ and ensure the mask is ____. |
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Definition
290 psi, no tears or possible areas for leaks. Security, attached to the bottle. |
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Term
Six warnings associated with the O2 bottle 1. What is significant about the MA-1 portable o2 bottle altitude selector knob? 2. What does firefighting do to the duration of the O2 bottle? What steps must be taken if a compensating tube on the exhalation valve is equipped? What do you do if you're using the older mask? How do you clear the mask of smoke? 3. What must you check before servicing the O2 bottle? 4. Unless (three conditions), set the regulator to norm. 5. What will happen if portable O2 bottles are not secured. 6. What must you ensure when removing the MA-1 portable O2 bottle? 6. When removing the MA-1 portable O2 bottle, what must you do to prevent possible injury? |
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Definition
1+Warning: A positive lock is not provided on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle altitude selector knob. The knob can be unintentionally moved from the desired position and possibly cause a depletion of the oxygen supply. (1-436, 1-441, 2-68)
2+Warning: Oxygen duration is extremely limited when using firefighters mask with MA-1 portable oxygen bottle. If firefighters mask is equipped with compensating tube on the exhalation valve, use the lowest pressure setting (30M, 42M, or EMER) to keep mask free of smoke. IF using the older mask (which has no compensating tube and no intercom), or if using the mask only for eye protection from fire extinguisher, use NORM. Use higher setting to clear mask of smoke. (1-436)
3+Warning: Before servicing a portable oxygen bottle, ensure that oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen bottle recharge outlet are free of oil and grease. Combustion or contamination could result from failure to comply. (1-437, 1-441, 2-68)
4+Warning: Unless clearing the mask of smoke or using 30M or 42M setting for pressure breathing, set the regulator to NORM. (1-441, 2-68)
5+Warning: If portable oxygen bottles are not properly secured, bottles can vibrate out of holder in flight and possibly cause injury to crew members. (1-445, 2-68)
6+Warning: When removing the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle, ensure to relatch metal holder to prevent possible injury. (1-441, 2-68) |
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Term
2 notes associated with the O2 bottle 1. In what configuration can the O2 bottle be filled? 2. Pressure in portable oxygen bottles should not be permitted to drop below ___ psi. Purging is not required when bottle pressure drops below ___psi during use if the bottle is recharged within ___ minutes. (1-437, 1-441, 1-445, 2-67) |
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Definition
Note: Bottle (portable O2) can be filled while oxygen mask or firefighter’s mask is in use.
+Note: Pressure in portable oxygen bottles should not be permitted to drop below 50 psi. Purging is not required when bottle pressure drops below 50 psi during use if the bottle is recharged within 15 minutes. (1-437, 1-441, 1-445, 2-67) |
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Term
Four warnings associated with the seats 1. How will seat belts be worn? 2. How will the seat be configured during takeoff and landing for crash protection? 3. Do not operate reading lights if ____ is present. 4. What will be locked for crash protection? |
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Definition
SEATS: 1+Warning: Unless crew duties prohibit, seatbelt, crotch strap (when installed), and shoulder harness will be fastened and inertial reel locked for crash protection. (1-412)
2+Warning: Mission crew seat adjustments shall be locked with seat back erect during takeoff and landing for crash protection. (1-412, 3-19)
3+Warning: Do not operate reading lights if fuel vapor is present. (1-415, 1-429)
4+Warning: For crash protection, the shoulder harness inertia reel shall be locked. (3-14, 3-19) |
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Term
What is the caution associated with the seats? |
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Definition
+Caution: To prevent damage to seat locking pins, do not release seat adjustment handle/levers while seat is in motion. (1-412, 2-4, 2-11, 2-34, 2-68) |
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Term
Three warnings associated with the O2 system at the OWS 1. What must the DILUTER DEMAN lever is set to when setting SUPPLY is OFF? What will happen if this doesn't occur? 2. When the O2 system is used, what must you check to ensure? 3. What must you not do if using a regulator with test connectors on the front panel? How will the panel be configured? |
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Definition
1+Warning: Always verify DILUTER DEMAND lever is set to 100% OXYGEN when setting SUPPLY lever is OFF. Failure to do so could cause ambient air/moisture to enter system. (1-439)
2+Warning: When oxygen equipment is used, check to ensure that hose is connected, pressure is up, regulator settings as desired, and flow indicator is operating. This is important as it is possible to breathe through some masks when the hose is disconnected or when diluter level is on NORMAL OXYGEN and supply lever set to OFF and diluter lever set to NORMAL OXYGEN. (1-435, 1-443, 2-5, 2-11, 2-35, 2-68)
3+Warning: On regulators with test connectors on the front panel, do not move diluter lever to 100% OXYGEN when SUPPLY lever is set to OFF. These regulators are usually placarded NO OFF PROTECTION. Diluter lever shall be set to 100% Oxygen when setting SUPPLY lever to OFF. (1-443) |
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Term
4 notes associated with the O2 system at the OWS 1. What happens when the mask right suspension assembly unfolds? 2. What position should be used for long duration, un=pressurized flight? What configuration? 3. What positions will override the diluter demand lever? 4. What is significant about the CRU-73A when the supply lever is set to off? |
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Definition
1+Note: Mask microphone automatically switches on and headset microphone switches off when quick-donning mask is connected to headset connector and when mask right suspension assembly unfolds. (1-441, 2-67)
2+Note: NORMAL OXYGEN position should be used for long duration, un-pressurized flight. Level is normally set to 100% OXYGEN for emergencies. Position is changed to NORMAL OXYGEN at pilots command. (1-435)
3+Note: Using EMERGENCY or TEST MASK position overrides DILUTER DEMAND lever. (1-436)
4+Note: With the CRU-73A regulator, it is not possible to breathe at all when the SUPPLY lever is set to OFF. (1-439) |
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